Free VMware Certification Exams Source Learning Center – Pass4itsure New Questions Answers Dumps Free for All

Paying a high price to get a high-priced 350-401 dumps is not necessarily successful. Passing the Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam requires correct, up-to-date 350-401 dumps.

Success cannot be achieved at a high price. To solve this problem, Pass4itSure has launched the latest 350-401 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-401.html to help you, at a low cost for everyone. (Only $45.99)

Why is it impossible to succeed in the 350-401 exam at a high price?

Because success depends not on the price of the 350-401 dumps, but on the quality of the dumps.

High price does not equal high quality! Some unethical providers define 350-401 dumps for a hundred dollars at exorbitant prices, but the content is really outdated, repetitive, and will not help you in the slightest!

The low price also has high-quality Cisco 350-401 dumps!

There are also some people who adhere to the principles of honesty, truthfulness, and trustworthiness, and provide you with real-time updated 350-401 dump exam preparation resources at moderate prices and serve candidates wholeheartedly to help you complete the exam.

Pass4itSure is just that. It is a compilation of the latest 350-401 exam learning materials, providing you with the newest exam practice questions, all based on actual exam content. The 350-401 dumps, a collection of questions from painstaking work, expert preparation, and constant feedback, will make it easy to pass the 350-401 exam.

Free 350-401 dumps questions pdf (2023)

Want to pass the Cisco 350-401 exam at a low cost? Want to get free 350-401 dumps? That’s right, we’ve collected the latest questions for the 350-401 exam, and there’s a PDF available for free download.

Cisco ENCOR 350-401 practice questions online practice

350-401 Practice Question 1:

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

A. ideal for data center

B. complicated deployment

C. ideal for client/end-user system

D. referred to as bare-metal

Correct Answer: C

---

350-401 Practice Question 2:

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

A. VNI

B. GRE

C. VTEP

D. EVPN

Correct Answer: C

VTEP (Virtual Tunnel Endpoint) – This is the device that does the encapsulation and de-encapsulation.

---

350-401 Practice Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID.

Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

A. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

Correct Answer: D

---

350-401 Practice Question 4:

Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

A. TCP

B. HTTPS

C. SSH

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: B

The REST API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS messages that contain JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents. You can use any programming language to generate the messages and the JSON or XML documents that contain the API methods or Managed Object (MO) descriptions.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2- x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/ b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Config uration_Guide_chapter_01.html

---

350-401 Practice Question 5:

Which of the following statements regarding BFD are correct? (Select 2 choices.)

A. BFD is supported by OSPF, EIGRP, BGP, and IS-IS.

B. BFD detects link failures in less than one second.

C. BFD can bypass a failed peer without relying on a routing protocol.

D. BFD creates one session per routing protocol per interface.

E. BFD is supported only on physical interfaces.

F. BFD consumes more CPU resources than routing protocol timers do.

Correct Answer: AB

---

350-401 Practice Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured Cisco ISE to assign VLANs to clients based on their method of authentication, but this is not working as expected. Which action will resolve this issue?

A. require a DHCP address assignment

B. utilize RADIUS profiling

C. set a NAC state

D. enable AAA override

Correct Answer: D

---

350-401 Practice Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers. Which configuration accomplishes the task?

A. R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

B. R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200

C. R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

D. R4(config-router)nighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200

Correct Answer: A

Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has a preference to exit the AS in order to reach a certain network. A path with a higher local preference is preferred. The default value for local preference is 100.

Unlike the weight attribute, which is only relevant to the local router, local preference is an attribute routers exchange in the same AS.

The local preference is set with the “bgp default local-preference value ” command. In this case, both R3 and R4 have exit links but R4 has a higher local preference so R4 will be chosen as the preferred exit point from AS 200.

---

350-401 Practice Question 8:

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0

R2(config-if)# ip ospf 100 area 0

B. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#ip ospf 100 area 0

C. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-multipoint R2(config-if)# router ospf 100 R2(config-router)# network 172.22.2.0 0.0.0.265 area 0

D. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network broadcast R2(config-if)# ip ospf 100 area 0

Correct Answer: B

When OSPF is running on a given loopback interface, it sees the network type of “LOOPBACK” and it knows that it can not establish an adjacency through that loopback interface with another router so it advertises that loopback as a host route or the only IP address on that logical interface.

As Martin explained so nicely you can tell OSPF that it is not a loopback and a point-to-point network type, and OSPF says “OK I am going to advertise the interface with its correct mask”.

In an MPLS environment where OSPF is the IGP in the core, and you have configured the loopback interface of the PE router with a /24 mask, you can have some problems, because there is a discrepancy, the loopback\’s mask is 24 but OSPF is advertising a mask of /32.

There are a few solutions to fix this problem, one solution is to reconfigure the mask to be /32, and another solution is to configure the loopback interface with “ip ospf network point-to-point”.

---

350-401 Practice Question 9:

DRAG DROP

An engineer plans to use Python to convert text files that contain device information to JSON Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct the request. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

350-401 Practice Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

A. 1

B. 7

C. 13

D. 15

Correct Answer: A

Lines (CON, AUX, VTY) default to level 1 privileges.

---

350-401 Practice Question 11:

Which two statements about VRF-lite are factual? (Choose two)

A. It can support multiple customers on a single switch

B. It supports most routing protocols, including EIGRP, ISIS, and OSPF

C. It should be used when a customer\’s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF

D. It can increase the packet switching rate

E. It supports MPLS-VRF label exchange and labeled packets

Correct Answer: AC

VRF-lite does not support IGRP and ISIS.

1. VRF-lite does not support all MPLS-VRF functionality: label exchange, LDP adjacency, or labeled packets.

2. VRF-lite does not affect the packet switching rate.

3. The capability vrf-lite subcommand under router ospf should be used when configuring OSPF as the routing protocol between the PE and the CE.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/vrf.html#wp1045190

---

350-401 Practice Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

350-401 Practice Question 13:

An engineer must configure the interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. To accomplish this task, which command set must be added to the initial configuration?

Initial Configuration interface GigabitEthernet0/0description To IDF A 38-24-044.40ip address 172.16.13.2 255.255.255.0

A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt

B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120

C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120

D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt

Correct Answer: A

In fact, VRRP has the preemption enabled by default so we don`t need the vrrp 10 preempt command. The default priority is 100 so we don`t need to configure it either.

But notice that the correct command to configure the virtual IP address for the group is vrrp 10 ip {ip-address} (not vrrp group 10 ip …) and this command does not include a subnet mask.

---

350-401 Practice Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the QoS mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

350-401 Practice Question 15:

Using the EIRP formula, what parameter is subtracted to determine the EIRP value?

A. transmitter power

B. antenna cable loss

C. antenna gain

D. signal-to-noise ratio

Correct Answer: B

Once you know the complete combination of the transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual power level that will be radiated from the antenna.

This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries.

In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract the cable loss.

latest questions for the 350-401 pdf free download:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1vd0-M9gbSw691vc5eBP_QxWBmCHD0xju/view?usp=share_link

Other Cisco CCNP exam resource sharing:

Cisco CCNP Dumps

Better, Free Cisco 300-715 Exam Dumps Questions

Summary:

Now you understand what the title says? It is important to choose the appropriate 350-401 dumps for the ENCOR 350-401 exam. Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps are inexpensive and ideal for you. Come and pass the 350-401 exam at a low price! for the latest 350-401 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-401.html (966 Q&As)

AZ-900 dumps can help you pass the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam, but usually require a large amount of money. You need the latest AZ-900 dumps, and AZ-900 value-for-money learning materials to help you pass the exam.

Take a look at Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps 2023 https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html (New Issue 604+), always defining the dumps at a moderate price of $45.99 so that the majority of test takers are not under financial pressure.

How to pass the AZ-900 exam in 2023?

There is no doubt that you will need the help of real AZ-900 learning materials to pass the exam. The latest AZ-900 dumps you deserve to have.

Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps 2023 is the most challenging learning material to help you succeed on the Microsoft AZ-90 certification exam.

A few questions about the AZ-900 dumps study material

At present, there are many AZ-900 learning materials on the market, some of which are too complex and will make people’s brains hurt.

To sum up, there are generally two types of situations:

1. Some exam material providers define AZ-900 dumps prices at exorbitant prices that are unaffordable.
2. Other exam material providers define AZ-900 dumps at exaggerated and low prices, with worrying, outdated, and copied exam questions, costing you time and money!

Check out Pass4itSure

Pass4itSure provides you with a personalized service, the latest AZ-900 dumps learning materials, presented in PDF and VCE formats, and a variety of options. The $45.99 price to define the AZ-900 dumps is good value for money. Aren’t you still impressed?

Microsoft Azure Fundamentals (AZ-900 dumps) free questions

New Q1:

You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You need to customize a usage report for Microsoft Yammer. Which two tools can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services

B. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services

C. Microsoft Power BI in a browser

D. Microsoft Power BI Desktop

E. Microsoft Visual Studio

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/usage-analytics/customize-reports?view=o365-worldwide

---

New Q2:

Your company plans to migrate to Azure. The company has several departments. All the Azure resources used by each department will be managed by a department administrator.

You need to recommend an Azure deployment that provides the ability to segment Azure for the departments.

What are two possible techniques to segment Azure for the departments? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. multiple subscriptions

B. multiple Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directories

C. multiple regions

D. multiple resource groups

Correct Answer: AD

An Azure subscription is a container for Azure resources. It is also a boundary for permissions to resources and for billing. You are charged monthly for all resources in a subscription. A single Azure tenant (Azure Active Directory) can contain multiple Azure subscriptions.

A resource group is a container that holds related resources for an Azure solution. The resource group can include all the resources for the solution, or only those resources that you want to manage as a group.

To enable each department administrator to manage the Azure resources used by that department, you will need to create a separate subscription per department.

You can then assign each department administrator as an administrator for the subscription to enable them to manage all resources in that subscription.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/create-subscription https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/add-change-subscription-administrator

---

New Q3:

Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a Canadian government contractor

B. a European government contractor

C. a United States government entity

D. a United States government contractor

E. a European government entity

Correct Answer: CD

Azure Government is a cloud environment specifically built to meet compliance and security requirements for the US government. This mission-critical cloud delivers breakthrough innovation to U.S. government customers and their partners.

Azure Government applies to government at any level — from state and local governments to federal agencies including Department of Defense agencies.

The key difference between Microsoft Azure and Microsoft Azure Government is that Azure Government is a sovereign cloud. It\’s a physically separated instance of Azure, dedicated to U.S. government workloads only. It\’s built exclusively for government agencies and their solution providers.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government

---

New Q4:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

---

New Q5:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

New Q6:

Your developers have created 10 web applications that must be hosted on Azure. You need to determine which Azure web tier plan to host the web apps. The web tier plan must meet the following requirements:

1. The web apps will use custom domains.

2. The web apps each require 10 GB of storage.

3. The web apps must each run in dedicated compute instances.

4. Load balancing between instances must be included.

5. Costs must be minimized. Which web tier plan should you use?

A. Standard

B. Basic

C. Free

D. Shared

Correct Answer: B

Standard offers 50 GB of storage space, while Basic only gives 10 GB.

References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/websites/

---

New Q7:

Your company plans to deploy several million sensors that will upload data to Azure. You need to identify which Azure resources must be created to support the planned solution.

Which two Azure resources should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Data Lake

B. Azure Queue storage

C. Azure File Storage

D. Azure IoT Hub

E. Azure Notification Hubs

Correct Answer: AD

IoT Hub (Internet of things Hub) provides data from millions of sensors. IoT Hub is a managed service, hosted in the cloud, that acts as a central message hub for bi-directional communication between your IoT application and the devices it manages.

You can use Azure IoT Hub to build IoT solutions with reliable and secure communications between millions of IoT devices and a cloud-hosted solution backend. You can connect virtually any device to IoT Hub.

There are two storage services IoT Hub can route messages to — Azure Blob Storage and Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 (ADLS Gen2) accounts. Azure Data Lake Storage accounts are hierarchical namespace-enabled storage accounts built on top of blob storage. Both of these use blobs for their storage.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/about-iot-hub https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-messages-d2c

---

New Q8:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs macOS and has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

A PowerShell script is a file that contains PowerShell cmdlets and code. A PowerShell script needs to be run in PowerShell.

In this question, the computer has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed. Therefore, this solution does meet the goal.

Note: To create Azure resources using PowerShell, you would need to import the Azure PowerShell module which includes the PowerShell cmdlets required to create the resources.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/scripting/components/ise/how-to-write-and-run-scripts-in-the-windows-powershell-ise?view=powershell-6

New Q9:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

From Access Control (IAM), you can view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. Azure Event Hubs

C. Azure Activity Log

D. Azure Service Health

Correct Answer: C

You would use the Azure Activity Log, not Access Control to view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Activity logs are kept for 90 days. You can query for any range of dates, as long as the starting date isn’t more than 90 days in the past.

In this question, we would create a filter to display shut down operations on the virtual machine in the last 14 days.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit

---

New Q10:

HOTSPOT

You need to identify which blades in the Azure portal must be used to perform the following tasks:

1. View security recommendations.

2. Monitor the health of Azure services.

3. Browse available virtual machine images.

Which blade should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1:

Azure Monitor is used to monitoring the health of Azure services.

Azure Monitor maximizes the availability and performance of your applications and services by delivering a comprehensive solution for collecting, analyzing, and acting on telemetry from your cloud and on-premises environments.

It helps you understand how your applications are performing and proactively identify issues affecting them and the resources they depend on.

Box 2:

You can browse available virtual machine images in the Azure Marketplace.

Azure Marketplace provides access and information on solutions and services available from Microsoft and its partners. Customers can discover, try, or buy cloud software solutions built on or for Azure.

The catalog of 8,000+ listings provides Azure building blocks, such as Virtual Machines (VMs), APIs, Azure apps, Solution Templates and managed applications, SaaS apps, containers, and consulting services.

Box 3.

Azure Advisor displays security recommendations.

Azure Advisor provides you with a consistent, consolidated view of recommendations for all your Azure resources. It integrates with Azure Security Center to bring you security recommendations. You can get security recommendations from the Security tab on the Advisor dashboard.

Security Center helps you prevent, detect, and respond to threats with increased visibility into and control over the security of your Azure resources. It periodically analyzes the security state of your Azure resources.

When Security Center identifies potential security vulnerabilities, it creates recommendations. The recommendations guide you through the process of configuring the controls you need.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/marketplace/marketplace-faq-publisher-guide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/advisor/advisor-security-recommendations

---

New Q11:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

A resource can interact with resources in other resource groups.

Box 2: Yes

Deleting the resource group will remove the resource group as well as all the resources in that resource group. This can be useful for the management of resources. For example, a virtual machine has several components (the VM itself,

virtual disks, network adapter, etc.). By placing the VM in its own resource group, you can delete the VM along with all its associated components by deleting the resource group.

Another example is when creating a test environment. You could place the entire test environment (Network components, virtual machines, etc.) in one resource group. You can then delete the entire test environment by deleting the resource group.

Box 3: Yes

Resources from multiple different regions can be placed in a resource group. The resource group only contains metadata about the resources it contains.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-overview

https://www.codeisahighway.com/effective-ways-to-delete-resources-in-a-resource-group-on-azure/

---

New Q12:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-iaas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-saas/

---

New Q13:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/

---

New Q14:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

A PaaS solution does not provide access to the operating system. The Azure Web Apps service provides an environment for you to host your web applications. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS.

However, you have no direct access to the virtual machine, the operating system, or IIS.

Box 2: Yes

A PaaS solution that hosts web apps in Azure does provide the ability to scale the platform automatically. This is known as autoscaling. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS. Autoscaling means adding more load-balanced virtual machines to host web apps.

Box 3: Yes

PaaS provides a framework that developers can build upon to develop or customize cloud-based applications.

PaaS development tools can cut the time it takes to code new apps with pre-coded application components built into the platform, such as workflow, directory services, security features, search, and so on.

References:

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/

---

New Q15:

You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You save VM1 as a template named Template1 to the Azure Resource Manager library. You plan to deploy a virtual machine named VM2 from Template1.

What can you configure during the deployment of VM2?

A. operating system

B. administrator username

C. virtual machine size

D. resource group

Correct Answer: B

When deploying a virtual machine from a template, you must specify:

1. the Resource Group name and location for the VM

2. the administrator username and password

3. a unique DNS name for the public IP

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/ps-template

---

Free AZ-900 dumps pdf download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1hZ669aYL7-AqIuq0sfI9NDsBbnGCQa3Y/view?usp=share_link

Summary:

Pass4itSure has updated the AZ-900 dumps 2023 to be worthwhile study material that will help you pass the exam.

Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps are cost-effective, and they have a money-back guarantee, so you can get the latest AZ-900 dumps at https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html without worry

Guess you want to solve the VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot 5V0-41.20 exam as soon as possible, so we have updated the VMware 5V0-41.20 exam dumps (latest version) to help you quickly pass the VMware 5V0-41.20 exam.

Pass4itSure 5V0-41.20 exam dumps Latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-41-20.html has updated the dumps with accurate 36 questions and correct answers to ensure that you can successfully pass the 5V0-41.20 exam.

What the 5V0-41.20 exam looks like?

VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot: 5V0-41.20

Product: VMware SD-WAN™ by VeloCloud®
Associated Certification: VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot 2022

The 5V0-41.20 exam is a proctored exam. The test language is English, and you need to answer 36 multiple-choice questions in 90 minutes and score 300 points to pass.

5V0-41.20 exam useful resources:

• VCP Community
• VMware Customer Connect Learning
• VMware Press
• VMware Certification Market Place
• VCP Community
• VMware Customer Connect Learning

How do I pass the VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot exam quickly?

First, you need to have accurate VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot exam preparation materials.

Secondly, you need to practice.

Pass4itSure 5V0-41.20 exam dumps provide you with valid exam preparation materials for quick exam preparation.

Where can I download a valid 5V0-41.20 dumps PDF for preparation?

You can download the free 5V0-41.20 dumps pdf at [Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1L1pbuViYBsqagSY5iFQI5qxy-bhBsbvm/view?usp=share_link

Do you want to get the latest VMware 5v0-41.20 dumps questions?

If yes, then you have come to the right place. Free 5V0-41.20 dumps questions are available below.

5V0-41.20 Free Dumps Questions 1-13 Will Enhance Your Exam Success

Q1 -New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed. The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing.

Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources. The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

Users at the London site are complaining of various intermittent issues around websites not loading, or applications being remotely accessed disconnecting sporadically and reconnecting after a few minutes. The network administrator does not see anything strange on the Edge overview page and decides to check if the CPU or memory has been hitting close to 100. Where should the administrator verify this information?

A. In the VCO > Test 8c Troubleshoot > Remote Diagnostics > System Status
B. In the VCO > Monitor > Click London_Site01 > Click the System Tab
C. In the VCO > Remote Troubleshooting > Remote Actions > System Status
D. In the VCO > Monitor > Alerts

Correct Answer: B

Q2 – New

Scenario 2:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator has configured a Business Policy to send a specific application directly out of an underlay interface. Users have complained of slow responses for that application. While troubleshooting, the network administrator finds the traffic is actually taking an overlay path to another SD-WAN Edge.
What is causing this behavior?

A. The other Edge location is advertising a secure route for the application\\’s subnet.
B. uI has been configured forcing traffic into the underlay towards the hub.
C. Configuring Business Policy Direct settings have no effect on traffic flows.
D. Internet Back.
E. The underlay path is not available forcing traffic into the overlay.

Correct Answer: E

Q3 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator decides to deploy a local Checkpoint VNF appliance on the Edge in London to cut back on unnecessary traffic towards the NY hub location.

The Checkpoint VNF and associated security services were successfully deployed at the London Branch. Users are now complaining that Webpages are extremely slow to load, just like before. What should the administrator do?

A. Reboot the Edge, as this is a requirement in the deployment of a Security VNF.
B. Disable and redeploy the VNF with lower memory requirements.
C. Verify to see if a firewall rule in the Edge is set to allow traffic to the Checkpoint VNF.
D. Check the flow records in Remote Diagnostics.

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

The tunnel from the spoke to the hub is not coming up. What are the two possible reasons? (Choose two.)

A. Spoke Edge and hub Edge are two different Edge models.
B. Spoke Edge and hub Edge have a mismatched certificate authentication mode.
C. Hub WAN Interface might be behind the NAT Device or firewall.
D. Dynamic Branch to Branch is not enabled.

Correct Answer: BC

Q5 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already verified the configuration is correct. Which two parameters should the administrator review to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss)
B. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings
C. Check the flows to verify which Business Policy the traffic of interest is matching
D. Look under Monitor, check the Business priority tab

Correct Answer: AD

Q6 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and blanches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

After deploying the Edge, the security team has determined that traffic from Guest wireless traffic is able to reach resources in the Production network. There should be absolutely no interaction. How can this be prevented?

A. Create an additional segment for Guest wireless traffic and leave the Production traffic in the default global segment.
B. Segmentation is currently not supported on VeloCloud Edge.
C. Create two subnets, one for Guest wireless traffic and another one for Production traffic.
D. Have Guest wireless and Production traffic in the same segment but different VLANs.

Correct Answer: A

Q7 – New

Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers
are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.

Users at multiple branches complain that a highly performant SQL Database cluster residing at the New York Data Center is not responding to database queries or inserts as expected. It is affecting the order management site. A network administrator investigates and finds that traffic from the branches is going through Seattle to reach the SQL Cluster in New York. The design for this SD-WAN network does not call for routing security.

The SQL Cluster is reachable through either Data Center, but for performance reasons, must flow through the New York DC. The network administrator has verified that the routes are not present in the OFC and the BGP neighborship is down in Network Services.

Refer to the Exhibit(s).
Exhibit.

What should the administrator verify?

A. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in New York.
B. The BGP Authentication matches on both sides.
C. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in Seattle.
D. Backhauling through Seattle DC is disabled.

Correct Answer: D

Q8 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present- The network administrator is informed (that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Which metrics can a network administrator verify in the QoE screen to determine the overall health of Underlay and Overlay?

A. Jitter Packet Loss, Speed.
B. Jitter, Packet Loss, Latency.
C. Jitter, Speed, Latency.
D. Packet Loss, Latency, Speed.

Correct Answer: B

Q9 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

A network administrator is investigating connectivity issues between Chicago and San Jose. The administrator browses the Overlay Flow Control (OFC) window and notices that the screen is blank with no routes shown in the OFC. What is a possible reason for this?

A. Cloud VPN for the Edges / Profiles is not enabled.
B. There is an invalid MTU configuration in Chicago.
C. OSPF or BGP is not enabled.
D. The routing table on the Edges has not been initialized.

Correct Answer: A

Q10 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected lo.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users are complaining that web pages to certain websites are very slow to load and at times unresponsive. The network administrator has verified that the traffic is going correctly out of the underlay.
What should the administrator check next?

A. Verify if Path-MTU Discovery is disabled.
B. Verify if there is latency, loss, or jitter on the underlay.
C. Verify the Business Policy flows are matching.
D. Verify if routes to Gateways are present in the Overlay Flow Control (OFC).

Correct Answer: A

Q11 – New

Scenario 1:
A network administrator is tasked with enabling SD-WAN at three branch locations. Topology has been provided for reference. For each site, the administrator is having issues bringing edges online, as another administrator has gone ahead and created a configuration ahead of time. The organization has several branch sites.

One is an Internet-only site and two are Hybrid locations with both internet and MPLS. The last location is MPLS only. There are hub data center locations in this environment as well. Please refer to the topology.
Exhibit.

The network administrator determines the issue preventing the Dallas Branch from coming online.
Refer to the Exhibit(s). What must the administrator do for the Edge to communicate with the Orchestrator and other branches?

A. Reverse the WAN Overlay configurations
B. Update the Orchestrator to the latest version as it enables “Auto WAN Swapping”
C. Delete the User-Defined WAN Overlays as the Orchestrator will discover these automatically on MPLS and Internet
D. Create a User-defined WAN Overlay to bond both interfaces

Correct Answer: A

Q12 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already configured Business Policies based on these requirements. What is the sequence of parameters that the administrator can check to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings.
B. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss).
C. Under Monitor, check the Routing tab.
D. Review Business Policies configuration and match them against the business requirements.

Correct Answer: BD

Q13 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing; internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring several branches to prefer a single prefix, 10.20.11.0/24, from the Seattle hub over the New York hub for various application performance reasons. What are two effective ways the administrator can accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the AS Path in New York to be shorter for 10.20.11.0/24.
B. In the hub preferred order in the profile, set the Seattle hub to be preferred over New York.
C. Modify the AS Path in New York to be longer for 10.20.11.0/24.
D. In the OFC 10.20.11.0/24, modify the preferred exit point to Seattle and pin the route.

Correct Answer: BD

To successfully pass the 5V0-41.20 exam, you can use the latest Pass4itSure 5V0-41.20 exam dumps as preparation material. Click here for the full 5V0-41.20 exam questions.

Our 5V0-23.20 dumps have just been updated to accurate content and are the best material for you to study for the VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist exam, and she is also the most accurate VMware 5V0-23.20 exam preparation.

New Pass4itSure 5V0-23.20 dumps WebPage https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-23-20.html With 62 new exam practice questions from the latest exam content, you will be able to pass the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam with serious practice.

Can you introduce the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam?

The 5V0-23.20 exam is a 62-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. The exam time is 125 minutes.

Product: VMware vSphere with Tanzu
Associated Certification: VMware Certified Specialist – vSphere with Tanzu 2022

What 5V0-23.20 exam resources need attention?

• VCP Community
• VMware Customer Connect Learning
• VMware Press
• VMware Certification Market Place
• Pass4itSure 5V0-23.20 dumps

What is an effective preparation for the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam?

That must be to prepare for the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam with the latest 5V0-23.20 dumps as valid learning material.

The latest 5V0-23.20 dumps are the perfect way to prepare for the exam.

Where can I get the valid 5V0-23.20 dumps? Is there a free one?

Over here. Pass4itSure provides you with the correct 5V0-23.20 dumps and is the best 5V0-23.20 exam study material.

And you can also download the latest 5V0-23.20 dumps PDF Q&A for free: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1w24-wm1lvUfdG2mfinCsTABrvR1GKYkS/view?usp=share_link

VMware 5V0-23.20 free dumps questions to help you pass:

Q1 – New

How do Tanzu Kubemetes clusters communicate with Storage Policy Based Management to request
PersistentVolumes?

A. Through a proxy VM
B. Directly with vCenter Server and the underlying ESXi hosts
C. Through the Supervisor Cluster
D. Directlywith the vCenter Server

Correct Answer: A

Q2 – New

A developer is connecting to a Tanzu Kubernetes Cluster using the kubectl sphere login command
Which information must be specified, in addition to both the name of the cluster and the Supervisor Cluster Control Wane IP?

A. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the SSO Username
B. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the Token D for the SSO credentials
C. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the Token ID for the SSO credentials
D. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the SSO Username

Correct Answer: B

Q3 – New

The network topology for a Supervisor Cluster deployed using the vSphere networking stack, and an HAProxy load balancer is being planned. In addition to the control plane management IP range and services P range, how many nonoverlapping P address ranges are needed?

A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

Which value must be increased or decreased to horizontally scale a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster?

A. Namespaces
B. etc instance
C. Worker node count
D. ReplicaSets

Correct Answer: C

Q5 – New

On which cluster can a Supervisor Namespace be created?
A. A Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Integrated cluster
B. A vSphere 7 clusters enabled with Workload Management
C. A Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
D. A vSphere 6.7 clusters enabled with Workload Management

Correct Answer: C

Q6 – New

A company needs to provide global visibility and consistent policy management across multiple Tanzu Kubernetes Clusters, namespaces, and clouds Which VMware solution will meet these requirements\’?

A. vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster
B. vCenter Server
C. Tanzu Mission Control
D. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service

Correct Answer: A

Q7 – New

The application development team is pushing a Kubernetes application into production. It consists of an application server and a database. The team wants to ensure that only the production application server can access the production database.

Can the development team meet this requirement using Kubernetes Network Policy?

A. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a Network Policy that only allows pods on the same network segment
to talk to each other.
B. Yes. by logging in to NSX Manager and creating firewall rules to only allow the production application server pod to talk to the database
C. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a policy that disables pod-to-pod communication in the Namespace
D. No, Kubernetes Network Policy does not support this action.

Correct Answer: A

Q8 – New

Which command should be used by a developer to log in to the vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster?
A. vmwarectl login –server- –vsphere-username
B. kubectl vsphere login –server= –vsphereusername
C. vmwarectl vsphere login –server– –vsphereusername
D. kubectl login –server= –vsphere-username

Correct Answer: B

Q9 – New

Which requirement is valid for vSphere with Tanzu on the vSphere Distributed Switch Network?

A. Workload networks that are routable to the primary workload network
B. HAProxy Virtual Server IP range that is allocated to NSX-T edge router external interface
C. Network Interface Cards with Single Root IO Visualization Support (SR-IOV)
D. HAProxy Frontend interface that has a common subnet and bridged interface to workload networks

Correct Answer: B

Q10 – New

Which two considerations need to be made when deciding on a virtual machine class type during the process of creating a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two )

A. Whether the resources provided by the virtual machine class type should be reserved on the host
B. The configuration parameters that need to be edited in the cluster
C. The amount of CPU. memory, and storage the virtual machine should have
D. Connectivity between the Tanzu Kubernetes cluster and the Subscribed Content Library
E. The storage classes which need to be made available to the cluster

Correct Answer: CD

Q11 – New

Which step in vSphere with Tanzu enablement using the vSphere Distributed Switch process is done prior to using the Workload Management Enablement Wizard?

A. Deploy the load balancer
B. Choose the Kubernetes content library that should be used in the Supervisor Cluster
C. Define the Primary workload network P range
D. Define the Management network interfaces for the Supervisor Cluster

Correct Answer: D

Q12 – New

Which two capabilities are associated with vSphere Pod? (Choose two.)

A. Compatibility with vSphere vMotion
B. Compatibility with vSphere performance charts
C. Compatibility with NSX-V Datacenter
D. Compatibility with vSphere HA and DRS
E. Compatibility with Windows and Linux kernels

Correct Answer: CD

Q13 – New

How does Kubernetes implement the vSphere storage policy in vSphere with Tanzi?

A. Storage class
B. Paravirtual CSl
C. Static Persistent Volume
D. Persistent Volume

Correct Answer: D

……

Firmly use Pass4itSure 5V0-23.20 dumps (All 5V0-23.20 exam questions) https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-23-20.html Prepare for the exam, success must be yours. Come on.

To take the Professional VMware Horizon 8. X exam, I’m guessing you’ll need real VMware 2V0-51.21 prep materials. Here, Pass4itSure has prepared the latest VMware 2V0-51.21 exam dumps for you, which is ideal for passing the 2V0-51.21 exam preparation material.

Go to the 2V0-51.21 exam dumps page https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-51-21.html You’ll see a new 94 new quiz practice preparation materials to help you get through.

What is the 2V0-51.21 exam 2022?

2V0-51.21 Exam | Professional VMware Horizon 8. X

Product: Horizon 8. x

Associated Certification: VCP-DTM 2022

Question types: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Hot Area

The 2V0-51.21 exam requires you to answer 60 questions in 120 minutes and score more than 300 points to pass.

Are there any free VMware 2V0-51.21 resources available to learn after passing the exam?

You can prepare for the exam with the help of free 2V0-51.21 exam dumps resources provided by Pass4itSure.

Download online free 2V0-51.21 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/11VCF3Kva5r8i7X8VUhgYgEdSTZFY3JUT/view?usp=share_link

How do get prepared for the VMware 2V0-51.21 exam?

If you prepare 2V0-51.21 preparation materials, it will help you a lot in the exam. You can get the best 2V0-51.21 exam dumps preparation material on the Pass4itSure website. Our 2V0-51.21 exam dumps preparation materials will be very helpful for the main exam.

Where can I find free new VMware 2V0-51.21 exam dumps questions?

Here, Certificationpdf.com is there for you. Right below.

2V0-51.21 Free Dumps Free Questions Answers:

Q1 – New

Refer to the exhibit.

The error in the exhibit was received while an administrator was trying to connect to a Horizon ADSI database from a Connection Server. What change does the administrator need to make in the UI to connect to the ADSI database?

A. Change the Computer field to localhost: 369
B. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vdi, dc-int, dc-vmware
C. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vmware,dc-vdi, dc-int
D. Change the Computer field to localhost:3268

Correct Answer: B

Q2 – New

After a disaster recovery failure which left the data center unavailable, a company\’s Horizon Administrator team has dedicated to increase the capacity of their Horizon desktop pools and their resiliency. Which two deployment options would support the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Horizon Desktop deployed as a Service on vCloud Air.
B. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on AWS.
C. Horizon deployed m the same Local Data Center.
D. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on VMware.
E. Horizon deployed in a Remote Data Center

Correct Answer: AC

Q3 -New

An administrator has added a support PCI graphics accelerator to a virtual machine configuration. Which the administrator tries to power on the virtual machine, an error is displayed and the virtual machine remains powered off.

Which of the following virtual machine configuration settings needs to be applied to enable the virtual machine to power on?

A. Reserve all guest memory.
B. Set Memory Shares to High
C. Enable Video Card 3D Graphics.
D. Disable CPU Hot Plug.

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

An administrator needs to change the message a user receives when using an old Horizon client.
Where can this be accomplished?

A. Settings > Global Settings > Client Restriction Settings
B. Client settings in VMware Dynamic Environment Manager
C. Client Restrictions under Desktop Pool settings
D. Settings > Global Policies > Client Restriction Settings

Correct Answer: D

Q5 – New

Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?

A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine.
B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation.
C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine.
D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Dynamic-Environment-Manager/2106/dynamic-environmentmanager2106-install-config.pdf

Q6 – New

What must be implemented on all Connection Servers for logon segment information to be populated in the Horizon Helpdesk Tool?

A. Vdmadmin -1timingProfiler -Enable
B. Vdmadmin -A -d dtpool2 -m machine1 -getstatus
C. Blast Secure Gateway
D. Horizon Helpdesk Agent

Correct Answer: B

Q7 – New

An administrator is leveraging PCoIP protocol in their Horizon environment and wants to distribute clients to end users that have the smallest footprint possible with no local operating system. Which client type satisfies these requirements?

A. Teradici based zero clients
B. Windows embedded thin client
C. MacOS Client
D. Android based thin client

Correct Answer: A

Q8 – New

An administrator wants to leverage Horizon Cloud Service to manage their Horizon on-premises deployment. What does the administrator need to install to achieve this?

A. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector using DHCP
B. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway with a static IP
C. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway using DHCP.
D. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector with a static IP.

Correct Answer: D

Q9 – New

Which two capabilities are supported by VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Application Profiler? (Choose two.)

A. It allows individual user personalization of applications.
B. It allows creation of computer templates.
C. It allows third-party user personalization of applications.
D. It allows creation of application-specific predefined settings.
E. It analyzes registry and file system location settings for an application.

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Dynamic-Environment-Manager/2106/com.vmware.dynamic.environment.manager-appprofiler/GUID-60E0D874-BC1E-4FF8-B86E-3A0594D0D42D.html#:~:text=Application%20Profiler%20is
%20a%20standalone,its%20file%20and%20registry%20configuration

Q10 – New

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the TLS Configuration steps on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:

Q11 – New

An administrator used the Horizon Console to specify the Active Directory account for joining instant-clone VMs to the Active Directory domain. What two permissions must be granted to the Active Directory account to perform this task? (Choose two.)

A. Grant Inventory Administrator role.
B. Write properties in the domain or in the organization units.
C. Create and delete computer objects.
D. Grant the Global Domain Administrator role.
E. Grant the Horizon Domain Admin role.

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/vmware-horizon-7-configuration/

Q12 – New

A new Horizon environment has gone into production. External sessions are being disconnected after a random period of time. The following information has been documented by the administrator:

1. Internal and external users are able to connect to their desktops.
2. External sessions connect via a Unified Access Gateway.
3. Users are immediately able to reconnect but will be disconnected again in a few minutes.
4. Internal sessions, connected directly to the desktops, are not impacted.
5. While the session remains connected, all expected functionality works properly. What could be a cause of this issue?

A. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.
B. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Connection Servers.
C. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Connection Servers.
D. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.

Correct Answer: C

Q13 – New

After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database: Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine

Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted.
B. Desktops can only be customized after the end user logs into the virtual machine.
C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory.
D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification.
E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.13/horizon-virtual-desktops/GUID-CF25204FF88D-4296-9FDB-AEB550E24266.html

…..

Remember, using the Pass4itSure 2V0-51.21 dumps preparation materials to study for the exam is successful, welcome to download the full 2V0-51.21 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-51-21.html

Exam 1V0-21.20: Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization You must pass to earn your VCTA-DCV 2022 certification. To help you better prepare for the VMware 1V0-21.20 exam, we provide up-to-date 1V0-21.20 exam dumps with the latest questions and answers.

Visit the Pass4itSure 1V0-21.20 exam dumps webpage https://www.pass4itsure.com/1v0-21-20.html where you will find the 1V0-21.20 exam dumps presented by Pass4itSure is authentic 1V0-21.20 learning materials for VCTA-DCV 2022 certification 1V0-21.20 exam preparation.

Having difficulty passing the VMware 1V0-21.20 exam? Is that really the case?

The VMware 1V0-21.20 exam stands for the Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization exam.
The test language is English and you need to answer 51 questions in 135 minutes. To pass successfully, you need to score 300 points. The exam format is proctored, and the question types are divided into single and multiple-choice questions.

The 1V0-21.20 exam is relatively easy compared to other Foundation level exams when it still requires hard preparation to pass. You must have real study materials, which can be the Pass4itSure 1V0-21.20 exam dumps mentioned above, with which you will be ready for the 1V0-21.20 exam.

What is the easy way to pass the VMware-1V0-21.20 exam?

That must be the latest 1V0-21.20 exam dumps (Pass4itSure).

It will provide you with the most authentic exam materials, and lead you to effectively prepare for the exam.

Where are the free study materials to help pass the 1V0-21.20 exam?

You are welcome here. We offer you free 1V0-21.20 exam practice to help you study. You can see below.

Latest 1V0-21.20 dumps pdf free (Pass4itSure): https://drive.google.com/file/d/1GQSaXeHHzolI4d3mYAY8umpgaUeB4Kpw/view?usp=share_link

Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization 1V0-21.20 Real Questions and Answers Share 1-13

NEW QUESTION 1

Which event type indicates a Fatal problem has occurred in the system, and the process or operation will be terminated?

A. Information
B. Audit
C. Error
D. Warning

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

A VMware administrator monitoring a project has been advised to run the compute health check using the vSphere 7 clients to monitor the ESXi host’s health. How should the administrator approach this task?

A. Menu > Administrator > Deployment > System Configuration
B. Host > Monitor > Skyline Health > Expand Online Health Connectivity > Compute Health Checks > Reset
C. Host > Monitor > Events
D. Host > Monitor > Issues and Alarms

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

An operator must deploy three virtual machines from a template named Win10-Template, and all three VMs must be configured with unique computer names. Which action must the operator take to achieve this goal?

A. Clone Win10-Template three times, and then change the computer name in each clone.
B. Export Win10-Template to the local filesystem, and then change the computer name.
C. Use a Windows 10 customization specification when deploying the virtual machines.
D. Create the virtual machines using the New Virtual Machine wizard.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

This feature allows an administrator to implement master copies of virtual machines to create ready-for-use virtual machines.

A. Templates
B. Resource Pools
C. Snapshots
D. Custom Attributes

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

Which feature must be enabled to use vSphere Fault Tolerance?

A. vSphere DRS
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSAN

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Which two improvements to the management of a VM are gained when VMware Tools are used? (Choose two.)

A. Performs a clone of the VM
B. Adds VM alarms to the inventory
C. Makes a graceful shutdown of the VM possible
D. Allows a snapshot before the guest OS is upgraded
E. Synchronizes time between the guest and the host

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 7

Which vSphere component provides continuous availability for mission-critical virtual machines so users experience no loss of data and no interruption in service during a host failure?

A. vSphere Fault Tolerance
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSphere vmotion

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit:

Which statement Is true about the access privileges of User 2?

A. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to Prod04-3.
B. User 2 has no access to all objects in the Production folder and Test and Dev folder.
C. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to all VMs In the Production folder.
D. User 2 has access to all objects in the Production folder and no access to Dev01, Dev02, and Dev03.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

An administrator has noticed an increase in network latency when powered-off virtual machines are migrated. Which VMkernel adapter can the administrator use to reduce this latency?

A. vSAN
B. vSphere Replication
C. Provisioning
D. vMotion

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

What is the default encrypted vSphere vMotion state for virtual machines that are not encrypted?

A. Disabled
B. Required
C. Opportunistic
D. Enabled

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

Which hypervisor is a type-1 hypervisor?

A. Oracle VM VirtualBox
B. VMware ESXi
C. VMware Fusion
D. VMware Workstation

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

A vSphere administrator sees the alarm: vSphere HA virtual machine failed to failover This occurred for virtual machines (VMs) in a cluster with vSphere High Availability (HA) enabled. The guest operating system on the VMs did not report a power failure. What is a possible cause of this event?

A. The host is still running but has disconnected from the network.
B. The VMs cloning operations did not complete.
C. A reboot of the vCenter Server impacted vSphere HA.
D. The VMs encountered an error during migration using vSphere vMotion.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

Which DRS score indicates that the virtual machine (VM) is experiencing severe resource contention?

A. 50%
B. 95%
C. 70%
D. 15%

Correct Answer: D

……

Using real study materials such as the Pass4itSure 1V0-21.20 exam dumps to really help you pass the exam, you can download the full 1V0-21.20 exam dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1v0-21-20.html here and continue learning.

The good news is that we’ve just updated our 5V0-11.21 exam materials to guarantee your VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist exam success. The latest 5V0-11.21 exam dumps contain valid 5V0-11.21 exam materials access the webpage: https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-11-21.html

The Pass4itSure 5V0-11.21 exam dumps are a great way to get through.

Do you know the VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist exam?

Exam 5V0-11.21 (VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist) is an english-language exam. People who want to pass the exam need to answer 65 questions in 130 minutes, in the form of single and multiple choice. You need to make sure you reach 300 to pass. The exam fee is $250.

Associated Certification: Master Specialist – VMware Cloud on AWS 2022

All conditions for obtaining this certification:

What are the available 5V0-11.21 exam resources?

• VMware official books and purchase VMware official training materials
• Pass4itSure 5V0-11.21 exam dumps

Where can I get the valid 5V0-22.21 exam dumps or 5V0-11.21 exam materials?

You can come to the Pass4itSure website. It will provide you with real VMware 5V0-11.21 exam materials to ensure you pass.

Pass4itSure has earned the trust of candidates in providing up-to-date and authentic 5V0-22.21 exam dumps. Pass4itSure is a platform with years of exam training experience that provides updated 5V0-22.21 exam dumps to help test takers prepare and pass the VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist exam.

Below are the free updated VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist 5V0-11.21 exam questions:

1. A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.
B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A

2. Which VMware solution provides customers with the ability to query and graphically display activities for audits, events and custom real-time alerts for the VMware NSX-T firewall running in VMware Cloud on AWS?

A. VMware vRealize Network Insight Cloud
B. VMware vRealize Log Insight Cloud
C. VMware vRealize Operations Cloud
D. CloudHealth by VMware

Correct Answer: C

3. A virtual machine in VMware Cloud on AWS sends a packet to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Linux instance in the associated AWS account. Which device is the next hop for the packet?

A. Edge Virtual Machine
B. AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) on the VMware ESXI host
C. Tier-0 (T0) Router
D. Tier-1 (T1) Router

Correct Answer: B

4. To assist with seasonal workload demands over the next two months, a group of interns are hired to assist with day 2 virtual machine operations in VMware Cloud on AWS. Which method should be used for creating these temporary user accounts and assigning the appropriate permissions to them?

A. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vmc.local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts.

B. Log into on-premises VMware vCenter. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts. Ensure that Hybrid Linked Mode is enabled to allow account propagation to the VMware Cloud on AWS SSO domain.

C. Create the required user accounts within Active Directory and assign them to the required group. With Hybrid Linked Mode enabled, assign the correct role in VMware Cloud on AWS to the Active Directory group that contains the user accounts.

D. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts in Active Directory.

Correct Answer: B

5. What is a key functionality of the vRealize Automation Cloud Service Broker?

A. Provides a common catalog for easy consumption on VMware Cloud.
B. Manages blueprints as a code in a YAML format.
C. Automates the DevOps release lifecycle.
D. Creates and deploys virtual machines, applications, and services to multiple clouds.

Correct Answer: A

6. A customer is deploying a new solution based on VMware Cloud on AWS. The customer is already running several native AWS services and would like the new workloads deployed into VMware Cloud on AWS to consume these services without incurring additional traffic charges. During the initial deployment of the VMware Cloud on AWS softwaredefined data center (SDDC), which option must the customer choose to meet the requirement?

A. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same region as the native AWSservices to be consumed.
B. Any availability zone within the same AWS region can be selected. After the SDDC deployment, deploy a services gateway and connect it to the target availability zone.
C. Choose a subnet from the connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed.
D. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed.

Correct Answer: A

7. What are three benefits of using VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose three.)

A. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their VMware Cloud on AWS resources with
familiar VMware tools.
B. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their native AWS resources with familiar VMware tools.
C. VMware Cloud on AWS supports optimized virtual AWS Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances.
D. Native VMware workloads can be migrated back and forth between on-premises VMware vSphere environments and VMware Cloud on AWS.
E. With VMware Cloud on AWS, VMware and AWS administrators will manage, maintain and update all virtual machines.
F. Native AWS services can be consumed over the global AWS backbone with high bandwidth and low latency.

Correct Answer: ACE

8. An environment is running a cluster with six i3.metal hosts in the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC). If one host fails, what happens after a new host is automatically added to the cluster?

A. The SDDC and NVMe drives backing VMware vSAN capacity are unmounted from the failed host and attached to the new host. There is no VMware vSAN rebuild required.
B. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 0.
C. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 1.
D. A notification is received from VMware Support to start the VMware vSAN rebuild. Performance might be degraded during rebuild.

Correct Answer: C

9. What are three valid migration modes in VMware HCX? (Choose three.)

A. Planned Failover
B. Hybrid Linked Mode
C. Bulk Migration
D. Replication Assisted vMotion (RAV)
E. HCX vMotion
F. Cross vCenter vMotion

Correct Answer: CDE

10. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator builds a software-defined data center (SDDC) group to enable connectivity to native Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs). Which connectivity option is needed to enable connectivity across environments?

A. Tier-0 (T0) Router
B. Transit Gateway
C. Virtual Private Network
D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.

Correct Answer: A

11. An administrator deploys a VMware Cloud on AWS environment and configures an IPsec virtual private network (VPN) tunnel to their data center. Hybrid Linked Mode connectivity, however, does NOT appear to be working. Before contacting VMware Support, what could the administrator do to narrow down the possible issue?

A. Fill in the relevant IP information for the on-premises infrastructure and run the desired troubleshooting connectivity test.
B. Download and review the Tier-0 (TO) gateway firewall logs.
C. Configure a packet capture device in the on-premises data center to capture packets from the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) to determine which packets are being dropped.
D. Configure a packet capture appliance on a local segment within VMware Cloud on AWS to capture and analyze traffic across a specific NSX-T gateway interface.

Correct Answer: A

12. A company is operating a main data center and two smaller data centers in branch offices. The main data center is being replicated to a disaster recovery site at a co-located data center with a recovery point objective (RPO) of five minutes and a recovery time objective (RTO) of two hours. The branch data centers are shipping backup tapes to the main data center on a weekly basis.

What would be a cost-efficient VMware solution that would improve RTO and RPO for the branch office data centers while maintaining the recovery time for the main data center?

A. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Create a shared content librand let the branch offices subscribe to it. Export the virtual machines in the branch offices to OVF files on the shared content library on a weekly basis.

B. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Migrate the disaster recovery solution from the co-located data center to the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC. Create regular copies of the virtual machines at the branch offices and use AWS Snowball to directly ship the copies to an AWS data center and store them on AWS S3 buckets.

C. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Activate VMware Site Recovery. Replace the co-located disaster recovery (DR) site for the main data center with VMware Site Recovery. For the branch offices, implement VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).

D. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Replace the co-located site for the main data center and the backup tape shipping for the branch offices with VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).

Correct Answer: A

13. Which three statements are true about the Elastic DRS Optimize for Rapid Scale-Out policy? (Choose three.)

A. Hosts are added incrementally when needed for storage.
B. Hosts will NOT be removed automatically when they are no longer needed.
C. Multiple hosts are added at a time when needed for memory or CPU.
D. After a storage scale-out event is triggered, single hosts are added every 30 minutes.
E. High threshold for storage, like the other policies, is set at 75%.
F. To resolve constraints related to CPU and memory, hosts are added two at a time.

Correct Answer: ACF

VMware 5V0-11.21 Free Practice Test Download Online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1mNXP2KsRbm4_Mk2KxWFtpyizuabX7GUv/view?usp=sharing

With the help of the 5V0-11.21 exam dumps to prepare for a good study, you can pass. Get an updated exam dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-11-21.html

Are you struggling with the Professional Develop VMware Spring exam? Looking for the latest 2V0-72.22 dumps to learn efficiently? Certificationpdf is here to meet your needs. We have prepared an updated VMware 2V0-72.22 dumps >> https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-72-22.html [2022.5] to help you easily find the VCP-AM Develop 2022 Certified 2V0-72.22 exam questions you need and learn in an organized way to make success possible.

Free 2V0-72.22 Dumps Following Questions and Answers are all newly published

1. Which two statements describe Spring JdbcTemplate? (Choose two.)

A. All JdbcTemplate methods throw SQLException which you are required to handle.
B. The JdbcTemplate provides the ability to work with result sets.
C. The JdbcTemplate can only perform updates but not insert them into the database.
D. The JdbcTemplate provides methods for query execution.
E. The JdbcTemplate generates SQL statements.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-jdbctemplate-in-list

2. What are the two reasons Spring is used to build a Java application? (Choose two.)

A. Spring automates a Java application build.
B. Spring provides a Dependency Injection container.
C. Spring automates the deployment of Java applications to all of the major cloud providers.
D. Spring provides comprehensive Java IDE support.
E. Spring provides abstractions over infrastructure such as persistence and messaging.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://spring.io/why-spring

3. Which three types can be used as @Controller method arguments? (Choose three.)

A. Locale
B. Principal
C. Language
D. Session
E. Request
F. HttpSession

Correct Answer: AEF

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/3.0.0.M4/spring-framework-reference/html/ ch15s03.html

4. Which two statements are true about @Controller annotated classes? (Choose two.)

A. The @Controller annotated classes can only render views.
B. The classes are eligible for handling requests in Spring MVC.
C. The classes must be annotated together with @EnableMvcMappings to be discovered via component scanning.
D. @Controller is interchangeable with @RestController with no extra code changes for the methods inside the class.
E. The @Controller annotation is a stereotype annotation like @Component.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-mvc-handler-adapters https://www.dineshonjava.com/stereotypeannotations-in-spring/

5. Refer to the exhibit.

Which option is a valid way to retrieve the account id? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add @PathVariable(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.
B. Add @PathVariable long accounted argument to the update() handler method.
C. Add @RequestParam long accounted argument to the update() handler method.
D. Add @RequestParam(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/4.3.12.RELEASE/spring-framework-reference/htmlsingle/

6. Which two statements are correct regarding the Actuator info endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. It provides configuration options through which only an authenticated user can display application information.
B. It is not enabled by default.
C. It can be used to display arbitrary application information.
D. It can be used to change a property value on a running application.
E. Typically it is used to display build or source control information.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/current/reference/html/actuator.html

7. Which two statements about pointcut expressions are true? (Choose two.)

A. A pointcut expression cannot specify the type of parameters.
B. A pointcut expression will throw an exception if no methods are matched.
C. A pointcut expression cannot have a wildcard for a method name.
D. A pointcut expression can include operators such as the following: andand (and), || (or),! (not).
E. A pointcut expression can be used to select join points that have been annotated with a specific annotation.

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-aop-pointcut-tutorial

8. Which two statements are true concerning the BeanPostProcessor extension point? (Choose two.)

A. BeanPostProcessors are called before the dependencies have been injected.
B. Custom BeanPostProcessors can be implemented for Spring applications.
C. BeanPostProcessors are called before the BeanFactoryPostProcessors.
D. BeanPostProcessors are called during the initialization phase of a bean life cycle.
E. BeanPostProcessors cannot be ordered in a Spring Boot application.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/3.0.0.M3/reference/html/ch04s07.html

9. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface.
B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC.
C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA.
D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean.
Correct Answer: C

10. Refer to the exhibit.

The above code shows a conditional @Bean method for the creation of a JdbcTemplate bean.
Which two statements correctly describe the code behavior? (Choose two.)

A. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnBean (DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.
B. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnMissingBean
(DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.
C. The @Bean annotation should be removed.
D. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when the DataSource class is in the classpath but there is no DataSource bean.
E. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when a bean named dataSource has already been created.

Correct Answer: AD

11. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test.
B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default.
C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing.
D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext.
E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with
@SpringBootConfiguration in the application.

Correct Answer: CD

12. Which two statements are true regarding Spring and Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. EasyMock is supported out of the box.
B. @SpringBootTest or @SpringJUnitConfig can be used for creating an ApplicationContext.
C. Mockito spy is not supported in Spring Boot testing by default.
D. The spring-test dependency provides annotations such as @Mock and @MockBean.
E. Integration and slice testing are both supported.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/2.1.5.RELEASE/reference/html/boot-featurestesting.html

13. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Security? (Choose two.)

A. Access control can be configured at the method level.
B. A special Java Authentication and Authorization Service (JAAS) policy file need to be configured.
C. Authentication data can be accessed using a variety of different mechanisms, including databases and LDAP.
D. In the authorization configuration, the usage of permit () allows bypassing Spring security completely.
E. It provides a strict implementation of the Java EE Security specification.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/security-none-filters-none-access-permitAll

2V0-72.22 dumps are also available to you in PDF format for the latest 2V0-72.22 dumps questions

free download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Q-QyPqF2TNocfjk3JPc_hkKvhQGyzHAB/view?usp=sharing

If you want to successfully pass the VMware VCP-AM Develop 2022 certification exam, you can select a dump library with the latest questions and answers for a valid VMware 2V0-72.22 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-72-22.html

Pass4itSure 2V0-72.22 dumps give you the confidence to try your Professional Develop VMware Spring exam.

Most IT professionals are looking for the best certifications to advance their careers. VMware Specialist – vSAN 2021 is one of the industry’s leading certifications, which is why it’s in the most demand. Want to pass the VMware Specialist – vSAN 2021 5V0-22.21 exam the easy way? You are in the right place! 5V0-22.21 dumps can help you realize your dreams!

Get it (5V0-22.21 dumps) https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-22-21.html

Pass4itSure is your most effective guide providing you with top 5V0-22.21 dumps PDFs and online practice tests.

Pass4itSure Real VMware 5V0-22.21 Exam Dumps 2022 Update

Exam title	VMware vSAN 6.7 Specialist
Total number of questions	76
Exam Code:	5V0-22.21
The authentication name	VMware

Latest update: Mar 20, 2022

VMware 5V0-22.21 Certification Exam Questions 1-13 PDF Download

google drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/17INXJkC6bJ-cMnHBaHTyRsjmKlpFvsg7/view?usp=sharing free VMware 5V0-22.21 pdf 2022 Updated.

VMware VSAN 6.7 Specialist [5V0-22.21] Online Exercise

q1.

A new vSAN Cluster with four hosts has to be designed for a single site architecture. Which design decision is correct?

A. All the data must remain accessible even with two host failures.
B. Configure the storage controllers to use RAID.
C. Use block-based storage for the new vSAN cluster.
D. Only hardware listed on the VMware Compatibility Guide will be deployed.

q2.

A vSAN administrator was examining the status of Virtual Objects and found inaccessible objects that are occupying significant storage capacity.

Refer to the exhibit: Which action is needed to restore the storage capacity?

A. Evacuate data on an affected node by using the Full Data Migration mode.
B. Identify and remove the obsolete object.
C. Restart the host, and obsolete objects will be removed on their own.
D. Trigger a manual resync, and allow vSAN to heal the object.

q3.

Skyline Health vSAN HCL DB up-to-date health check is alerting in red in a newly deployed vCenter Server.

Which two options are the possible solutions for this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Obtain the HCL DB offline bundle from vmware.com, and manually update it.
B. Upgrade to the latest version of vCenter.
C. Upgrade the HCL DB from the hardware vendor website.
D. Obtain the HCL DB from the hardware vendor, and manually update it.
E. Update the HCL DB online from vmware.com.

q4.

In vSAN 7.0 U1, when a host enters into maintenance mode (EMM) using the “Ensure Accessibility” option, it will allow vSAN to write to another host in addition to the host holding the object replica.
What does vSAN write to that additional host?

A. A full replica and all incremental updates that happened once the host entered maintenance mode
B. A full replica
C. The stripe from the host entering maintenance mode
D. All incremental updates that happened once the host entered maintenance mode

q5.

What is the maximum number of 2-node clusters that can share a vSAN Shared Witness host in vSAN 7.0 U1?

A. 64
B. 1
C. 128
D. 32

q6.

An administrator is tasked with configuring vSAN Cloud-Native Storage.
Which two requirements must be met for a successful configuration? (Choose two.)

A. vSAN iSCSI service enabled
B. Minimum of vSphere 6.7 Update 3 or later
C. Tanzu Enterprise License required
D. Minimum of vSphere 7.0 Update 2 or later
E. Compatible version of Kubernetes

q7.

A vSAN administrator has three available racks and six vSAN hosts and needs to protect against a rack failure while maximizing resources.

Which two strategies should the vSAN administrator use to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A. RAID-5/FTT=1
B. vSAN stretched cluster
C. Specify fault domains
D. RAID-6/FTT=2
E. 2-node configuration

q8.

After a recent data loss event, the IT department plans to deploy a DR site using vSphere Replication with vSAN providing the storage backend.

The architect would like to know how many components will be created based on the following configuration:

2x 100 GB VMDK RAID 1 vSAN Storage Policy 4x Point in Time snapshots
How many components will be created?

A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 8

q9.

In a 2-node vSAN cluster, one node has recovered from failure with FTT=1 and RAID-1 storage policy. Refer to the
exhibit:

What is the total VMDK storage consumed?

A. 150 GB B. 100GB
C. 133GB
D. 200GB

q10.

What are two purposes of a vSAN storage policy (Choose two.)

A. To determine vSAN encryption level
B. To enable TRIM/UNMAP
C. To define how the VM storage objects are provisioned
D. To guarantee the required level of service
E. To enable deduplication and compression

q11.

An administrator must choose between deploying a virtual witness or physical witness for a vSAN Stretched Cluster.

The administrator eventually decides to use a virtual witness.
What is a benefit of selecting this approach?

A. Reduced vSphere licensing
B. Additional compute capacity for running VMs
C. Shared metadata between separate clusters
D. Increased vSAN datastore capacity

q12.

A site administrator has determined that the site needs to upgrade all vSAN clusters to 7.0 U1. The vSAN administrator wishes to complete the update in the shortest amount of time possible.

All virtual machines are assigned a storage policy where the “Failures to tolerate” is set to one or higher.
Which strategy should be used to achieve this goal?

A. Disable de-duplication and compression prior to the upgrade.
B. Perform a complete update, omitting the on-disk format update.
C. Select the “No data migration” maintenance mode option.
D. Update only select, mission-critical clusters.

Post the correct answer

q1	q2	q3	q4	q5	q6	q7	q8	q9	q10	q11	q12
B	D	AB	A	A	BE	CD	B	B	CD	A	D

Believe in yourself, you can! Take your career to new heights with an engaging and effective 5V0-22.21 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-22-21.html(Unique valid exam questions 76+).

Certificationpdf is designed to share with you which method is best for 5V0-22.21 exam preparation.

The VMware VCAP-CMA Design 2021 3V0-32.21 exam has 60 questions and you have 145 minutes to complete. Test your Advanced Design VMware Cloud Management and Automation capabilities. Here are 12 free VMware 3V0-32.21 dumps questions for you to learn.

If you need full 3V0-32.21 dumps, you can click here to get it https://www.pass4itsure.com/3v0-32-21.html (Pass4itSure 3V0-32.21 dumps contains 60 newly updated exam questions) help you pass the exam.

Check out the latest VMware 3V0-32.21 dumps free learning materials below:

[Free Test] New VMware 3V0-32.21 Practice Test

1#

An architect is designing a greenfield VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop with the customer, the future Service Owner made the following comment: The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) for the Cloud Management solution is 1 hour.

When creating the design documentation, which design quality should be used to classify the requirements?

A. Manageability
B. Availability
C. Recoverability
D. Performance

2#

An architect designed a vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) cluster for an organization with the following details:
The cluster has 3-nodes with 2 event forwarders sending logs to this cluster. The vRLI cluster is part of the disaster recovery protection process.

What should be the proper sequence of steps in the Disaster Recovery (DR) protection runbook for recovering vRLI cluster?

A. 1. Restore the forwarders
2. Restore worker nodes in any order
3. Restore the master node
4. Restore any recovered agents

B. 1. Restore the master node
2. Restore worker nodes in any order
3. Restore the forwarders
4. Restore any recovered agents

C. 1. Restore the worker nodes
2. Restore master node
3. Restore the forwarders
4. Restore any recovered agents

D. 1. Restore the master node
2. Restore worker nodes in a specific defined order
3. The forwarders
4. Restore any recovered agents

3#

A customer wants to deploy Workspace ONE Access for vRealize Suite users.
The customer wants to achieve the following requirements:

Availability SLA 95% uptime per month, calculated Monday-Friday, 24 hours per day.
The deployment footprint must be minimal.

Which design decision should the architect choose?

A. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access cluster and protect it with vSphere HA.
B. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access node and protect it with vSphere HA.
C. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access cluster and protect it with Fault Tolerance.
D. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access node and protect it with Fault Tolerance.

4#

An architect is responsible for creating a new design to centralize the logging infrastructure for an existing vSphere environment. The key stakeholder in the project has provided the following list of requirements:

The management solution must forward all logs to the existing centralized Security Incident and Event
Management (SIEM) solution.

The management solution must be a minimum of N + 1 resilient.
The management solution must provide the ability to view at least 2 months of live data.
The management solution must meet a monthly uptime SLA of 99.9%.

The management solution must support the collection of logs from ten geographically separated data
center locations.

The management solution must support the collection of a minimum of 10,000 events per second.
Given the information from the stakeholder, which two statements would be considered functional
requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The management solution must be a minimum of N + 1 resilient.
B. The management solution must meet a monthly uptime SLA of 99.9%.
C. The management solution must provide the ability to view at least 2 months of live data.
D. The management solution must forward all logs to the existing centralized Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) solution.
E. The management solution must support the collection of a minimum of 10,000 events per second.

5#

Which recommendation should an architect make when designing a highly available vRealize Operation (vROps) cluster?

A. Deploy analytics nodes with the same disk size on storage of the same type.
B. Depending on the size and performance requirements for analytics nodes, apply Storage DRS Affinity rules to ensure that nodes are on the same datastores.
C. If the sizing guideline provides several configurations for the same number of objects, use the configuration which has the greatest number of nodes.
D. Set Storage DRS to Fully Automated for all vRealize Operations Manager analytics nodes.

6#

An organization wants to implement a network topology to provide users with one-way upstream access to the external network.

Which two statements are true for implementing such a network profile type using NSX-T Data Center? (Choose two.)

A. The external network specified in the “Network Policies” tab will be used to assign an external IP to the VM
B. A DNAT rule is created o the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally
C. The cloud template must use the “private” network profile type
D. The external network should be left blank in the “Network Policies” tab
E. An SNAT rule is created on the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally

7#

Which design decision should an architect make to support continuous availability in vRealize Operations?

A. Each Fault Domain should contain only remote collector nodes.
B. The vROps cluster should be separated into three Fault Domains.
C. Each Fault Domain should consist of primary, witness, and remote collector nodes.
D. The vROps cluster should be separated into two Fault Domains.

8#

An architect is designing a new VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements
gathering workshop, the customer made the following comments:

The monthly uptime target of the cloud management solution must be 99.9%.
All components of the cloud management solution must be deployed with an N + 1 redundancy.
When creating the design documentation, how should these requirements be classified?

A. Recoverability
B. Manageability
C. Availability
D. Performance

9#

As a Service Broker administrator, you have been asked to meet these requirements:
All released cloud templates must be imported to Service Broker.

Newly released cloud templates must be automatically synchronized with Service Broker.
All cloud templates must be automatically published to the service catalog.

Which two options must be configured to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure content sharing using the Content Sources option
B. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option but do not configure content sharing
C. Create content source using CloudFormation Template option
D. Configure content sharing using the All Content option
E. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option

10#

A healthcare company has mandated that all IP and DNS entries be allocated from an existing third-party IPAM solution.

Also, for auditing purposes, all systems must handle user authentication via the existing open-source LDAP directory.

When considering a logical design for this scenario, which is true about the dependency relationships of these systems?

A. The IPAM system is an upstream dependency and the LDAP system is a downstream dependency of vRealize Automation.
B. Both the IPAM and LDAP systems are external, upstream dependencies of vRealize Automation.
C. Both the IPAM and LDAP systems are external, downstream dependencies of vRealize Automation.
D. The LDAP system is an upstream dependency and the IPAM system is a downstream dependency of vRealize Automation.

11#

An architect has designed a vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) cluster for an organization. Details of the cluster are provided below:

3-node vRealize Log Insight cluster to collect logs for an organization NFS storage is enabled for archival data Once the NFS storage is full, which will be the resulting scenario?

A. vRLI will stop ingesting new data and unless free space is available, loss of data will occur.
B. vRLI will automatically delete the oldest archived logs, resulting in archived data loss.
C. vRLI will further compress the active logs to make more space available in NFS storage.
D. vRLI will send a notification and automatically disable log archiving.

12#

An architect is designing the deployment of vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) in their data center. The customer has the following requirements:

vRLI cluster responds to multiple Virtual IP Addresses (VIPs) Each event message received from a VIP is associated with a tag

Which two design decisions would the architect make to achieve the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a CSV file to use with VIP tags.
B. Configure a list of static tags (key=value) for an integrated load balancer VIP, so that each event message received from a VIP is annotated with a tag.
C. Each node should have at least one network interface on the same subnet as that of a VIP.
D. Configure a list of dynamic tags (key=value) for an integrated load balancer VIP, so that each event message received from a VIP is annotated with a tag.
E. Each node should have at least one network interface on a different subnet as that of a VIP.

Post correct answer:

Improve your exam skills by comparing your answers.

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
C	B	C	AC	A	AE	D	C	AE	C	A	BC

More about VMware certification practice test https://www.certificationpdf.com/category/vmware-exam-practice-test/

[Free PDF] VCAP-CMA Design 2021 3V0-32.21 Dumps PDF Online Download

google drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Nmm6aZQGPRxh2S9VlrFxgEnrPhijYKhp/view?usp=sharing

Note!

VMware is one of the most popular IT certifications. Achieving VMware VCAP-CMA Design 2021 certification is definitely the proudest thing to do, but the barrier to passing the 3V0-32.21 exam is high. In addition to absolute strength, you also need a large exam fee, so you need to do the most adequate preparation to take the exam!

Pass4itSure 3V0-32.21 dumps are a great choice for you. After the above test questions, you have tested its strength, if satisfied, to get the full 3V0-32.21 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/3v0-32-21.html (PDF+VCE).