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QUESTION 1
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1.
The network interface for VM1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

az-104 exam questions-q1

You deploy a web server on VM1, and then create a secure website that is accessible by using the HTTPS protocol.
VM1 is used as a web server only.
You need to ensure that users can connect to the website from the internet. What should you do?
A. Create a new inbound rule that allows TCP protocol 443 and configure the protocol to have a priority of 501.
B. For Rule5, change the Action to Allow and change the priority to 401.
C. Delete Rule1.
D. Modify the protocol of Rule4.
Correct Answer: B
Rule 2 is blocking HTTPS access (port 443) and has a priority of 500. Changing Rule 5 (ports 50-5000) and giving it a
lower priority number will allow access on port 443. Note: Rules are processed in priority order, with lower numbers
processed before higher numbers, because lower numbers have higher priority. Once traffic matches a rule, processing
stops.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named Adatum and an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Adam contains a group named Developers.
Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Dev, you assign the Logic App Contributor role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The Logic App Contributor role lets you manage the logic app, but not access them. It provides access to view, edit, and
update a logic app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You are configuring serverless computing in Azure.
You need to receive an email message whenever a resource is created in or deleted from a resource group.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

az-104 exam questions-q3

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app
Action 1: Create an Azure Logic App

az-104 exam questions-q3-2

az-104 exam questions-q3-3

az-104 exam questions-q3-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app


QUESTION 4
You have an Azure resource manager template that will be used to deploy 10 Azure Web Apps. You have to ensure to
deploy the pre-requisites before the deployment of the template. You have to minimize the costs associated with the
implementation. Which of the following would you deploy as pre-requisites?
A. An Azure Load Balancer
B. An Application Gateway
C. 10 Azure App Service Plans
D. One App Service Plan
Correct Answer: D
In-App Service (Web Apps, API Apps, or Mobile Apps), an app always runs in an App Service plan. An App Service plan
defines a set of computing resources for a web app to run.
One App Service Plan: Correct Choice
For an Azure Web App, you need to have an Azure App Service Plan in place. You can associate multiple Azure Web
Apps with the same App Service Plan. Hence to save on costs, you can just have one Azure App Service Plan in place.
An Azure Load Balancer: Incorrect Choice
An Azure load balancer is a Layer-4 (TCP, UDP) load balancer that provides high availability by distributing incoming
traffic among healthy VMs. A load balancer health probe monitors a given port on each VM and only distributes traffic to
an
operational VM An Application Gateway: Incorrect Choice
Azure Application Gateway is a web traffic load balancer that enables you to manage traffic to your web applications.
Traditional load balancers operate at the transport layer (OSI layer 4 – TCP and UDP) and route traffic based on source
IP
address and port, to a destination IP address and port.
10 Azure App Service Plans: Incorrect Choice
For an Azure Web App, you need to have an Azure App Service Plan in place. You can associate multiple Azure Web
Apps with the same App Service Plan. Hence to save on costs, you can just have one Azure App Service Plan in place.
So
there is no need for 10 App Service Plans.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/overview-hosting-plans https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/virtual-machines/windows/tutorial-load-balancer https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/applicationgateway/overview

QUESTION 5
You need to use Azure Automation State Configuration to manage the ongoing consistency of a virtual machine
configurations.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate action from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You
will
receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

az-104 exam questions-q5

Step 1: Upload a configuration to the Azure Automation State Configuration. Import the configuration into the Automation
account. Step 2: Compile a configuration into a node configuration. A DSC configuration defining that state must be
compiled into one or more node configurations (MOF document), and placed on the Automation DSC Pull Server. Step
3: Onboard the virtual machines to Azure Automation State Configuration. Onboard the Azure VM for management with
Azure Automation State Configuration Step 4: Assign the node configuration Step 5: Check the compliance status of the
node Each time Azure Automation State Configuration performs a consistency check on a managed node, the node
sends a status report back to the pull server. You can view these reports on the
page for that node.
On the blade for an individual report, you can see the following status information for the corresponding consistency
check:
The report states – whether the node is “Compliant”, the configuration “Failed”, or the node is “Not Compliant”
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/automation/automation-dsc-getting-started

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource
groups.
Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription. You need to ensure
that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You create a resource lock, and then you assign the lock to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
How can I freeze or lock my production/critical Azure resources from accidental deletion? There is a way to do this with
both ASM and ARM resources using Azure resource lock.
References:
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2016/04/27/using-azure-resource-manager-policy-and-azure-lock-to-controlyour-azure-resources/

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You deploy an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named AKS1.
You need to deploy a YAML file to AKS1.
Solution: From Azure Cloud Shell, you run az aks.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Installing Azure CLI doesn\\’t mean that Azure Kubernates client is installed. So before running kubectl client command,
you have install kubectl, the Kubernetes command-line client. First need to run az aks install-cli to install Kubernetes
CLI,
which is kubectl Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/aks?view=azure-cli-latest

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure subscription that includes data in following locations:

az-104 exam questions-q8

You plan to export data by using Azure import/export job named Export1. You need to identify the data that can be
exported by using Export1. Which data should you identify?
A. DB1
B. Table1
C. container1
D. Share1
Correct Answer: C
Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage. Only the Blob
service is supported with the Export job feature

az-104 exam questions-q8-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-requirements


QUESTION 9
You have an Azure App Service plan named AdatumASP1 that uses the P2v2 pricing tier. AdatumASP1 hosts Ml Azure
web app named adatumwebapp1. You need to delegate the management of adatumwebapp1 to a group named Devs.
Devs must be able to perform the following tasks:
1.
Add deployment slots.
2.
View the configuration of AdatumASP1.
3.
Modify the role assignment for adatumwebapp1. Which role should you assign to the Devs group?
A. Owner
B. Contributor
C. Web Plan Contributor
D. Website Contributor
Correct Answer: A
Owner : Correct Choice
The Owner role lets you manage everything, including access to resources.
Contributor : Incorrect Choice
With contributor role you can Add deployment slots and View the configuration of App service plan but you can\\’t Modify
the role assignment. For this you need User Access Administrator or Owner role. So this is incorrect.
Web Plan Contributor : Incorrect Choice
The Web Plan Contributor role lets you manage the web plans for websites, but not access to them.
So this option is incorrect.
Website Contributor : Incorrect Choice
The Website Contributor role lets you manage websites (not web plans), but not access to them. So this is incorrect
option.
Note:
As per least privilege principle it is not advisable to provide owner role to any group, rather you should create custom
RBAC role with custom policy and use that role for this operation. However as this option is not available here so only
option
to go with owner role.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/role-assignments-portal
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to create a conditional access policy that requires all
users to use multi-factor authentication when they access the Azure portal.
Which three settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:

az-104 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer

az-104 exam questions-q10-2

Box 1: Assignments, Users and Groups
When you configure the sign-in risk policy, you need to set:
The users and groups the policy applies to: Select Individuals and Groups

az-104 exam questions-q10-3

Box 3:
When you configure the sign-in risk policy, you need to set:
The type of access you want to be enforced when your sign-in risk level has been met:

az-104 exam questions-q10-3

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-user-risk-policy


QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1
was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template named ARM1.json.
You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance.
You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: Solution: From the Overview blade, you move the virtual machine to a different subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/redeploy-to-new-node

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Storage account named storage1 that uses Azure Blob storage and Azure File storage.
You need to use AzCopy to copy data to the blob storage and file storage in storage1.
Which authentication method should you use for each type of storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-104 exam questions-q12

You can provide authorization credentials by using Azure Active Directory (AD), or by using a Shared Access Signature
(SAS) token.
Box 1:
Both Azure Active Directory (AD) and Shared Access Signature (SAS) token are supported for Blob storage.
Box 2:
Only Shared Access Signature (SAS) token is supported for File storage.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy-v10


QUESTION 13
You have a hybrid infrastructure that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant contains the users shown in the following table.

az-104 exam questions-q13

You plan to share a cloud resource to the All Users group. You need to ensure that User1, User2, User3, and User4 can
connect successfully to the cloud resource.
What should you do first?
A. Create a user account of the member type for User4.
B. Create a user account of the member type for User3.
C. Modify the Directory-wide Groups settings.
D. Modify the External collaboration settings.
Correct Answer: C
Ensure that “Enable an \\’All Users\\’ group in the directory” policy is set to “Yes” in your Azure Active Directory (AD)
settings in order to enable the “All Users” group for centralized access administration. This group represents the entire
collection of Active Directory users, including guests and external users, that you can use to make the access
permissions easier to manage within your directory.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: User3 and User4 are guests already.
Note: By default, all users and guests in your directory can invite guests even if they\\’re not assigned to an admin role.
External collaboration settings let you turn guest invitations on or off for different types of users in your organization.
You
can also delegate invitations to individual users by assigning roles that allow them to invite guests.
References: https://www.cloudconformity.com/knowledge-base/azure/ActiveDirectory/enable-all-users-group.html

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QUESTION 1
Who creates a Product Backlog Item\\’s estimate?
A. The Development Team after clarifying requirements with the Product Owner.
B. The Product Owner with input from the Development Team.
C. The most senior people in the organization, including architects and subject matter experts.
D. The Scrum Master.
E. The Development Team, alone.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What two factors are best considered when establishing the Sprint length? (Choose two.)
A. The organization has mandated similar length sprints.
B. The level of uncertainty over the technology to be used.
C. The frequency at which team formation can be changed.
D. The risk of being disconnected from the stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 3
What are the two primary ways a Scrum Master keeps a Development Team working at its highest level of productivity?
(Choose two.)
A. By ensuring the meetings start and end at the proper time.
B. By removing impediments that hinder the Development Team.
C. By facilitating Development Team decisions.
D. By keeping high value features high in the Product Backlog.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Select two ways in which technical debt impacts transparency. (Choose two.)
A. When calculated and estimated, the total amount of technical debt shows exactly how long until the Product Owner
can release the Increment.
B. It leads to false assumptions about the current state of the system, specifically of an Increment being releasable at
the end of a Sprint.
C. As development progresses and code is added, the system becomes more difficult to stabilize, which results in future
work being slowed down in unpredictable ways.
D. It enhances transparency for the Product Owner as a Development Team is not allowed to do additional feature
development in a Sprint as long as there is technical debt.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
The Sprint Goal is a result of Sprint Planning, as is the Sprint Backlog.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Who should make sure everyone on the Development Team does his or her tasks for the Sprint?
A. The Project Manager.
B. The Product Owner.
C. The Scrum Master.
D. The Development Team.
E. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
During a Sprint Retrospective, the Development Team proposes moving the Daily Scrum to only occur on Tuesdays and
Thursdays. Which two are the most appropriate responses for the Scrum Master? (Choose two.)
A. Consider the request and decide on which days the Daily Scrum should occur.
B. Coach the team on why the Daily Scrum is important as an opportunity to update the plan.
C. Have the developers vote.
D. Learn why the Development Team wants this and work with them to improve the outcome of the Daily Scrum.
E. Acknowledge and support the self-organizing team\\’s decision.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
What is the time-box for the Sprint Review?
A. As long as needed.
B. 2 hours for a monthly Sprint.
C. 4 hours for a monthly Sprint.
D. 4 hours and longer as needed.
E. 1 day
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
The Scrum Master observes the Product Owner struggling with ordering the Product Backlog. What is an appropriate
action for the Scrum Master to take?
A. Suggest the Product Owner extend the Sprint, so he can have more time to order the Product Backlog.
B. Suggest that the Development Team does the ordering to be sure that it is a feasible ordering of work.
C. Offer the Product Owner help in understanding that the goal of ordering the Product Backlog is to maximize value.
D. Present the Product Owner with an ordered Product Backlog to use.
E. Encourage the Product Owner to work with the Development Team to see which items technically are fastest to
implement.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which three of the following are feedback loops in Scrum? (Choose three.)
A. Sprint Review.
B. Release Planning.
C. Sprint Retrospective.
D. Refinement Meeting.
E. Daily Scrum.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 11
A Scrum Master is working with a Development Team that has members in different physical locations. The
Development Team meets in a variety of meeting rooms and has much to do logistically (for example, set up conference
calls) before the Daily Scrum. What action should the Scrum Master take?
A. Allow the Development Team to self-manage and determine for itself what to do.
B. Set up the meeting and tell the Development Team that is how it will be done.
C. Ask the Development Team members to alternate who is responsible for meeting setup.
D. Inform management and ask them to solve it.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
When is it most appropriate for a Development Team to change the definition of “Done”?
A. During Spring Planning.
B. Prior to starting a new Sprint.
C. During the Sprint Retrospective.
D. Prior to starting a new project.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which three of the following are time-boxed events in Scrum? (Choose three.)
A. Release Testing.
B. Release Retrospective.
C. Sprint Retrospective.
D. Sprint Planning.
E. Sprint Testing.
F. Sprint 0.
G. Daily Scrum.
Correct Answer: CDG

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands can be used to create a USB storage media from a disk image?
A. gdisk
B. dd
C. cc
D. fdisk
E. mount
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which file should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg
B. /etc/apt/apt.conf
C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d
D. /etc/apt/sources.list
E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which of the following pieces of information of an existing file is changed when a hard link pointing to that file is
created?
A. File size
B. Modify timestamp
C. Link count
D. Inode number
E. Permissions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When planning a partition scheme, which of the following directories could be considered for separate partitions?
(Choose three.)
A. /etc
B. /home
C. /var
D. /lib
E. /opt
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
What is the difference between the i and a commands of the vi editor?
A. i (interactive) requires the user to explicitly switch between vi modes whereas a (automatic) switches
modesautomatically.
B. i (insert) inserts text before the current cursor position whereas a (append) inserts text after the cursor.
C. i (independent rows) starts every new line at the first character whereas a (aligned rows) keeps the indentation of the
previous line.
D. i (interrupt) temporarily suspends editing of a file to the background whereas a (abort) terminates editing.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands lists all currently installed packages when using RPM package management?
A. yum –query –all
B. yum –list –installed
C. rpm –query –all
D. rpm –list nstalled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands updates the already installed RPM package rpmname?
A. rpm –update rpmname
B. rpm rpmname
C. rpm rpmname
D. rpm –force rpmname
E. rpm rpmname
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true for hard linked files? (Choose three.)
A. The output ofstatwill reporthardinstead ofregular file.
B. The hard linked files have the same permissions and owner.
C. The hard linked files share the same inode.
D. The hard linked files are indicated by a -> when listed withls -1.
E. The hard linked files must be on the same filesystem.
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands will change all CR-LF pairs in an imported text file, userlist.txt, to Linux standard LF
characters and store it as newlist.txt?
A. tr `\r\n\\’ `\\’ newlist.txt
B. tr `\n\r\\’ `\\’ userlist.txt
C. tr `\r\\’ newlist.txt
D. tr `\r\\’ `\n\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt
E. tr `^M\\’ `^J\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following directories are documentation files found?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /var/share/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /etc/share/doc
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
CORRECT TEXT
Which world-writable directory should be placed on a separate partition in order to prevent users from being able to fill
up the / filesystem? (Specify the full path to the directory.)
Correct Answer: tmp
tmp or /var/tmp


QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements is correct for a command line ending with a and character?
A. The command\\’s output is redirected to/dev/null.
B. The result of the command defines if the next command will be run.
C. Thecommand is run in background of the current shell.
D. The command is run as a direct child of theinitprocess.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands changes all CR-LF line breaks in the text file userlist.txt to Linux standard LF line
breaks and stores the result in newlist.txt?
A. tr `\r\\’ newlist.txt
B. tr `\n\r\\’ `\\’ userlist.txt
C. tr `\r\n\\’ `\\’ newlist.txt
D. tr `\r\\’ `\n\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt
E. tr `/^M/^J/\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt
Correct Answer: A

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HP HPE0-V14 practice testing questions from Youtbe

Latest updates HP HPE ATP – Hybrid IT Solutions V2 HPE0-V14 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q1

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you
for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to
determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.
What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?
A. 18
B. 32
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following requirements:
1.
3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity
2.
10TB of high performance shared storage
3.
Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics
The customer prefers rack mounted equipment.
Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their
appropriate location in the environment on the right.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?
A. Trunks
B. VSAN
C. Static ARP
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure?
A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware
B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware
C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array.
Click on the menu option that displays this information.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5

Reference: https://infosight.hpe.com/InfoSight/media/cms/active/public/pubs_GUI_Administration_Guide_NOS_50x.whz/axc1501525262696.html

QUESTION 6
A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better
performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance
improvement?
A. embedded application
B. workload performance advisor
C. workload profile
D. Active Health System
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:
1.
Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port
FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit
2.
HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit
3.
Two SN3000B FC Switches
Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed
solution?
A. HPE NinjaSTARS
B. HPE One Configuration Advanced
C. HPE OneView Advanced
D. HPE SPOCK
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q10

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and
require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer
requirements?
A. HPE Moonshot
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE Apollo Servers
D. HPE SimplVity 380
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13-2

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q1

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you
for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to
determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.
What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?
A. 18
B. 32
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following requirements:
1.
3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity
2.
10TB of high performance shared storage
3.
Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics
The customer prefers rack mounted equipment.
Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their
appropriate location in the environment on the right.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?
A. Trunks
B. VSAN
C. Static ARP
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure?
A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware
B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware
C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4


QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array.
Click on the menu option that displays this information.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5

Reference: https://infosight.hpe.com/InfoSight/media/cms/active/public/pubs_GUI_Administration_Guide_NOS_50x.whz/axc1501525262696.html

QUESTION 6
A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better
performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance
improvement?
A. embedded application
B. workload performance advisor
C. workload profile
D. Active Health System
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:
1.
Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port
FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit
2.
HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit
3.
Two SN3000B FC Switches
Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed
solution?
A. HPE NinjaSTARS
B. HPE One Configuration Advanced
C. HPE OneView Advanced
D. HPE SPOCK
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q10

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and
require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer
requirements?
A. HPE Moonshot
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE Apollo Servers
D. HPE SimplVity 380
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13-2

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q1

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you
for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to
determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.
What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?
A. 18
B. 32
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following requirements:
1.
3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity
2.
10TB of high performance shared storage
3.
Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics
The customer prefers rack mounted equipment.
Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their
appropriate location in the environment on the right.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?
A. Trunks
B. VSAN
C. Static ARP
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure?
A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware
B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware
C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4


QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array.
Click on the menu option that displays this information.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5

Reference: https://infosight.hpe.com/InfoSight/media/cms/active/public/pubs_GUI_Administration_Guide_NOS_50x.whz/axc1501525262696.html

QUESTION 6
A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better
performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance
improvement?
A. embedded application
B. workload performance advisor
C. workload profile
D. Active Health System
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:
1.
Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port
FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit
2.
HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit
3.
Two SN3000B FC Switches
Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed
solution?
A. HPE NinjaSTARS
B. HPE One Configuration Advanced
C. HPE OneView Advanced
D. HPE SPOCK
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q10

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and
require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer
requirements?
A. HPE Moonshot
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE Apollo Servers
D. HPE SimplVity 380
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13-2

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q1

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you
for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to
determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.
What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?
A. 18
B. 32
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following requirements:
1.
3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity
2.
10TB of high performance shared storage
3.
Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics
The customer prefers rack mounted equipment.
Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their
appropriate location in the environment on the right.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?
A. Trunks
B. VSAN
C. Static ARP
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure?
A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware
B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware
C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4


QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array.
Click on the menu option that displays this information.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5

Reference: https://infosight.hpe.com/InfoSight/media/cms/active/public/pubs_GUI_Administration_Guide_NOS_50x.whz/axc1501525262696.html

QUESTION 6
A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better
performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance
improvement?
A. embedded application
B. workload performance advisor
C. workload profile
D. Active Health System
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:
1.
Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port
FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit
2.
HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit
3.
Two SN3000B FC Switches
Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed
solution?
A. HPE NinjaSTARS
B. HPE One Configuration Advanced
C. HPE OneView Advanced
D. HPE SPOCK
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q10

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and
require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer
requirements?
A. HPE Moonshot
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE Apollo Servers
D. HPE SimplVity 380
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13-2

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q1

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you
for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to
determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.
What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?
A. 18
B. 32
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the
following requirements:
1.
3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity
2.
10TB of high performance shared storage
3.
Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics
The customer prefers rack mounted equipment.
Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their
appropriate location in the environment on the right.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?
A. Trunks
B. VSAN
C. Static ARP
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure?
A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware
B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware
C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4


QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array.
Click on the menu option that displays this information.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q5

Reference: https://infosight.hpe.com/InfoSight/media/cms/active/public/pubs_GUI_Administration_Guide_NOS_50x.whz/axc1501525262696.html

QUESTION 6
A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better
performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance
improvement?
A. embedded application
B. workload performance advisor
C. workload profile
D. Active Health System
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:
1.
Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port
FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit
2.
HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit
3.
Two SN3000B FC Switches
Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed
solution?
A. HPE NinjaSTARS
B. HPE One Configuration Advanced
C. HPE OneView Advanced
D. HPE SPOCK
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch.
Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q10

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and
require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer
requirements?
A. HPE Moonshot
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE Apollo Servers
D. HPE SimplVity 380
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf HPE0-V14 exam questions-q13-2

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Online Cisco 300-715 dumps exam questions, which are helpful in your preparation. I found helpful online. Share them with you. Cisco 300-715 study materials and practice tests I recommend https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-715.html (Q&As: 92) authentic 300-715 exam dumps.

Learn Cisco 300-715 Exam

This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine.

300-715 SISE
Certifications: CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Identity Management Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes
Available languages: English, Japanese

Master Cisco 300-715 Exam Skills

  • Architecture and deployment
  • Policy enforcement
  • Web Auth and guest services
  • Profiler
  • BYOD
  • Endpoint compliance
  • Network access device administration

Study Cisco Certified Network Professional Security 300-715 Online Questions

QUESTION 1
During BYOD flow, from where does a Microsoft Windows PC download the Network Setup Assistant?
A. Cisco App Store
B. Microsoft App Store
C. Cisco ISE directly
D. Native OTA functionality
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
What is needed to configure wireless guest access on the network?
A. endpoint already profiled in ISE
B. WEBAUTH ACL for redirection
C. valid user account in Active Directory
D. Captive Portal Bypass turned on
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
In addition to the CLI, what is another option to manage a Cisco IPS?
A. SDEE
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco IDM
D. Cisco ISE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two events trigger a CoA for an endpoint when CoA is enabled globally for ReAuth? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint marked as lost in My Devices Portal
B. addition of endpoint to My Devices Portal
C. endpoint profile transition from Aop.e-dev.ee to Apple-iPhone
D. endpoint profile transition from Unknown to Windows 10-Workstation
E. updating of endpoint dACL.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 5
Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member
of?
A. Endpoint
B. unknown
C. blacklist
D. white list
E. profiled
Correct Answer: B
If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore
profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The
endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected
for that endpoint.
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html

QUESTION 6
Which protocol must be allowed for a BYOD device to access the BYOD portal?
A. HTTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTPS
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
If a user reports a device lost or stolen, which portal should be used to prevent the device from accessing the network
while still providing information about why the device is blocked?
A. Client Provisioning
B. Guest
C. BYOD
D. Blacklist
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/BYOD_Design_Guide/Managing_Lost_or_Stolen_Device.html#90273
The Blacklist identity group is system generated and maintained by ISE to prevent access to lost or stolen devices. In
this design guide, two authorization profiles are used to enforce the permissions for wireless and wired devices within
the Blacklist:
1.
Blackhole WiFi Access
2.
Blackhole Wired Access

QUESTION 8
Which term refers to an endpoint agent that tries to join an 802 1X-enabled network?
A. EAP server
B. supplicant
C. client
D. authenticator
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which port does cisco ISE use for native supplicant provisioning of a windows computer?
A. TCP/UDP 8905
B. TCP 8443
C. TCP/UDP 8909
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: C
TCP: 80, 8443 (web or Cisco NAC agent installation) Note TCP port 8443 is enabled by default, configurable, and
corresponds to Guest configuration TCP: 8905 (Cisco NAC agent update) TCP: 8909 and UDP: 8909 (web, Cisco NAC
Agent, supplicant provisioning wizard installation)


QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the ip http server command on a switch?
A. It enables the https server for users for web authentication
B. It enables MAB authentication on the switch
C. It enables the switch to redirect users for web authentication.
D. It enables dot1x authentication on the switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication?
A. MAB and if user not found, continue
B. MAB and if authentication failed, continue
C. Dot1x and if user not found, continue
D. Dot1x and if authentication failed, continue
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which advanced option within a WLAN must be enabled to trigger Central Web Authentication for Wireless users on
AireOS controller?
A. DHCP server
B. static IP tunneling
C. override Interface ACL
D. AAA override
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which portal is used to customize the settings for a user to log in and download the compliance module?
A. Client Profiling
B. Client Endpoint
C. Client Provisioning
D. Client Guest
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Cisco 200-301 dumps Practice test Questions and answers

Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 Practice Question 1-13

QUESTION 1
An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q1

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 2
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two.)
A. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
B. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS Software
C. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
D. modular design that is upgradable as needed
E. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which option best describes an API?
A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.
B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications;
C. a stateless client-server model
D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
A. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.
B. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts
on a LAN.
C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path.
D. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP
routing table.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true?
A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and
adjusted by a routing protocol.
B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and
adjusted by a routing protocol.
C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes
tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes
tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q6

QUESTION 7
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
GUI? (Choose two.)
A. QoS settings
B. IP address of one or more access points
C. SSID
D. profile name
E. management interface settings
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q8

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
A. 10.4.4.4
B. 10.4.4.5
C. 172.23.103.10
D. 172.23.104.4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.
C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.
D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q10

A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined
C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
D. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP
E. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q11

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this
behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches
D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1
will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

QUESTION 12
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface.
C. The interface is error -disabled.
D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses.
E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.
Correct Answer: DE

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Free Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-300 practice questions 1-12

About Microsoft MB-300 Certification Exam Details

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
Exam Code: MB-300
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core
Updated: Jun 13, 2020
Q&As: 137

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
A company needs test scripts that can be leveraged by the Regression Suite Automated Testing (RSAT) tool. Several
users are creating their test cases and sending the files to you to upload.
You need to create these scripts and link them to the RSAT tool.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q1-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guidesand-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/get-started/hol-set-up-regression-suite-automationtool

QUESTION 2
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance.
The company wants to utilize Case management to track project issues and risks and associate them to the projects.
Project managers will be responsible for managing the new cases.
You need to configure the system.
What should you do?
A. Create case category security roles named Issue and Risk and assign them to the Project managers duty.
B. Create case activities for Issue and Risk
C. Create parent case categories named Issue and Risk
D. Create case subcategories named Issue and Risk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at
any given time.
You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment,
you are unable to find the data entity in the list.
You need to locate the data entity.
Solution: Restart the Application Object Server (AOS) of the test environment.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance developer.
New features for Dynamics 365 Finance have been released. Your company plans to upgrade their Dynamics 365
instance soon.
You need to download a virtual machine that includes all of the new features so that you can explore the new features.
Where should you go?
A. Microsoft Connect
B. Shared Asset library
C. Environments
D. My subscription
E. Microsoft Developer Network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
A company uses May 1 as the start of its fiscal year.The company\\’s management needs to define fiscal calendars and date intervals for financial activities and financial
reporting.
You need to set up fiscal calendars and date intervals and understand how they are used in financial accounting.
Which of the following attributes or purposes does each of the data configurations have? To answer, select the
appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q5-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/budgeting/fiscal-calendars-fiscalyears-periods

QUESTION 6
You set up Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
Your organization will use email with the application.
You need to ensure that email will be sent using typical secure settings.What setting must be set as specified?
A. In-place hold and Litigation hold are enabled.
B. In-place eDiscovery is enabled,
C. The SMTP port field is set to 587.
D. Retention policies are enabled.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You are a system administrator of an Azure-based Dynamics 365 Finance instance.
Your company is using a single master configuration environment to refresh a test environment during implementation.
You need to perform refreshes several times and make sure they are done successfully.
You need to automate the data migration and leverage the data task automation tool.
Which objects should you use for each scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT You are tasked with setting up Case management in the Dynamics 365 Finance deployment for your
organization. Your organization must use cases to track defect and enhancement reports for products, so that engineers
can improve products over time. Only appropriate employees within the organization should have access to cases and
related
information.
1.
Call enter employees create thousands of service cases and ensure that the proper resources are allocated for each
service.
2.
Service department employees fix cases created by the call center and create cases for defects and enhancement
suggestion when they identify them.
3.
Engineers review the cases from the service department while planning and designing the next version.
You need to configure the tool to enable tracking of service cases and product defects and enhancements.
Which Case management settings should you choose for each category or categories? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You set up a new installation of Dynamics 365 Finance for a Fortune 500 company. The company is organized into
divisions.
You need to design the structure in the application.
What application features should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each
source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q9

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/organizations-organizational-hierarchies

QUESTION 10
You implement Dynamics 365 Finance. The implementation will undergo User Acceptance Testing (UAT).
You create test case recordings. To coordinate testing across multiple environments, UAT must be integrated with
Microsoft Azure DevOps.
You need to configure Business process modeler (BPM) and Azure DevOps to complete user acceptance testing.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Synchronize the BPM library with Azure DevOps
B. Create a test pass and test case in Azure DevOps
C. Upload saved Task recorder files to BPM
D. Create a test plan and test suites in Azure DevOps
E. Synchronize the BPM library with a Git repo
F. Upload saved Task recorder files to Azure DevOps
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-taskguides-and-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are the project owner in a Lifecycle Services (LCS) project to deploy a Dynamics 365 Finance environment.
The system must be configured to enable testers to record processes that become business and test plans.
You need to configure the system to generate User Acceptance Testing (UAT) test plans.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are a system administrator using Dynamics 365 Finance.
You are responsible for troubleshooting workflows.
You need to determine where workflows are failing based on error messages.
Which runtime is raising the error when the following activity and error occurs? To answer, select the appropriate
runtime in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q12

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/workflow-system-architecture

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QUESTION 1
A Developer must build an application that uses Amazon DynamoDB. The requirements state that items being stored in
the DynamoDB table will be 7KB in size and that reads must be strongly consistent. The maximum read rate is 3 items
per second, and the maximum write rate is 10 items per second.
How should the Developer size the DynamoDB table to meet these requirements?
A. Read: 3 read capacity units Write: 70 write capacity units
B. Read: 6 read capacity units Write: 70 write capacity units
C. Read: 6 read capacity units Write: 10 write capacity units
D. Read: 3 read capacity units Write: 10 write capacity units
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
In a multi-container Docker environment in AWS Elastic Beanstalk, what is required to configure container instances in
the environment?
A. An Amazon ECS task definition
B. An Amazon ECS cluster
C. A Docker in an application package
D. A CLI for Elastic Beanstalk
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/create_deploy_docker_ecs.html

QUESTION 3
A Developer has created a large Lambda function, and deployment is failing with the following error:
ClientError: An error occurred (InvalidParameterValueException) when calling the CreateFunction operation: Unzipped
size must be smaller than XXXXXXXXX bytes\\’, where XXXXXXXXX is the current Lambda limit
What can the Developer do to fix this problem?
A. Submit a limit increase request to AWS Support to increase the function to the size needed.
B. Use a compression algorithm that is more efficient than ZIP.
C. Break the function into multiple smaller Lambda functions.
D. ZIP the ZIP file twice to compress it further.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An application is real-time processing millions of events that are received through an API.
What service could be used to allow multiple consumers to process the data concurrently and MOST cost-effectively?
A. Amazon SNS with fanout to an SQS queue for each application
B. Amazon SNS with fanout to an SQS FIFO (first-in, firtst-out) queue for each application
C. Amazon Kinesis Firehouse
D. Amazon Kinesis Streams
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/kinesis/data-streams/getting-started/

QUESTION 5
An application is being developed to audit several AWS accounts. The application will run in Account A and must
access AWS services in Accounts B and C. What is the MOST secure way to allow the application to call AWS services
in each audited account?
A. Configure cross-account roles in each audited account. Write code in Account A that assumes those roles
B. Use S3 cross-region replication to communicate among accounts, with Amazon S3 event notifications to trigger
Lambda functions
C. Deploy an application in each audited account with its own role. Have Account A authenticate with the application
D. Create an IAM user with an access key in each audited account. Write code in Account A that uses those access
keys
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A company website hosts patches for software that is sold globally. The website runs in AWS and performs well until a
large software patch is released. The flood of downloads puts a strain on the web servers and leads to a poor customer
experience.
What can the SysOps Administrator propose to enhance customer experience, create a more available web platform,
and keep costs low?
A. Use an Amazon CloudFront distribution to cache static content, including software patches
B. Increase the size of the NAT instance to improve throughput
C. Scale out of web servers in advance of patch releases to reduce Auto Scaling delays
D. Move the content to IO1 and provision additional IOPS to the volume that contains the software patches
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A user has created a Cloudformation stack. The stack creates AWS services, such as EC2 instances, ELB,
AutoScaling, and RDS. While creating the stack it created EC2, ELB and AutoScaling but failed to create RDS. What
will Cloudformation do in this scenario?
A. Cloudformation can never throw an error after launching a few services since it verifies all the steps before launching
B. It will warn the user about the error and ask the user to manually create RDS
C. Rollback all the changes and terminate all the created services
D. It will wait for the user\\’s input about the error and correct the mistake after the input
Correct Answer: C
AWS Cloudformation is an application management tool which provides application modelling, deployment,
configuration, management and related activities. The AWS Cloudformation stack is a collection of AWS resources
which are created and managed as a single unit when AWS CloudFormation instantiates a template. If any of the
services fails to launch, Cloudformation will rollback all the changes and terminate or delete all the created services.

QUESTION 3
What is an Auto Scaling group?
A. It is a group of ELBs that are used to add instances from various regions.
B. It is a logical grouping of EC2 instances that share similar characteristics for scaling and man-agement.
C. It is a collection of EC2 instance launch parameters with different characteristics for scaling and management.
D. It is a group of launch configurations for Elastic load balancers in the same region.
Correct Answer: B
An Auto Scaling group contains a collection of EC2 instances that share similar characteristics and are treated as a
logical grouping for the purposes of instance scaling and management.
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/AutoScalingGroup.html

QUESTION 4
A SysOps Administrator is receiving multiple reports from customers that they are unable to connect to the company\\’s
website. which is being served through Amazon CloudFront. Customers are receiving HTTP response codes for both
4XX and 5XX errors.
Which metric can the Administrator use to monitor the elevated error rates in CloudFront?
A. TotalErrorRate
B. RejectedConnectionCount
C. NetworkTransmitThroughput
D. HealthyHostCount
Correct Answer: A
Reference https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/monitoring-using-cloudwatch.html

QUESTION 5
You have two Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances inside a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) in the same Availability Zone
(AZ) but in different subnets. One instance is running a database and the other instance an application that will
interface
with the database. You want to confirm that they can talk to each other for your application to work properly.
Which two things do we need to confirm in the VPC settings so that these EC2 instances can communicate inside the
VPC? (Choose two.)
A. A network ACL that allows communication between the two subnets.
B. Both instances are the same instance class and using the same Key-pair.
C. That the default route is set to a NAT instance or internet Gateway (IGW) for them to communicate.
D. Security groups are set to allow the application host to talk to the database on the right port/protocol.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
When one speaks of 20% of something contributing 80% of the affect they are referring to what is known as the
_________________.
A. Shewhart Example
B. Pareto Principle
C. Balance Equation
D. Connection Principle
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Situations where standardizedwork needs to be incorporated include all of these except _____________________.
A. Changeover instructions incomplete
B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
C. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
This table displays the inventory of fasteners in a storage cabinet. An item is selected at random from the fastener
cabinet. Find the approximate probability it is a bolt.

Certificationpdf CLSSBB exam questions-q3

A. 160
B. .160
C. .09
D. .30
E. none of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Find the value of (5) in the ANOVA table. Assume:

Certificationpdf CLSSBB exam questions-q4

A. 16.4
B. 3.2
C. 18.6
D. 23.2
E. 4.54
F. 12.2
G. 0.525
H. 2.82
I. 1.48
J. 35.4
K. 0.10

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QUESTION 1
The practice of utilizing Poka-Yoke is also known as ________________.
A. Thorough integration
B. Mistake proofing
C. On site inspection
D. Lean controls
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
The term FMEA is an abbreviation for Failures Measure Effective Automation.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A periodic time frame can be used to arrange for Control Limit and Center Line calculations with good SPC
implementation in a process.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
For a Normal Distribution the Mean, Median and Mode are the same data point.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to record all actions and decision points
in the process.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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Nokia 4A0-100 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1

Certificationpdf 4A0-100 exam questions-q1

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop used on CR1 to setup
a default static route to R1?
A. 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2
B. 0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2
C. 10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0
D. 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A. MAC address of the default gateway.
B. IP addresses of other DHCP clients.
C. IP addresses offered to the client.
D. IP addresses of all DHCP servers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is NOT a function of the IOM?
A. It forwards the data to the switch fabric.
B. It discards excess data packets.
C. It converts the incoming data to an internal format.
D. It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Networks? Choose all that apply.
A. IES
B. VPWS
C. VPLS
D. VPRN
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network?
A. CE always connects to a PE router.
B. CE always connects to a P router.
C. CE always connects to another CE device.
D. The CE does not connect to the service provider network.
Correct Answer: A

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Nokia 4A0-106 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Click the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-106 exam questions-q1

Based on the displayed configuration, which routes does PE3 place in the VPRN 10 routing table?
A. The routes learned from CE3 and PE1.
B. The route learned from CE3 only.
C. The routes learned from PE1 and PE2.
D. The routes learned from CE3 and PE2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following about BGP loops in a VPRN environment is TRUE?
A. Traditional BGP loop detection mechanisms are unable to detect a loop in a VPRN scenario.
B. BGP loops are detected in a VPRN when the customer has separate sites using the same BGP autonomous system
number.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR rejects routes containing AS_PATH loops by default.
D. When “remove-private” is configured at a PE, all routes received from the associated CE will have private AS
numbers removed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Click the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-106 exam questions-q3

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when an IP packet is sent from 192.1.1.1 to
192.2.1.1?
A. PE1 pushes three labels on the IP packet: a VPN label, a BGP label, and an LDP transport label.
B. ASBR1 pops the LDP and BGP labels and swaps the VPN label.
C. ASBR2 pops the BGP label and pushes an LDP transport label.
D. PE2 pops two labels and forwards the unlabeled packet to its destination.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Click the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-106 exam questions-q4

Which of the following best describes the output from the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. RSVP-TE has signaled a VPRN label.
B. RSVP-TE has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels.
C. MP-BGP has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels.
D. MP-BGP has signaled a VPRN label.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Correct Answer: ABE

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Nokia 4A0-C01 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
When configuring RSVP-TE for transport tunnels, which command enables RSVP by default?
A. configure router tunnel
B. configure router gre
C. configure router rsvp-te
D. configure router transport-tunnel
E. configure router mpls
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR sdp-ping is TRUE?
A. It tests the IGP reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP.
B. It tests that the MTU settings of a service are correct.
C. It tests in-band, uni-directional or round-trip connectivity of SDPs.
D. It tests the reachability of hosts connected to an SDP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The LSP “toR6” is configured with a fully strict path on a Nokia 7750 SR. Which of the following configurations is
required to enable fast reroute for this LSP?

Certificationpdf 4A0-C01 exam questions-q3

A. Enable fast-reroute on all routers along the path, R1, R2, R4, and R6.
B. Enable both link-protection and node-protection on router R1.
C. Enable fast-reroute with either one-to-one or facility mode on this LSP.
D. Enable link-protection only on router R4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Click on the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-C01 exam questions-q4

Router R2 advertises an OSPF summary route 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1. Router R3 receives labels for individual FECs
10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. These two FECs are installed in router R3\\’s LIB but not in the LFIB. What needs to
be done on router R3 to install these labels into its LFIB?
A. Disable route summarization on router R3.
B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match.
C. Create an import policy to accept 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
D. Disable LDP exact match on 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What are the types of networks supported on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for OSPF? (Choose 2)
A. Broadcast
B. Non-Broadcast Multi-Access
C. Point-to-Point
D. Point-to-Multipoint
Correct Answer: AC

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Nokia 4A0-M02 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Gx interface?
A. It is a Diameter-based interface between the PCRF and the PCEF.
B. The PCEF can act as a client or as a server for the Diameter connection depending on which application is running
over the Gx interface.
C. The PCEF receives the QoS information for a bearer from the PCRF over the Gx interface.
D. It runs a vendor specific application identified by an application ID value of 16777238.
E. It is never used to transport user data packets.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
On Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands can be used to check the IP addresses assigned to
a particular UE?
A. Show mobile-gateway pdn pdn-context
B. Show mobile-gateway serving pdn-context imsi detail
C. Show mobile-gateway pdn ue-context
D. Show mobile-gateway pdn ue-context imsi detail
E. Show mobile-gateway pdn bearer-context
F. Show mobile-gateway pdn bearer-context imsi detail
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer is initiated by either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate a dedicated bearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands is used to check the message statistics
between the PGW and the PCRF?
A. Show mobile-gateway pdn pdn-context
B. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-stats ga
C. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-stats gx
D. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-peers gn
E. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-peers gx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
On Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands can be used to debug a given IMSI?
A. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session imsi 226041000000008
B. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session-db imsi 226041000000008
C. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session imsi 226041000000008 apn ipd.alcatel-lucent.com
D. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session-db imsi 226041000000008 apn ipd.alcatel-lucent.com
E. Answers A and C are both correct.
F. Answers B and D are both correct.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What command does a Digital Forensic Examiner use to display the list of all open ports and the associated IP
addresses on a victim computer to identify the established connections on it: A. “arp” command
B. “netstat ?n” command
C. “dd” command
D. “ifconfig” command
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The message that is received and requires an urgent action and it prompts the recipient to delete certain files or forward
it to others is called:
A. An Adware
B. Mail bomb
C. A Virus Hoax
D. Spear Phishing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are prevented from using system, network, or
applications by flooding the network with high volume of traffic that consumes all existing network resources.
A. URL Manipulation
B. XSS Attack
C. SQL Injection
D. Denial of Service Attack
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A software application in which advertising banners are displayed while the program is running that delivers ads to
display pop-up windows or bars that appears on a computer screen or browser is called:
A. adware (spelled all lower case)
B. Trojan
C. RootKit
D. Virus
E. Worm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
According to US-CERT; if an agency is unable to successfully mitigate a DOS attack it must be reported within:
A. One (1) hour of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
B. Two (2) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
C. Three (3) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
D. Four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
According to the Evidence Preservation policy, a forensic investigator should make at least ………………… image copies
of the digital evidence.
A. One image copy
B. Two image copies
C. Three image copies
D. Four image copies
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A threat source does not present a risk if NO vulnerability that can be exercised for a particular threat source. Identify
the step in which different threat sources are defined:

Certificationpdf 212-89 exam questions-q7

A. Identification Vulnerabilities
B. Control analysis
C. Threat identification
D. System characterization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Spyware tool used to record malicious user\\’s computer activities and keyboard stokes is called:
A. adware
B. Keylogger
C. Rootkit
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The open source TCP/IP network intrusion prevention and detection system (IDS/IPS), uses a rule-driven language,
performs real-time traffic analysis and packet logging is known as:
A. Snort
B. Wireshark
C. Nessus
D. SAINT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In NIST risk assessment/ methodology; the process of identifying the boundaries of an IT system along with the
resources and information that constitute the system is known as:
A. Asset Identification
B. System characterization
C. Asset valuation
D. System classification
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
US-CERT and Federal civilian agencies use the reporting timeframe criteria in the federal agency reporting
categorization. What is the timeframe required to report an incident under the CAT 4 Federal Agency category?
A. Weekly
B. Within four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and agency is unable to
successfully mitigate activity
C. Within two (2) hours of discovery/detection
D. Monthly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A computer forensic investigator must perform a proper investigation to protect digital evidence. During the
investigation, an investigator needs to process large amounts of data using a combination of automated and manual
methods. Identify the computer forensic process involved:
A. Analysis
B. Preparation
C. Examination
D. Collection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Multiple component incidents consist of a combination of two or more attacks in a system. Which of the following is not a
multiple component incident?
A. An insider intentionally deleting files from a workstation
B. An attacker redirecting user to a malicious website and infects his system with Trojan
C. An attacker infecting a machine to launch a DDoS attack
D. An attacker using email with malicious code to infect internal workstation
Correct Answer: A

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