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200-301 CCNA
Certification: CCNA
Duration: 120 minutes
Available languages: English, Japanese

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Latest Cisco 200-301 dumps Practice test Questions and answers

Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 Practice Question 1-13

QUESTION 1
An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q1

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 2
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two.)
A. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
B. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS Software
C. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
D. modular design that is upgradable as needed
E. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which option best describes an API?
A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.
B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications;
C. a stateless client-server model
D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
A. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.
B. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts
on a LAN.
C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path.
D. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP
routing table.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true?
A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and
adjusted by a routing protocol.
B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and
adjusted by a routing protocol.
C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes
tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes
tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q6

QUESTION 7
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
GUI? (Choose two.)
A. QoS settings
B. IP address of one or more access points
C. SSID
D. profile name
E. management interface settings
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q8

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
A. 10.4.4.4
B. 10.4.4.5
C. 172.23.103.10
D. 172.23.104.4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.
C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.
D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q10

A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined
C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
D. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP
E. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q11

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this
behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches
D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1
will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

QUESTION 12
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Certificationpdf 200-301 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface.
C. The interface is error -disabled.
D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses.
E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.
Correct Answer: DE

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Free Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-300 practice questions 1-12

About Microsoft MB-300 Certification Exam Details

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
Exam Code: MB-300
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core
Updated: Jun 13, 2020
Q&As: 137

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
A company needs test scripts that can be leveraged by the Regression Suite Automated Testing (RSAT) tool. Several
users are creating their test cases and sending the files to you to upload.
You need to create these scripts and link them to the RSAT tool.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q1-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guidesand-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/get-started/hol-set-up-regression-suite-automationtool

QUESTION 2
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance.
The company wants to utilize Case management to track project issues and risks and associate them to the projects.
Project managers will be responsible for managing the new cases.
You need to configure the system.
What should you do?
A. Create case category security roles named Issue and Risk and assign them to the Project managers duty.
B. Create case activities for Issue and Risk
C. Create parent case categories named Issue and Risk
D. Create case subcategories named Issue and Risk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at
any given time.
You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment,
you are unable to find the data entity in the list.
You need to locate the data entity.
Solution: Restart the Application Object Server (AOS) of the test environment.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance developer.
New features for Dynamics 365 Finance have been released. Your company plans to upgrade their Dynamics 365
instance soon.
You need to download a virtual machine that includes all of the new features so that you can explore the new features.
Where should you go?
A. Microsoft Connect
B. Shared Asset library
C. Environments
D. My subscription
E. Microsoft Developer Network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
A company uses May 1 as the start of its fiscal year.The company\\’s management needs to define fiscal calendars and date intervals for financial activities and financial
reporting.
You need to set up fiscal calendars and date intervals and understand how they are used in financial accounting.
Which of the following attributes or purposes does each of the data configurations have? To answer, select the
appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q5-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/budgeting/fiscal-calendars-fiscalyears-periods

QUESTION 6
You set up Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
Your organization will use email with the application.
You need to ensure that email will be sent using typical secure settings.What setting must be set as specified?
A. In-place hold and Litigation hold are enabled.
B. In-place eDiscovery is enabled,
C. The SMTP port field is set to 587.
D. Retention policies are enabled.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You are a system administrator of an Azure-based Dynamics 365 Finance instance.
Your company is using a single master configuration environment to refresh a test environment during implementation.
You need to perform refreshes several times and make sure they are done successfully.
You need to automate the data migration and leverage the data task automation tool.
Which objects should you use for each scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT You are tasked with setting up Case management in the Dynamics 365 Finance deployment for your
organization. Your organization must use cases to track defect and enhancement reports for products, so that engineers
can improve products over time. Only appropriate employees within the organization should have access to cases and
related
information.
1.
Call enter employees create thousands of service cases and ensure that the proper resources are allocated for each
service.
2.
Service department employees fix cases created by the call center and create cases for defects and enhancement
suggestion when they identify them.
3.
Engineers review the cases from the service department while planning and designing the next version.
You need to configure the tool to enable tracking of service cases and product defects and enhancements.
Which Case management settings should you choose for each category or categories? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You set up a new installation of Dynamics 365 Finance for a Fortune 500 company. The company is organized into
divisions.
You need to design the structure in the application.
What application features should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each
source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q9

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/organizations-organizational-hierarchies

QUESTION 10
You implement Dynamics 365 Finance. The implementation will undergo User Acceptance Testing (UAT).
You create test case recordings. To coordinate testing across multiple environments, UAT must be integrated with
Microsoft Azure DevOps.
You need to configure Business process modeler (BPM) and Azure DevOps to complete user acceptance testing.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Synchronize the BPM library with Azure DevOps
B. Create a test pass and test case in Azure DevOps
C. Upload saved Task recorder files to BPM
D. Create a test plan and test suites in Azure DevOps
E. Synchronize the BPM library with a Git repo
F. Upload saved Task recorder files to Azure DevOps
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-taskguides-and-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are the project owner in a Lifecycle Services (LCS) project to deploy a Dynamics 365 Finance environment.
The system must be configured to enable testers to record processes that become business and test plans.
You need to configure the system to generate User Acceptance Testing (UAT) test plans.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are a system administrator using Dynamics 365 Finance.
You are responsible for troubleshooting workflows.
You need to determine where workflows are failing based on error messages.
Which runtime is raising the error when the following activity and error occurs? To answer, select the appropriate
runtime in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Certificationpdf MB-300 exam questions-q12

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/workflow-system-architecture

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QUESTION 1
A Developer must build an application that uses Amazon DynamoDB. The requirements state that items being stored in
the DynamoDB table will be 7KB in size and that reads must be strongly consistent. The maximum read rate is 3 items
per second, and the maximum write rate is 10 items per second.
How should the Developer size the DynamoDB table to meet these requirements?
A. Read: 3 read capacity units Write: 70 write capacity units
B. Read: 6 read capacity units Write: 70 write capacity units
C. Read: 6 read capacity units Write: 10 write capacity units
D. Read: 3 read capacity units Write: 10 write capacity units
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
In a multi-container Docker environment in AWS Elastic Beanstalk, what is required to configure container instances in
the environment?
A. An Amazon ECS task definition
B. An Amazon ECS cluster
C. A Docker in an application package
D. A CLI for Elastic Beanstalk
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/create_deploy_docker_ecs.html

QUESTION 3
A Developer has created a large Lambda function, and deployment is failing with the following error:
ClientError: An error occurred (InvalidParameterValueException) when calling the CreateFunction operation: Unzipped
size must be smaller than XXXXXXXXX bytes\\’, where XXXXXXXXX is the current Lambda limit
What can the Developer do to fix this problem?
A. Submit a limit increase request to AWS Support to increase the function to the size needed.
B. Use a compression algorithm that is more efficient than ZIP.
C. Break the function into multiple smaller Lambda functions.
D. ZIP the ZIP file twice to compress it further.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An application is real-time processing millions of events that are received through an API.
What service could be used to allow multiple consumers to process the data concurrently and MOST cost-effectively?
A. Amazon SNS with fanout to an SQS queue for each application
B. Amazon SNS with fanout to an SQS FIFO (first-in, firtst-out) queue for each application
C. Amazon Kinesis Firehouse
D. Amazon Kinesis Streams
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/kinesis/data-streams/getting-started/

QUESTION 5
An application is being developed to audit several AWS accounts. The application will run in Account A and must
access AWS services in Accounts B and C. What is the MOST secure way to allow the application to call AWS services
in each audited account?
A. Configure cross-account roles in each audited account. Write code in Account A that assumes those roles
B. Use S3 cross-region replication to communicate among accounts, with Amazon S3 event notifications to trigger
Lambda functions
C. Deploy an application in each audited account with its own role. Have Account A authenticate with the application
D. Create an IAM user with an access key in each audited account. Write code in Account A that uses those access
keys
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A company website hosts patches for software that is sold globally. The website runs in AWS and performs well until a
large software patch is released. The flood of downloads puts a strain on the web servers and leads to a poor customer
experience.
What can the SysOps Administrator propose to enhance customer experience, create a more available web platform,
and keep costs low?
A. Use an Amazon CloudFront distribution to cache static content, including software patches
B. Increase the size of the NAT instance to improve throughput
C. Scale out of web servers in advance of patch releases to reduce Auto Scaling delays
D. Move the content to IO1 and provision additional IOPS to the volume that contains the software patches
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A user has created a Cloudformation stack. The stack creates AWS services, such as EC2 instances, ELB,
AutoScaling, and RDS. While creating the stack it created EC2, ELB and AutoScaling but failed to create RDS. What
will Cloudformation do in this scenario?
A. Cloudformation can never throw an error after launching a few services since it verifies all the steps before launching
B. It will warn the user about the error and ask the user to manually create RDS
C. Rollback all the changes and terminate all the created services
D. It will wait for the user\\’s input about the error and correct the mistake after the input
Correct Answer: C
AWS Cloudformation is an application management tool which provides application modelling, deployment,
configuration, management and related activities. The AWS Cloudformation stack is a collection of AWS resources
which are created and managed as a single unit when AWS CloudFormation instantiates a template. If any of the
services fails to launch, Cloudformation will rollback all the changes and terminate or delete all the created services.

QUESTION 3
What is an Auto Scaling group?
A. It is a group of ELBs that are used to add instances from various regions.
B. It is a logical grouping of EC2 instances that share similar characteristics for scaling and man-agement.
C. It is a collection of EC2 instance launch parameters with different characteristics for scaling and management.
D. It is a group of launch configurations for Elastic load balancers in the same region.
Correct Answer: B
An Auto Scaling group contains a collection of EC2 instances that share similar characteristics and are treated as a
logical grouping for the purposes of instance scaling and management.
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/AutoScalingGroup.html

QUESTION 4
A SysOps Administrator is receiving multiple reports from customers that they are unable to connect to the company\\’s
website. which is being served through Amazon CloudFront. Customers are receiving HTTP response codes for both
4XX and 5XX errors.
Which metric can the Administrator use to monitor the elevated error rates in CloudFront?
A. TotalErrorRate
B. RejectedConnectionCount
C. NetworkTransmitThroughput
D. HealthyHostCount
Correct Answer: A
Reference https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/monitoring-using-cloudwatch.html

QUESTION 5
You have two Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances inside a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) in the same Availability Zone
(AZ) but in different subnets. One instance is running a database and the other instance an application that will
interface
with the database. You want to confirm that they can talk to each other for your application to work properly.
Which two things do we need to confirm in the VPC settings so that these EC2 instances can communicate inside the
VPC? (Choose two.)
A. A network ACL that allows communication between the two subnets.
B. Both instances are the same instance class and using the same Key-pair.
C. That the default route is set to a NAT instance or internet Gateway (IGW) for them to communicate.
D. Security groups are set to allow the application host to talk to the database on the right port/protocol.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
When one speaks of 20% of something contributing 80% of the affect they are referring to what is known as the
_________________.
A. Shewhart Example
B. Pareto Principle
C. Balance Equation
D. Connection Principle
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Situations where standardizedwork needs to be incorporated include all of these except _____________________.
A. Changeover instructions incomplete
B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
C. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
This table displays the inventory of fasteners in a storage cabinet. An item is selected at random from the fastener
cabinet. Find the approximate probability it is a bolt.

Certificationpdf CLSSBB exam questions-q3

A. 160
B. .160
C. .09
D. .30
E. none of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Find the value of (5) in the ANOVA table. Assume:

Certificationpdf CLSSBB exam questions-q4

A. 16.4
B. 3.2
C. 18.6
D. 23.2
E. 4.54
F. 12.2
G. 0.525
H. 2.82
I. 1.48
J. 35.4
K. 0.10

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QUESTION 1
The practice of utilizing Poka-Yoke is also known as ________________.
A. Thorough integration
B. Mistake proofing
C. On site inspection
D. Lean controls
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
The term FMEA is an abbreviation for Failures Measure Effective Automation.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A periodic time frame can be used to arrange for Control Limit and Center Line calculations with good SPC
implementation in a process.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
For a Normal Distribution the Mean, Median and Mode are the same data point.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to record all actions and decision points
in the process.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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Online practice questions

Nokia 4A0-100 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1

Certificationpdf 4A0-100 exam questions-q1

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop used on CR1 to setup
a default static route to R1?
A. 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2
B. 0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2
C. 10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0
D. 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A. MAC address of the default gateway.
B. IP addresses of other DHCP clients.
C. IP addresses offered to the client.
D. IP addresses of all DHCP servers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is NOT a function of the IOM?
A. It forwards the data to the switch fabric.
B. It discards excess data packets.
C. It converts the incoming data to an internal format.
D. It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Networks? Choose all that apply.
A. IES
B. VPWS
C. VPLS
D. VPRN
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network?
A. CE always connects to a PE router.
B. CE always connects to a P router.
C. CE always connects to another CE device.
D. The CE does not connect to the service provider network.
Correct Answer: A

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Nokia 4A0-106 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Click the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-106 exam questions-q1

Based on the displayed configuration, which routes does PE3 place in the VPRN 10 routing table?
A. The routes learned from CE3 and PE1.
B. The route learned from CE3 only.
C. The routes learned from PE1 and PE2.
D. The routes learned from CE3 and PE2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following about BGP loops in a VPRN environment is TRUE?
A. Traditional BGP loop detection mechanisms are unable to detect a loop in a VPRN scenario.
B. BGP loops are detected in a VPRN when the customer has separate sites using the same BGP autonomous system
number.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR rejects routes containing AS_PATH loops by default.
D. When “remove-private” is configured at a PE, all routes received from the associated CE will have private AS
numbers removed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Click the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-106 exam questions-q3

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when an IP packet is sent from 192.1.1.1 to
192.2.1.1?
A. PE1 pushes three labels on the IP packet: a VPN label, a BGP label, and an LDP transport label.
B. ASBR1 pops the LDP and BGP labels and swaps the VPN label.
C. ASBR2 pops the BGP label and pushes an LDP transport label.
D. PE2 pops two labels and forwards the unlabeled packet to its destination.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Click the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-106 exam questions-q4

Which of the following best describes the output from the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. RSVP-TE has signaled a VPRN label.
B. RSVP-TE has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels.
C. MP-BGP has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels.
D. MP-BGP has signaled a VPRN label.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Correct Answer: ABE

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Nokia 4A0-C01 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
When configuring RSVP-TE for transport tunnels, which command enables RSVP by default?
A. configure router tunnel
B. configure router gre
C. configure router rsvp-te
D. configure router transport-tunnel
E. configure router mpls
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR sdp-ping is TRUE?
A. It tests the IGP reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP.
B. It tests that the MTU settings of a service are correct.
C. It tests in-band, uni-directional or round-trip connectivity of SDPs.
D. It tests the reachability of hosts connected to an SDP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The LSP “toR6” is configured with a fully strict path on a Nokia 7750 SR. Which of the following configurations is
required to enable fast reroute for this LSP?

Certificationpdf 4A0-C01 exam questions-q3

A. Enable fast-reroute on all routers along the path, R1, R2, R4, and R6.
B. Enable both link-protection and node-protection on router R1.
C. Enable fast-reroute with either one-to-one or facility mode on this LSP.
D. Enable link-protection only on router R4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Click on the exhibit.

Certificationpdf 4A0-C01 exam questions-q4

Router R2 advertises an OSPF summary route 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1. Router R3 receives labels for individual FECs
10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. These two FECs are installed in router R3\\’s LIB but not in the LFIB. What needs to
be done on router R3 to install these labels into its LFIB?
A. Disable route summarization on router R3.
B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match.
C. Create an import policy to accept 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
D. Disable LDP exact match on 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What are the types of networks supported on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for OSPF? (Choose 2)
A. Broadcast
B. Non-Broadcast Multi-Access
C. Point-to-Point
D. Point-to-Multipoint
Correct Answer: AC

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Nokia 4A0-M02 practice exam questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Gx interface?
A. It is a Diameter-based interface between the PCRF and the PCEF.
B. The PCEF can act as a client or as a server for the Diameter connection depending on which application is running
over the Gx interface.
C. The PCEF receives the QoS information for a bearer from the PCRF over the Gx interface.
D. It runs a vendor specific application identified by an application ID value of 16777238.
E. It is never used to transport user data packets.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
On Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands can be used to check the IP addresses assigned to
a particular UE?
A. Show mobile-gateway pdn pdn-context
B. Show mobile-gateway serving pdn-context imsi detail
C. Show mobile-gateway pdn ue-context
D. Show mobile-gateway pdn ue-context imsi detail
E. Show mobile-gateway pdn bearer-context
F. Show mobile-gateway pdn bearer-context imsi detail
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer is initiated by either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate a dedicated bearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands is used to check the message statistics
between the PGW and the PCRF?
A. Show mobile-gateway pdn pdn-context
B. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-stats ga
C. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-stats gx
D. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-peers gn
E. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-peers gx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
On Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands can be used to debug a given IMSI?
A. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session imsi 226041000000008
B. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session-db imsi 226041000000008
C. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session imsi 226041000000008 apn ipd.alcatel-lucent.com
D. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session-db imsi 226041000000008 apn ipd.alcatel-lucent.com
E. Answers A and C are both correct.
F. Answers B and D are both correct.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What command does a Digital Forensic Examiner use to display the list of all open ports and the associated IP
addresses on a victim computer to identify the established connections on it: A. “arp” command
B. “netstat ?n” command
C. “dd” command
D. “ifconfig” command
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The message that is received and requires an urgent action and it prompts the recipient to delete certain files or forward
it to others is called:
A. An Adware
B. Mail bomb
C. A Virus Hoax
D. Spear Phishing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are prevented from using system, network, or
applications by flooding the network with high volume of traffic that consumes all existing network resources.
A. URL Manipulation
B. XSS Attack
C. SQL Injection
D. Denial of Service Attack
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A software application in which advertising banners are displayed while the program is running that delivers ads to
display pop-up windows or bars that appears on a computer screen or browser is called:
A. adware (spelled all lower case)
B. Trojan
C. RootKit
D. Virus
E. Worm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
According to US-CERT; if an agency is unable to successfully mitigate a DOS attack it must be reported within:
A. One (1) hour of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
B. Two (2) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
C. Three (3) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
D. Four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
According to the Evidence Preservation policy, a forensic investigator should make at least ………………… image copies
of the digital evidence.
A. One image copy
B. Two image copies
C. Three image copies
D. Four image copies
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A threat source does not present a risk if NO vulnerability that can be exercised for a particular threat source. Identify
the step in which different threat sources are defined:

Certificationpdf 212-89 exam questions-q7

A. Identification Vulnerabilities
B. Control analysis
C. Threat identification
D. System characterization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Spyware tool used to record malicious user\\’s computer activities and keyboard stokes is called:
A. adware
B. Keylogger
C. Rootkit
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The open source TCP/IP network intrusion prevention and detection system (IDS/IPS), uses a rule-driven language,
performs real-time traffic analysis and packet logging is known as:
A. Snort
B. Wireshark
C. Nessus
D. SAINT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In NIST risk assessment/ methodology; the process of identifying the boundaries of an IT system along with the
resources and information that constitute the system is known as:
A. Asset Identification
B. System characterization
C. Asset valuation
D. System classification
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
US-CERT and Federal civilian agencies use the reporting timeframe criteria in the federal agency reporting
categorization. What is the timeframe required to report an incident under the CAT 4 Federal Agency category?
A. Weekly
B. Within four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and agency is unable to
successfully mitigate activity
C. Within two (2) hours of discovery/detection
D. Monthly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A computer forensic investigator must perform a proper investigation to protect digital evidence. During the
investigation, an investigator needs to process large amounts of data using a combination of automated and manual
methods. Identify the computer forensic process involved:
A. Analysis
B. Preparation
C. Examination
D. Collection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Multiple component incidents consist of a combination of two or more attacks in a system. Which of the following is not a
multiple component incident?
A. An insider intentionally deleting files from a workstation
B. An attacker redirecting user to a malicious website and infects his system with Trojan
C. An attacker infecting a machine to launch a DDoS attack
D. An attacker using email with malicious code to infect internal workstation
Correct Answer: A

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Exam MS-301: Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of integration points with the following apps and services: Office, Power Apps, Flow, Yammer, Microsoft Graph, Stream, Planner, and Project. The administrator understands how to integrate third-party apps and services including line-of-business applications. Candidates also have an understanding of SQL Server management concepts, Azure Active Directory, PowerShell, networking, Windows server administration, Domain Name System (DNS), Active Directory mobile device management, and alternative operating systems.

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QUESTION 1
You have a SharePoint hybrid environment. You have the following PowerShell script.

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What is the effect of running the script?
A. replaces an expired certificate for Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and on-premises SharePoint Server.
B. replaces an expired certificate for Active Directory and SharePoint Online.
C. configures SharePoint for hybrid search.
D. configures on-premises SharePoint Server for federated authentication to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD).
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
You implement hybrid search.You discover that some search results are not hybrid search results. You discover that only the Domain Users security
group is granted permissions to the content.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Configure all crawlers to use continuous crawls.
B. Create a new user account. Grant the new user account permissions to the content. Modify the Default content
access account to use the new user account.
C. Add all users to a new domain group. Grant the new domain group permissions to the content. Perform a full crawl.
D. Add all users as Search Service Application administrators. Perform a full crawl.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/hybrid/plan-cloud-hybrid-search-for-sharepoint#why-cant-usersget-hybrid-results-with-cloud-hybrid-search-when-theyre-members-of-the-domain-users-security-group

QUESTION 3
You have a SharePoint team site.
You open the Site Settings and discover that the Navigation settings are missing.
You need to configure site navigation to use a term set.
Which two features should you activate? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Pass4itsure Ms-301 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
You have a SharePoint Server farm and a SharePoint Online subscription.
You plan to configure a SharePoint hybrid environment.
You need to identify which groups and roles must be assigned to your user account to implement the deployment. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which three roles and groups should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. the Farm Administrators group in SharePoint
B. the Service administrator role in Microsoft Office 365
C. the Domain Admins group in Active Directory
D. the ADSyncAdmins group in Active Directory
E. the Global administrator role in Microsoft Office 365
Correct Answer: ACE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/hybrid/accounts-needed-for-hybrid-configuration-and-testing

QUESTION 5
You need to resolve the issue for the Distributed Cache service.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 6
You have a SharePoint Server farm that has one web application. The web application contains one site collection. The
site collection contains one site.
You need to enable managed navigation.
What should you do?
A. From Site Features, activate SharePoint Server Enterprise Site features.
B. From Site Collection Features, activate SharePoint Server Enterprise Site Collection features.
C. From Site Features, activate SharePoint Server Publishing.
D. From Site Collection Features, activate SharePoint Server Publishing Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/enable-managed-navigation-for-a-site-insharepoint-49a067dc-77d2-455d-9e77-250ec7cc0a6d

QUESTION 7
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You are troubleshooting Kerberos authentication for the farm.
You need to view the Kerberos tickets issued to the server.
What should you run?
A. the klist.exe command
B. the stsadm.exe command
C. the Get-SPAuthenticationRealm cmdlet
D. the Get-SPAppAcquisitionConfiguration cmdlet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You need to implement hybrid search.
Which two service applications are required for hybrid search? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a Managed Metadata Service application
B. Business Data Connectivity Service
C. Work Management Service Application
D. Cloud Search Service Application
E. a User Profile service application
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which feature should you activate for the sales department?
A. SharePoint Server Standard Site Collection features
B. Site Policy feature
C. SharePoint Server Enterprise Site Collection features
D. SharePoint Server Publishing Infrastructure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are planning the implementation of a SharePoint hybrid environment that will contain the following workloads:
Workload1: An external list exposing data from a public OData service endpoint.
Workload2: An external list exposing data from a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
Workload3: A site that contains a sandbox solution.
Workload4: A Microsoft Flow workload.
Which workload can run only in the SharePoint Server farm and which workload can run only in SharePoint Online? To
answer, drag the appropriate workloads to the correct environments. Each workload may be used once, more than
once,
or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Pass4itsure Ms-301 exam questions-q10

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Pass4itsure Ms-301 exam questions-q10-2

QUESTION 11
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You need to ensure that a user named User1 can apply style sheets and override list behaviors. The solution must use
the principle of least privilege.
Which permission best achieves the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.
A. Edit
B. Full Control
C. Design
D. Limited Access
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You create an external content type named ECT1 for a Microsoft SQL Server database.
You implement cloud hybrid search.
You create a Line of Business Data content source and run a full crawl.
Users in SharePoint Online report that the search results do not contain any data from ECT1.
You need to ensure that searches can return data from ECT1.
Solution: From a Business Data Connectivity Service application, you grant the Default content access account Manage
permissions to ECT1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your company has a SharePoint Server farm.
The human resources (HR) department at the company has a site that has a URL of http://contoso.com/hr.
You need to back up the HR department site every eight hours by using PowerShell. The backup must complete as
quickly as possible.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Pass4itsure Ms-301 exam questions-q13-2

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QUESTION 1
A company is a Microsoft 365 reseller. The company does not provide managed services or direct customer support.
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A. Buy licenses for customers by using the Microsoft admin portal
B. Sign up as a Cloud Solution Provider direct reseller.
C. Sign up as a Cloud Solution Provider indirect reseller.
D. Buy licenses for customers from a Microsoft authorized distributor.
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You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. A user experiences an issue with SharePoint Online.
You need to resolve the issue.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Go to the SharePoint admin center and create a support request.
B. Contact Microsoft technical support by telephone.
C. Create a new service request from the Microsoft 365 admin center.
D. Create a service request from the SharePoint portal.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You install Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus on five devices. You
deactivate one device. Which task can you perform on the deactivated device?
A. Print a document.
B. Leave a comment in a document.
C. Start a new document from a template.
D. Set properties on a document.
Correct Answer: D

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You have a hybrid environment that includes Microsoft Azure AD. On-premises applications use Active Directory
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You need to determine which authentication methods to use.
Match each feature to its authentication source. To answer, drag the appropriate authentication sources from the
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Pass4itsure Ms-900 exam questions-q5

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Pass4itsure Ms-900 exam questions-q5-2

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A company plans to deploy collaboration tools for employees. The company does not plan to deploy a hybrid
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Match each environment to its feature. To answer, drag the appropriate environment form the column on the left to the
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Pass4itsure Ms-900 exam questions-q6

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Pass4itsure Ms-900 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
An organization plans to deploy Microsoft Intune.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
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QUESTION 9
A company plans to deploy Microsoft Intune.
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QUESTION 10
You are a Microsoft 365 administrator.
You need to implement the appropriate features for each scenario.
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QUESTION 11
You are a member of a Microsoft Office 36S group named Sates. You create a proposal for a customer by using Word
Online.
All team members must be able to review and make changes to the proposal at the same. After the proposal is
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You need to ensure that the customer sees the most recent version of the document.
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QUESTION 12
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. A user experiences an issue with SharePoint Online.
You need to reserve the issue.
What two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution NOTE: Each correct selection b
worth one point.
A. Go to the SharePoint admin center and create a support request.
B. Contact Microsoft technical support by telephone.
C. Create a new service request from the Microsoft 365 center.
D. Create a service request from the SharePoint portal.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
You use Microsoft 365 Usage Analytics.
You need to know the number of users who are active today and were also active last month.
Winch metric should you use?
A. MoMReturningUsers
B. EnabledUsers
C. ActiveUsers
D. CumulativeActiveUsers
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named Contoso. The organization is configured to apply a disclaimer to all email messages sent to external recipients. Your company works with a partner company named A. Datum Corporation. A. Datum has an SMTP domain named adatum.com. You need to ensure that email messages sent to adatum.com meet the following compliance requirements: Messages sent to adatum.com must NOT include the disclaimer. Messages that contain credit card numbers must NOT be sent to adatum.com. If a user writes a message that contains a credit card number and the message is addressed to a recipient at adatum.com, the user must receive a notification before the message is sent. What should you configure for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration to the correct requirement in the answer area. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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070-341 dumps

QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains three servers named EX1, EX2, and EX3. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. A mailbox database named DB1 is replicated to all the members of DAG1.
EX3 experiences a complete hardware failure. You need to restore EX3 on a new server. You reset the computer account for EX3.
Which three actions should you perform next? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains five servers. Several employees plan to use Microsoft Outlook to collaborate on some projects. You need to configure access to Outlook to meet the following requirements: Several employees must be able to open only the Inbox of a user named User1. Several employees must be able to copy email messages from any folder in the mailbox of a user named User2. Several employees must be able to create only contacts in the mailbox of a user named User3. Which cmdlets should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlet to the correct requirement in the answer area. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Select and Place:
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070-341 dumps
QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following tabl
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You need to create a new database availability group (DAG) that contains EX1 and EX2. Which three actions should you perform?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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070-341 dumps
070-341 dumps
070-341 dumps

QUESTION 5
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The company hires 200 temporary employees. You create a mailbox for each temporary employee. You create a new management role named CustomBaseOptions that uses MyBaseOptions as a parent. You create a new management role named CustomContactInfo that uses MyContactInfo as a parent. You plan to apply the new management roles to the temporary employees. You need to identify which management roles must be modified to prevent the temporary employees from performing the following task: Adding a user photo
Viewing delivery reports
Viewing the Install Apps feature
Changing the value of the office location
Which management roles should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate management role for each task in the answer area.
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QUESTION 6
Your company has two offices. The offices are configured as shown in the following table.
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The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link that has a latency of more than 700 ms. You plan to deploy an Exchange Server 2013 organization to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if the WAN link fails.
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if a single server fails.
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if a single database fails. You recommend deploying one or more database availability groups (DAGs) and mailbox database copies. You need to identify which design meets the requirements for the planned deployment.
Which design should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate design in the answer area.
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QUESTION 7
Your company plans to deploy an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com. The forest contains one Active Directory site.
To contoso.com, you plan to deploy two servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. To child.contoso.com, you plan to deploy two servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
To the contoso.com domain, you deploy a new member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. You need to prepare the forest for the planned deployment of Exchange Server 2013. Which three commands should you run from Server1?
To answer, move the three appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 8
Your network contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You create a new user account for a temporary user named User1.
You plan to create a new mailbox for User1. You need to recommend which actions must be performed to ensure that User1 can modify only the values of his home phone number attribute and his office location attribute. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 9
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains an Edge Transport server named EX3. You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2013. You plan to replace EX3 and its functionalities with a new server named EX6 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. EX6 will be used to send all email messages to and receive all email messages from the Internet and to filter spam. You need to recommend which steps are required to install EX6. EX6 must have the least number of Exchange Server roles installed. Which three actions should you recommend performing on EX6 in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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All of the servers are part of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. The databases are configured as shown in the following table.
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All of the databases replicate between all the members of DAG1.
You plan to move all mailboxes from DB1 to DB2. You need to ensure that the passive copies of DB1 are in a healthy state before you move the mailboxes. Which command should you run? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
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QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains several custom RBAC management roles. You need to identify which RBAC scopes must be used to meet the following requirements:
Manage only the mailboxes of the users in the sales department.
Manage the properties of all the mailbox databases. Which RBAC scopes should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate RBAC scopes to the correct requirements. Each RBAC scope may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1
Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command-line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two types of virtual storage provide data redundancy? (Select two.)
A. concatenate
B. RAID-5
C. stripe
D. mirror
E. RAID-0
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX? (Select two.)
A. improved deduplication for data backup
B. ability to resize storage across physical devices
C. improved disaster recovery by mirroring between arrays
D. enhanced file sharing
E. increased virtual memory
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
A system administrator has a large amount of inactive data on the company’s storage devices. The excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. The administrator needs to set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires based on age. How can the administrator set the threshold for automatic relocation of data?
A. use SmartMove
B. use SmartTier
C. use Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS)
D. use Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which benefit is provided when Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) uses the SmartMove feature?
A. optimized Data Deduplication process
B. optimized SmartTier storage allocation process
C. optimized mirror synchronization process
D. optimized File Replication process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two benefits of using Storage Checkpoints within Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX instead of file system snapshots? (Select two.)
A. transient
B. read-only
C. uses free space from parent file system
D. persistent
E. uses separate volume
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QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?
A. mydg01
B. c2t0d0
C. mydg
D. c1t0d0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. optimized SmartMove
C. optimized replication of volume data
D. optimized file compression
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)
A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file
B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume
C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system
D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk
E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the layout of the volume described in the vxprint output provided in the exhibit?
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
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QUESTION 12
A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of layouts? (Select two.)
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
E. stripe with parity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-0+1
D. RAID-1+0
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What are two advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Select two.)
A. provides hot-relocation
B. provides load balancing
C. improves performance
D. provides data redundancy
E. improves reliability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
Where do the private and public regions of Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS) formatted disks reside?
A. on separate disk slices
B. on a single disk slice
C. on reserved slices
D. on a boot slice
070-489 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two items are checked on existing Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX systems by the Installation and Upgrade service from Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT)? (Select two.)
A. existing Symantec packages and patches
B. disk group version
C. file system free space
D. volume manager disk group free space
E. disk drive information
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
What is the minimum Storage Foundation release supported to upgrade directly to Veritas Storage
Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. 5.0
B. 5.0MP1
C. 5.0MP3
D. 5.1
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 18
How many days can a customer run Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX without entering a valid license key during installation without receiving warning messages?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which two operations can be performed with a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) Management Server (MS) with all add-ons installed? (Select two.)
A. manage host deployment across the enterprise
B. discover the secure Oracle databases running on the managed host
C. manage user privileges in VEA on the managed host
D. discover Solaris Zones and Solaris LDOMs running on a managed host
E. manage Business Entities
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which command is used to manually configure the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) product?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxinstall
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdctl enable
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which display command consolidates information from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) and Veritas File System (VxFS)?
A. vxprint
B. vxadm
C. vxsfadm
D. vxlist
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX commands are used to prevent and allow multi pathing of Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) devices? (Select two.)
A. vxdiskadm
B. vxddladm
C. fsvoladm
D. vxdmpadm
E. vxsfadm
070-489 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. based on configured policies, it performs the required actions on the message
B. based on configured policies, it scans the message for attributes and violations
C. based on default policies, it stores spam and virus messages
D. based on default policies, it provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX user interface provides a menu-driven, text- based interface for performing some disk and disk group administration?
A. Veritas Enterprise Administrator (VEA)
B. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
C. vxedit
D. vxdiskadm
070-489 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which command can be run from the command line interface of a Scanner appliance to list, backup or restore the current message audit logging logs?
A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. malquery
D. mallog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding the encrypted attachment disposition in the Virus policy settings?
A. it is a subset of the ‘unscannable’ disposition
B. it leverages TLS or gateway to gateway encryption
C. the default action is to delete
D. it also includes password protected files
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A server with one disk group is running Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX and suffers a system board failure. An administrator moves the disks in that disk group to a new server. When the administrator tries to import the disk group, the import fails. Which command should the administrator use to successfully import the disk group?
A. vxdg -C import
B. vxdg -f import
C. vxdg -n newname import
D. vxdg -t import
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which command can an administrator run to display all of the imported and deported disk groups for a system?
A. vxdg
B. vxlist
C. vxddladm
D. vxconfig
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group. Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which component do you configure to enable the Instant Messaging security proxy?
A. Premium Content Control
B. Control Center
C. Conduit
D. Scanner
070-489 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A volume manager disk, EMC_10, in diskgroup appdg is used for a 30G simple volume and it is mounted. An administrator needs to relocate the disk EMC_10 and its associated volume from diskgroup appdg to webdg while preserving the user data. Which command(s) should the administrator use after unmounting the file system?
A. vxdisk reclaim EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg adddisk EMC_10
B. vxdg -g appdg rmdisk EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg addisk EMC_10
C. vxdg move appdg webdg EMC_10
D. vxdg migrate appdg webdg EMC_10
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg. There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Correct Answer: D
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Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 17 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
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You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time. What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013

When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer. What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently migrated to Office 365 and is planning to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers in the main office and all branch offices. Due to limited bandwidth at the branch offices, the company decides to have users install Office 365 ProPlus from a network share by using the Click-to-Run deployment method. You need to install Office 365 ProPlus on a client computer. How should you complete the relevant command? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user has a desktop computer and has been assigned an E3 license. The user plans to travel to multiple branch offices and will use a shared desktop computer at each branch office. The user will not have administrative privileges on the branch office computers. You
need to ensure that the user has access to all features of Microsoft Word 2013 and Excel 2013 at the branch offices. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

070-347 dumps
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees have archive mailboxes that have the default retention policy applied. A new company policy requires some existing mailboxes to have a retention policy that deletes only email messages in the Deleted Items folder after 90 days. Deleted messages must be recoverable. None of the existing retention tags meet the new requirement. You create an empty retention policy named Policy-90. You need to configure the retention policy and apply it to the mailboxes. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 23 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. The company is currently migrating from a hosted POP3 email solution to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company maintains extensive lists of external contacts in several Microsoft Excel workbooks. You plan to import all the external contact information from the workbooks into the Exchange Online Global Address List (GAL).The external contacts must not be able to sign in to your company’s Windows Azure Active Directory service. You consolidate all the external contact information into a file named External Contacts. You need to import the file into the GAL. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 24 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for customers that complete the ‘contact me’ field on his website to track return on investment for the marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the ‘metric goal’ field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose “dollars” in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the ‘goal value’ field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he has created for the ‘contact me’ form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the “goal 
completion” field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you’re interested in seeing your most popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the quality score?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The lower a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
C. It is used to measure performance of schedule
D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
A. Information about the propriety of cutoff
B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?
A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes.
C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project’s planning orexecution (“impact”).
D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
A. Identification of assets
B. Identification of threats
C. Identification of threat sources
D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
A. Risk indicator matrix
B. Impact matrix
C. Risk scenario matrix
D. Probability matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
B. Alignment with risk-culture
C. Risk-aware decisions
D. The capacity of the enterprise’s objective to absorb loss.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
A. Risk planning
B. Risk monitoring and controlling
C. Risk identification
D. Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: Citrix Other Certification
Exam Code: 1Y0-440
Exam Name: Architecting a Citrix Networking Solution
Updated: Apr 20, 2020
Q&As: 63

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The latest Citrix 1Y0-440 Practice Questions (Real Exam Questions)

QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported on LbaaSV1? (Choose two.)
A. Cookie Insertion
B. Layer 7 Load Balancing
C. Certificate Bundle
D. Layer 4 Load balancing
E. Server name Indicator
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new multi-datacenter NetScaler deployment. The customer wants
NetScaler to provide access to various backend resources by using Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) in an ActiveActive deployment.
Click the Exhibit button to view additional requirements identified by the architect.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q2

Which GSLB algorithm or method should the architect use for the deployment, based on the stated requirements?
A. Dynamic round trip time (RTT)
B. Least response time
C. Static proximity D. least connection
E. Least packets
F. Source IP hash
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler/12/global-server-load-balancing/methods/configuring-algorithm-basedmethods.html

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to configure a full VPN session profile to meet the following requirements:
1.
Users should be able to send the traffic only for the allowed networks through the VPN tunnel.
2.
Only the DNS requests ending with the configured DNS suffix workspacelab.com must be sent to NetScaler Gateway.
3.
If the DNS query does NOT contain a domain name, then DNS requests must be sent to NetScaler gateway. Which
settings will meet these requirements?
A. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Both
B. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Local
C. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Remote
D. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Remote
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has met with a team of Workspacelab members for a design discussion. They have captured
the following requirements for NetScaler design project:
1.
The authentication must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains.
2.
The workspacelab users connecting from the internal (workspacelab) network should be authenticated using LDAP.
3.
The workspacelab users connecting from the external network should be authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS.
4.
The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service.
5.
The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab.
6.
Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway.
7.
A domain drop down list must be provided if the used connects to the NetScaler gateway virtual server externally.
Which method must the architect utilize for user management between the two domains?
A. Create shadow accounts for the users of the Workspacelab domain in the Vendorlab domain.
B. Create a global catalog containing the objects of Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains.
C. Create shadow accounts for the Vendorlab domain in the Workspacelab domain.
D. Create a two-way trust between the Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new NetScaler Gateway deployment for a customer. During the design
discussions, the architect learns that the customer would like to allow external RDP connections to internal Windows
machines but does NOT want client drive redirection enabled on these connections.
Where should the architect enable the options to allow the customer to complete their requirement?
A. NetScaler Gateway global settings
B. RDP bookmark
C. Session policy
D. RDP server profile
E. Session profile
F. RDP client profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has configured NetScaler Gateway integration with a XenApp environment to provide access
to users from two domains: vendorlab.com and workslab.com. The Authentication method used is LDAP. Which two
steps are required to achieve Single Sign-on StoreFront using a single store? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Single sign-on domain in Session profile `userPrincipalName\\’.
B. Do NOT configure SSO Name attribute in LDAP Profile.
C. Do NOT configure sign-on domain in Session Profile.
D. Configure SSO Name attribute to `userPrincipalName\\’ in LDAP Profile.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/storefront/3-12/plan/user-authentication.html

QUESTION 7
Scenario: More than 10,000 users will access a customer\\’s environment. The current networking infrastructure is
capable of supporting the entire workforce of users. However, the number of support staff is limited, and management
needs to ensure that they are capable of supporting the full user base.
Which business driver is prioritized, based on the customer\\’s requirements?
A. Simplify Management
B. Increase Scalability
C. Increase Flexibility
D. Reduce Costs
E. Enable Mobile Work Styles
F. Increase Security
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler multi-site deployment. The deployment is using
Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured in a parent-child configuration.
Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram of the current GSLB configuration and parent-child relationships, as well as
the status of the sites and the connectivity between them.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q8

Based on the displayed configuration and status, Chil_site1_______ a connection from _______. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
A. rejects; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
B. rejects; SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
C. accepts; SiteP3; becomes its child site
D. accepts; SiteP2; becomes its child site
E. does NOT receive; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
F. rejects; SiteP2; remains a child site of SiteP1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new NetScaler Gateway deployment to provide secure RDP access to
backend Windows machines. Click the Exhibit button to view additional requirements collected by the architect during
the design discussions.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q9

To meet the customer requirements, the architect should deploy the RDP proxy through _______, using a _________
solution. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. ICAProxy, stateless gateway
B. CVPN; single gateway
C. CVPN; stateless gateway
D. ICAProxy; single gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which parameter indicates the number of current users logged on to the NetScaler gateway?
A. ICA connections
B. Total Connected Users
C. Active user session
D. Maximum User session
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess a NetScaler Gateway deployment that was recently completed by a
customer and is currently in pre-production testing. The NetScaler Gateway needs to use ICA proxy to provide access
to a XenApp and XenDesktop environment. During the assessment, the customer informs the architect that users are
NOT able to launch published resources using the Gateway virtual server.
Click the Exhibit button to view the troubleshooting details collected by the customer.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q11

What is the cause of this issue?
A. The required ports have NOT been opened on the firewall between the NetScaler gateway and the Virtual Delivery
Agent (VDA) machines.
B. The StoreFront URL configured in the NetScaler gateway session profile is incorrect.
C. The Citrix License Server is NOT reachable.
D. The Secure Ticket Authority (STA) servers are load balanced on the NetScaler.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to deploy a NetScaler appliance for Workspacelab, which will provide application load
balancing services to Partnerlab and Vendorlab.
The setup requirements are as follows:
1.
A pair of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network.
2.
High availability will be accessible on the NetScaler MPX in the DMZ Network.
3.
Load balancing should be performed for the mail servers for Partnerlab and Vendorlab.
4.
The traffic for both of the organizations must be isolated.
5.
Separate Management accounts must be available for each client.
6.
The load-balancing IP addresses must be identical.
7.
A separate VLAN must be utilized for communication for each client.
Which solution can the architect utilize to meet the requirements?
A. Traffic Domain
B. Admin Partition
C. VLAN Filtering
D. VPX or MPX
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
For which three reasons should a Citrix Architect perform a capabilities assessment when designing and deploying a
new NetScaler in an existing environment? (Choose three.)
A. Understand the skill set of the company.
B. Assess and identify potential risks for the design and build phase.
C. Establish and prioritize the key drivers behind a project.
D. Determine operating systems and application usage.
E. Identify other planned projects and initiatives that must be integrated with the design and build phase.
Correct Answer: BDE

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