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Q1:

You have a Microsoft Power Bl report. The size of the PBIX file is 550 MB. The report is accessed by using an App workspace in the shared capacity of powerbi.com.

The report uses an imported dataset that contains one fact table. The fact table contains 12 million rows. The dataset is scheduled to refresh twice a day at 08:00 and 17:00.

The report is a single page that contains 15 custom visuals and 10 default visuals.

Users say that the report is slow to load the visuals when they access and interact with the report

You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of the report.

What should you recommend?

A. Replace the default visuals with AppSource visuals.

B. Change any DAX measures to use iterator functions.

C. Remove unused columns from tables in the data model.

D. Increase the number of times that the dataset is refreshed

Correct Answer: C

DirectQuery: No data is imported or copied into Power BI Desktop. Import: The selected tables and columns are imported into Power BI Desktop. As you create or interact with a visualization, Power BI Desktop uses the imported data.

Benefits of using DirectQuery

There are a few benefits to using DirectQuery:

DirectQuery lets you build visualizations over very large datasets, where it would otherwise be unfeasible to first import all the data with pre-aggregation. Underlying data changes can require a refresh of data.

For some reports, the need to display current data can require large data transfers, making reimporting data unfeasible. By contrast, DirectQuery reports always use current data.

The 1-GB dataset limitation doesn’t apply to DirectQuery.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-use-directquery

---

Q2:

DRAG DROP

You are building a dataset from a JSON file that contains an array of documents.

You need to import attributes as columns from all the documents in the JSON file. The solution must ensure that data attributes can be used as date hierarchies in Microsoft Power BI reports.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

1- Convert list to table 2- Expand Column 3- Set Date type

Here is an example: https://youtu.be/B4kzyxnhQfI

The definition of the function which expands columns: https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/powerquery-m/table-expandrecordcolumn

---

Q3:

You have a collection of reports for the HR department of your company. The datasets use row-level security (RLS). The company has multiple sales regions that each have an HR manager. You need to ensure that the HR managers can interact with the data from their region only. The HR managers must be prevented from changing the layout of the reports.

How should you provide access to the reports for the HR managers?

A. Create a new workspace, copy the datasets and reports, and add the HR managers as members of the workspace.

B. Publish the reports to a different workspace other than the one hosting the datasets.

C. Publish the reports in an app and grant the HR managers access permission.

D. Add the HR managers as members of the existing workspace that hosts the reports and the datasets.

Correct Answer: C

Note: Row-level security (RLS) with Power BI can be used to restrict data access for given users. Filters restrict data access at the row level, and you can define filters within roles. In the Power BI service, members of a workspace have

access to datasets in the workspace.

RLS doesn’t restrict this data access.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls

---

Q4:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a Power BI report that imports a data table and a sales table from an Azure SQL database data source.

The sales table has the following date foreign keys:

1. Due Date

2. Order Date

3. Delivery Date

You need to support the analysis of sales over time-based on all the date foreign keys.

Solution: From Power Query Editor, you rename the date query as Due Date. You reference the Due Date query twice to make the queries for Order Date and Delivery Date.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Creating two additional tables in Power Query can be a possible solution:

Remove any inactive relationships.

Consider renaming the role-playing dimension-type table to better describe its role. In the example, the Airport table is related to the ArrivalAirport column of the Flight table, so it\’s renamed as Arrival Airport. Create a copy of the role-playing

table, providing it with a name that reflects its role. If it\’s an Import table, we recommend defining a calculated table. If it\’s a DirectQuery table, you can duplicate the Power Query query.

In the example, the Departure Airport table was created by using the following calculated table definition.

---

Q5:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales has a column named CustomerlD. The Data Type of CustomerlD is Whole Number.

You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain non-numeric values.

You need to ensure that non-numeric values in the CustomerlD column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerlD column and click Remove Errors.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

---

Q6:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You are modeling data by using Microsoft Power Bl. Part of the data model is a large Microsoft SQL Server table named Order that has more than 100 million records.

During the development process, you need to import a sample of the data from the Order table.

Solution: You write a DAX expression that uses the FILTER function.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

The filter is applied after the data is imported. Instead, add a WHERE clause to the SQL statement.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-gateway-sql-tutorial

---

Q7:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a quick measure as shown in the following exhibit.

You need to create a monthly rolling average measure for Sales over time.

How should you configure the quick measure calculation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Total Sales We select the field Total Sales

Box 2: Date Select a date field.

Box 3: Month Monthly periods.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-quick-measures

---

Q8:

HOTSPOT

You have a table that contains a column named Phone. The following is a sample of the data in the Phone column.

You need to add a new column that contains the data in the format of nnn-nnn-nnnn.

How should you complete the Query Editor formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/text-replace https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/text-end

---

Q9:

You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard. The report used to create the dashboard uses an imported dataset from a Microsoft SQL Server data source. The dashboard is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.) What occurred at 12:03:06 PM?

A. A user pressed F5

B. A new transaction was added to the data source.

C. A user added a comment to a tile.

D. The dashboard tile cache was refreshed.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/refresh-data

---

Q10:

DRAG DROP

You have the Power BI data model shown in the following exhibit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

---

Q11:

HOTSPOT

You need to calculate the last day of the month in the balance sheet data to ensure that you can relate the balance sheet data to the Date table.

Which type of calculation and which formula should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: A DAX Calculated measure

Box 2: Date.EndofQuarter(#date([Year],[Mont],1))

END OF QUARTER returns the last date of the quarter in the current context for the specified column of dates.

The following sample formula creates a measure that returns the end of the quarter, for the current context.

= ENDOFQUARTER(DateTime[DateKey])

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dax/endofquarter-function-dax

---

Q12:

HOTSPOT

You have a column named UnitslnStock as shown in the following exhibit

UnitsInStock has 75 non-null values, of which 51 are unique.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

Box 1: 75 rows

Is nullable allows NULL values in the column.

Box 2: reduce

---

Q13:

You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site that contains several document libraries. One of the document libraries contains manufacturing reports saved as Microsoft Excel files. All the manufacturing reports have the same data structure.

You need to load only the manufacturing reports to a table for analysis.

What should you do in Microsoft Power Bl Desktop?

A. Get data from a SharePoint Online folder, enter the site URL, and then select Combine and Load.

B. Get data from a SharePoint Online list and enter the site URL. Edit the query and filter by the path to the manufacturing reports library.

C. Get data from a SharePoint Online folder and enter the site URL. Edit the query and filter by the path to the manufacturing reports library.

D. Get data from a SharePoint Online list, enter the site URL, and then select Combine and Load.

Correct Answer: B

We have to import Excel files from SharePoint, so we need the connector SharePoint folder which is used to get access to the files stored in the library.

SharePoint list is a collection of content that has rows and columns (like a table) and is used for task lists, calendars, etc. Since we have to filter only on manufacturing reports, we have to select Transform and then filter by the corresponding folder path.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-query/connectors/sharepointlist

---

Q14:

You import two Microsoft Excel tables named Customer and Address into Power Query. The customer contains the following columns:

Customer ID Customer Name Phone Email Address Address ID

The address contains the following columns:

Address ID Address Line 1 Address Line 2 City State/Region Country Postal Code

The Customer ID and Address ID columns represent unique rows.

You need to create a query that has one row per customer. Each row must contain City, State/Region, and Country for each customer.

What should you do?

A. Merge the Customer and Address tables.

B. Transpose the Customer and Address tables.

C. Group the Customer and Address tables by the Address ID column.

D. Append the Customer and Address tables.

Correct Answer: A

There are two primary ways of combining queries: merging and appending. When you have one or more columns that you\’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

When you have additional rows of data that you\’d like to add to an existing query, you append the query.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-shape-and-combine-data

---

Q15:

others might not have a correct solution.

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen,

You create a parameter named DataSourceExcel that holds the file name and location of a Microsoft Excel data source.

You need to update the query to reference the parameter instead of multiple hard-coded copies of the location within each query definition.

Solution: In the Power Query M code, you replace references to the Excel file with DataSourceExcel.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Instead, modify the source step of the queries to use DataSourceExcel as the file path.

Note: Parameterising a Data Source could be used in many different use cases. From connecting to different data sources defined in Query Parameters to load different combinations of columns.

---

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Best practice MD-101 Managing Modern Desktops exam questions [2023.4]

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have a hybrid Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.

You configure a Windows Autopilot deployment profile as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: import a CSV file into Windows Autopilot

You can perform Windows Autopilot device registration within your organization by manually collecting the hardware identity of devices (hardware hashes) and uploading this information in a comma-separated-values (CSV) file.

Box 2: joined to Azure AD only As per exhibit (Azure AD joined).

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/autopilot/add-devices

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/concept-azure-ad-join-hybrid

---

Question 2:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-insider/business/manage-builds

Your company has a hybrid configuration of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Your company also has a Microsoft 365 subscription.

After creating a conditional access policy for Microsoft Exchange Online, you are tasked with configuring the policy to block access to Exchange Online. However, the policy should allow access for hybrid Azure AD-joined devices

Solution: You should configure the Device platforms settings.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Within a Conditional Access policy, an administrator can make use of signals from conditions like risk, device platform, or location to enhance their policy decisions.

Client apps By default, all newly created Conditional Access policies will apply to all client app types even if the client apps condition isn’t configured.

These conditions are commonly used when requiring a managed device, blocking legacy authentication, and blocking web applications but allowing mobile or desktop apps.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/conditions#device-state

---

Question 3:

You need to meet the requirements of the MKG department users.

What should you do?

A. Assign the MKG department users the Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business

B. Download the APPX file for App1 from Microsoft Store for Business

C. Add App1 to the private store

D. Assign the MKG department users the Basic Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business

E. Acquire App1 from Microsoft Store for Business

Correct Answer: E

Enable the users in the MKG department to use App1.

The private store is a feature in Microsoft Store for Business and Education that organizations receive during the signup process. When admins add apps to the private store, all employees in the organization can view and download the apps.

Your private store is available as a tab in the Microsoft Store app and is usually named for your company or organization. Only apps with online licenses can be added to the private store.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/distribute-apps-from-your-private-store

---

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You upgrade three computers from Windows 8.1 to Windows 10 as shown in the following table.

The in-place upgrade settings used to perform the upgrade are shown in the following table.

After the upgrade, you perform the following actions on each computer:

1. Add a local user account named LocalAdmin1.

2. Install Microsoft Office 2019.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No More than 10 days.

Please take note!

The question states “The in-place upgrade settings used to perform the upgrade are shown in the following table.”

On Computer 2 the setting is None – i.e. Nothing: Everything will be deleted, including files, app, and Settings. This is equal to a clean install…

The Windows. old folder will always be created during an upgrade install, even if you choose the “Nothing” option. “If you choose to “Keep nothing” when you upgrade to Windows 8.1, or if you reset, refresh, or reinstall Windows, your personal

files are temporarily saved to the Windows. old” with a 10-day limit to do so…

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/retrieve-files-from-the-windows-old-folder-f668ada4-701b-204a-73c3-952bc5ceb1c8

https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/all/how-to-recover-restore-your-previous-version-of/94368560-9c64-4387-92b9-82a9234216ad

Reference:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/go-back-to-windows-8-1-40e2d7dc-f640-b0e5-56e1-b41a27e28533

---

Question 5:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a user named User1 and the devices shown in the following table.

User1 can access her Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox from both Device 1 and Device 2.

You plan to create a Conditional Access policy named CAPolicy1 that will have the following settings:

1. Assignments

2. Users or workload identities: User1

3. Cloud apps or actions: Office 365 Exchange Online

4. Access controls

5. Grant: Block access

You need to configure CAPolicy1 to allow mailbox access from Device 1 but block mailbox access from Device 2.

Solution: You add a condition that specifies a trusted location.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead, use solution: You add a condition to filter for devices.

Note: Conditional Access: Filter for devices

When creating Conditional Access policies, administrators have asked for the ability to target or exclude specific devices in their environment. The conditioning filter for devices gives administrators this capability.

Now you can target specific devices using supported operators and properties for device filters and the other available assignment conditions in your Conditional Access policies.

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-condition-filters-for-devices

---

Question 6:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains the devices shown in the following table.

You need to assign app protection settings to the devices.

What is the minimum number of app protection policies required?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Correct Answer: D

One for Windows 10 with enrollment

One for Windows 10 without enrollment

One for Android (you can\’t set with or without enrollment)

One for iOS/iPadOS (you can\’t set it with or without enrollment)

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/app-protection-policies

---

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You need to meet the technical requirements for Windows Autopilot.

Which two settings should you configure from the Azure Active Directory blade?

To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Devices Note: Deploy Windows 10 Enterprise to the computers of the Phoenix office users by using Windows Autopilot.

Configure device settings If you want to manage device identities by using the Azure portal, the devices need to be either registered or joined to Azure AD. As an administrator, you can control the process of registering and joining devices by configuring device settings.

Box 2: Mobility (MDM and MAM)

Windows Autopilot Deployment for existing devices.

Configure the Enrollment Status Page.

If you want, you can set up an enrollment status page for Autopilot using Intune.

To enable and configure the enrollment and status page:

1) Open Intune in the Azure portal.

2) Access Intune > Device enrollment > Windows enrollment and Set up an enrollment status page.

3) Access Azure Active Directory > Mobility (MDM and MAM) > Microsoft Intune and Configure automatic MDM enrollment and configure the MDM user scope for some or all users.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/device-management-azure-portal#configure-device-settings https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/autopilot/existing-devices

---

Question 8:

You manage a Microsoft 365 environment that has co-management enabled.

All computers run Windows 10 and are deployed by using the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT).

You need to recommend a solution to deploy Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus to new computers. The latest version must always be installed. The solution must minimize administrative effort.

What is the best tool to use for the deployment? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A. Microsoft Intune

B. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit

C. Office Deployment Tool (ODT)

D. a Group Policy object (GPO)

E. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager

Correct Answer: A

Intune –> Create device group –> Select o365 app –> deploy to group

ODT –> Download files -> Create XML –> How to trigger install (manual install/MDT Task seq/PowerShell script/logon script etc)

SCCM –> create new package via ODT or via wizard –> select DPs to distribute –>deploy to collection

MDT –> requires ODT to have the latest version but is fastest with installation as O365 is installed during TS, so in the end I would use this in production, but is not what MS asks.

In the question, it states the machines are in co-management, which indicates the presence of ConfigMgr and Intune otherwise machines cannot be co-managed. In ConfigMgr, there is a co-management workload you can move to Intune

specifically for Office 365 management. Office deployment and management from Intune is by far the most simple way to deploy Office apps (MS 365 Apps for business).

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/comanage/workloads#office-click-to-run-apps

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/apps-add-office365#select-microsoft-365-apps

---

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains the users shown in the following table.

You have a server named Server that runs Windows Server 2019 and has the Windows Deployment Services role installed. Server1 contains an x86 boot image and three Windows 10 install images. The install images are shown in the following table.

You purchase a computer named Computer1 that is compatible with the 64-bit version of Windows 10.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

User1 is a member of Group1. User1 does not have any permission to Image1.

Box 2: Yes

User1 has read permissions to Image2 through Group1.

Box 3: Yes

User2 has read permissions to Image3 through Group2.

---

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft Intune subscription that has the following device compliance policy settings:

1. Mark devices with no compliance policy assigned as Compliant

2. Compliance status validity period (days): 14

On January 1, you enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune as shown in the following table.

On January 4, you create the following two device compliance policies:

1. Name: Policy1

2. Platform: Windows 10 and later

3. Require BitLocker: Require

4. Mark device noncompliant: 5 days after non-compliance

5. Scope (Tags): Tag1

6. Name: Policy2

7. Platform: Windows 10 and later

8. Firewall: Require

9. Mark the device noncompliant: Immediately 10.Scope (Tags): Tag2 On January 5, you assign Policy1 and Policy2 to Group1.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

Policy1 and Policy2 apply to Group1 which Device1 is a member of. Device 1 does not meet the firewall requirement in Policy2 so the device will immediately be marked as non-compliant.

Box 2: No

For the same reason as Box1.

Box 3: Yes

Policy1 and Policy2 apply to Group1. Device2 is not a member of Group1 so the policies don’t apply.

The Scope (tags) have nothing to do with whether the policy is applied or not. The tags are used in RBAC.

---

Question 11:

You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.

You have a workgroup computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.

You need to add Computer1 to contoso.com.

What should you use?

A. the Settings app

B. Computer Management

C. netdom.exe

D. dsregcmd.exe

Correct Answer: D

If you want to manually join the computer to Azure AD, you can execute the disregard/join command. This command should be run in the SYSTEM context (using psexec for example) and will force an attempt to Azure AD.

Reference: https://365bythijs.be/2019/11/02/troubleshooting-hybrid-azure-ad-join/

---

Question 12:

You have a Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) deployment share named DS1.

In the Out-of-Box Drivers node, you create folders that contain drivers for different hardware models.

You need to configure the Inject Drivers MDT task to use PnP detection to install the drivers for one of the hardware models.

What should you do first?

A. Create a selection profile

B. Import an OS package

C. Add a Validate task to the task sequence

D. Add a Gather task to the task sequence

Correct Answer: A

By default, MDT adds any storage and network drivers that you import to the boot images. However, you should add only the drivers that are necessary to the boot image. You can control which drivers are added by using selection profiles.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-mdt/deploy-a-windows-10-image-using-mdt

---

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

A company named A. Datum Corporation uses Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager, Microsoft Intune, and Desktop Analytics.

A.Datum purchases a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has devices that run the following operating systems:

1. Windows 8.1

2. Windows 10

3. Android

4. iOS

A.Datum plans to use Desktop Analytics to monitor the Contoso devices.

You need to identify which devices can be monitored by using Desktop Analytics and how to add the devices to Desktop Analytics.

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Windows 8.1 and Windows 10 only

Windows 7, Windows 8.1, and Windows 10 are supported.

Box 2: Install the Endpoint Configuration Manager agent.

Need to for the Windows 8.1 client.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/desktop-analytics/enroll-devices https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/desktop-analytics/overview

---

Question 14:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Your company has Windows 10 computers are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You make use of Intune to manage the servicing channel settings of all company computers.

You receive an inquiry regarding the servicing status of a specific computer.

You need to review the necessary policy report.

Solution: You navigate to the Per update ring deployment state via Software updates.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/windows-update-compliance-reports

---

Question 15:

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.

A new user named Admin1 is responsible for deploying Windows 10 to computers and joining the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

Admin1 successfully joins computers to Azure AD.

Several days later, Admin1 receives the following error message: “This user is not authorized to enroll. You can try to do this again or contact your system administrator with the error code (0x801c0003).”

You need to ensure that Admin1 can join computers to Azure AD and follow the principle of least privilege.

What should you do?

A. Assign the Global administrator role to Admin1.

B. Modify the Device settings in Azure AD.

C. Assign the Cloud device administrator role to Admin1.

D. Modify the User settings in Azure AD.

Correct Answer: B

If you have rights to manage devices in Intune, you can manage devices for which mobile device management is listed as Microsoft Intune. If the device isn’t enrolled with Microsoft Intune, the Manage option won\’t be available.

Note: Enable or disable an Azure AD device

There are two ways to enable or disable devices:

The toolbar on the All Devices page, after you select one or more devices.

The toolbar, after you drill down for a specific device.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/device-management-azure-portal

---

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Cisco ENCOR 350-401 practice questions online practice

350-401 Practice Question 1:

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

A. ideal for data center

B. complicated deployment

C. ideal for client/end-user system

D. referred to as bare-metal

Correct Answer: C

---

350-401 Practice Question 2:

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

A. VNI

B. GRE

C. VTEP

D. EVPN

Correct Answer: C

VTEP (Virtual Tunnel Endpoint) – This is the device that does the encapsulation and de-encapsulation.

---

350-401 Practice Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID.

Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

A. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

Correct Answer: D

---

350-401 Practice Question 4:

Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

A. TCP

B. HTTPS

C. SSH

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: B

The REST API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS messages that contain JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents. You can use any programming language to generate the messages and the JSON or XML documents that contain the API methods or Managed Object (MO) descriptions.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2- x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/ b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Config uration_Guide_chapter_01.html

---

350-401 Practice Question 5:

Which of the following statements regarding BFD are correct? (Select 2 choices.)

A. BFD is supported by OSPF, EIGRP, BGP, and IS-IS.

B. BFD detects link failures in less than one second.

C. BFD can bypass a failed peer without relying on a routing protocol.

D. BFD creates one session per routing protocol per interface.

E. BFD is supported only on physical interfaces.

F. BFD consumes more CPU resources than routing protocol timers do.

Correct Answer: AB

---

350-401 Practice Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured Cisco ISE to assign VLANs to clients based on their method of authentication, but this is not working as expected. Which action will resolve this issue?

A. require a DHCP address assignment

B. utilize RADIUS profiling

C. set a NAC state

D. enable AAA override

Correct Answer: D

---

350-401 Practice Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers. Which configuration accomplishes the task?

A. R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

B. R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200

C. R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

D. R4(config-router)nighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200

Correct Answer: A

Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has a preference to exit the AS in order to reach a certain network. A path with a higher local preference is preferred. The default value for local preference is 100.

Unlike the weight attribute, which is only relevant to the local router, local preference is an attribute routers exchange in the same AS.

The local preference is set with the “bgp default local-preference value ” command. In this case, both R3 and R4 have exit links but R4 has a higher local preference so R4 will be chosen as the preferred exit point from AS 200.

---

350-401 Practice Question 8:

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0

R2(config-if)# ip ospf 100 area 0

B. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#ip ospf 100 area 0

C. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-multipoint R2(config-if)# router ospf 100 R2(config-router)# network 172.22.2.0 0.0.0.265 area 0

D. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network broadcast R2(config-if)# ip ospf 100 area 0

Correct Answer: B

When OSPF is running on a given loopback interface, it sees the network type of “LOOPBACK” and it knows that it can not establish an adjacency through that loopback interface with another router so it advertises that loopback as a host route or the only IP address on that logical interface.

As Martin explained so nicely you can tell OSPF that it is not a loopback and a point-to-point network type, and OSPF says “OK I am going to advertise the interface with its correct mask”.

In an MPLS environment where OSPF is the IGP in the core, and you have configured the loopback interface of the PE router with a /24 mask, you can have some problems, because there is a discrepancy, the loopback\’s mask is 24 but OSPF is advertising a mask of /32.

There are a few solutions to fix this problem, one solution is to reconfigure the mask to be /32, and another solution is to configure the loopback interface with “ip ospf network point-to-point”.

---

350-401 Practice Question 9:

DRAG DROP

An engineer plans to use Python to convert text files that contain device information to JSON Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct the request. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

350-401 Practice Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

A. 1

B. 7

C. 13

D. 15

Correct Answer: A

Lines (CON, AUX, VTY) default to level 1 privileges.

---

350-401 Practice Question 11:

Which two statements about VRF-lite are factual? (Choose two)

A. It can support multiple customers on a single switch

B. It supports most routing protocols, including EIGRP, ISIS, and OSPF

C. It should be used when a customer\’s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF

D. It can increase the packet switching rate

E. It supports MPLS-VRF label exchange and labeled packets

Correct Answer: AC

VRF-lite does not support IGRP and ISIS.

1. VRF-lite does not support all MPLS-VRF functionality: label exchange, LDP adjacency, or labeled packets.

2. VRF-lite does not affect the packet switching rate.

3. The capability vrf-lite subcommand under router ospf should be used when configuring OSPF as the routing protocol between the PE and the CE.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/vrf.html#wp1045190

---

350-401 Practice Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

350-401 Practice Question 13:

An engineer must configure the interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. To accomplish this task, which command set must be added to the initial configuration?

Initial Configuration interface GigabitEthernet0/0description To IDF A 38-24-044.40ip address 172.16.13.2 255.255.255.0

A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt

B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120

C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120

D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt

Correct Answer: A

In fact, VRRP has the preemption enabled by default so we don`t need the vrrp 10 preempt command. The default priority is 100 so we don`t need to configure it either.

But notice that the correct command to configure the virtual IP address for the group is vrrp 10 ip {ip-address} (not vrrp group 10 ip …) and this command does not include a subnet mask.

---

350-401 Practice Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the QoS mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

350-401 Practice Question 15:

Using the EIRP formula, what parameter is subtracted to determine the EIRP value?

A. transmitter power

B. antenna cable loss

C. antenna gain

D. signal-to-noise ratio

Correct Answer: B

Once you know the complete combination of the transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual power level that will be radiated from the antenna.

This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries.

In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract the cable loss.

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Microsoft Azure Fundamentals (AZ-900 dumps) free questions

New Q1:

You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You need to customize a usage report for Microsoft Yammer. Which two tools can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services

B. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services

C. Microsoft Power BI in a browser

D. Microsoft Power BI Desktop

E. Microsoft Visual Studio

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/usage-analytics/customize-reports?view=o365-worldwide

---

New Q2:

Your company plans to migrate to Azure. The company has several departments. All the Azure resources used by each department will be managed by a department administrator.

You need to recommend an Azure deployment that provides the ability to segment Azure for the departments.

What are two possible techniques to segment Azure for the departments? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. multiple subscriptions

B. multiple Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directories

C. multiple regions

D. multiple resource groups

Correct Answer: AD

An Azure subscription is a container for Azure resources. It is also a boundary for permissions to resources and for billing. You are charged monthly for all resources in a subscription. A single Azure tenant (Azure Active Directory) can contain multiple Azure subscriptions.

A resource group is a container that holds related resources for an Azure solution. The resource group can include all the resources for the solution, or only those resources that you want to manage as a group.

To enable each department administrator to manage the Azure resources used by that department, you will need to create a separate subscription per department.

You can then assign each department administrator as an administrator for the subscription to enable them to manage all resources in that subscription.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/create-subscription https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/add-change-subscription-administrator

---

New Q3:

Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a Canadian government contractor

B. a European government contractor

C. a United States government entity

D. a United States government contractor

E. a European government entity

Correct Answer: CD

Azure Government is a cloud environment specifically built to meet compliance and security requirements for the US government. This mission-critical cloud delivers breakthrough innovation to U.S. government customers and their partners.

Azure Government applies to government at any level — from state and local governments to federal agencies including Department of Defense agencies.

The key difference between Microsoft Azure and Microsoft Azure Government is that Azure Government is a sovereign cloud. It\’s a physically separated instance of Azure, dedicated to U.S. government workloads only. It\’s built exclusively for government agencies and their solution providers.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government

---

New Q4:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

---

New Q5:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

New Q6:

Your developers have created 10 web applications that must be hosted on Azure. You need to determine which Azure web tier plan to host the web apps. The web tier plan must meet the following requirements:

1. The web apps will use custom domains.

2. The web apps each require 10 GB of storage.

3. The web apps must each run in dedicated compute instances.

4. Load balancing between instances must be included.

5. Costs must be minimized. Which web tier plan should you use?

A. Standard

B. Basic

C. Free

D. Shared

Correct Answer: B

Standard offers 50 GB of storage space, while Basic only gives 10 GB.

References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/websites/

---

New Q7:

Your company plans to deploy several million sensors that will upload data to Azure. You need to identify which Azure resources must be created to support the planned solution.

Which two Azure resources should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Data Lake

B. Azure Queue storage

C. Azure File Storage

D. Azure IoT Hub

E. Azure Notification Hubs

Correct Answer: AD

IoT Hub (Internet of things Hub) provides data from millions of sensors. IoT Hub is a managed service, hosted in the cloud, that acts as a central message hub for bi-directional communication between your IoT application and the devices it manages.

You can use Azure IoT Hub to build IoT solutions with reliable and secure communications between millions of IoT devices and a cloud-hosted solution backend. You can connect virtually any device to IoT Hub.

There are two storage services IoT Hub can route messages to — Azure Blob Storage and Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 (ADLS Gen2) accounts. Azure Data Lake Storage accounts are hierarchical namespace-enabled storage accounts built on top of blob storage. Both of these use blobs for their storage.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/about-iot-hub https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-messages-d2c

---

New Q8:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs macOS and has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

A PowerShell script is a file that contains PowerShell cmdlets and code. A PowerShell script needs to be run in PowerShell.

In this question, the computer has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed. Therefore, this solution does meet the goal.

Note: To create Azure resources using PowerShell, you would need to import the Azure PowerShell module which includes the PowerShell cmdlets required to create the resources.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/scripting/components/ise/how-to-write-and-run-scripts-in-the-windows-powershell-ise?view=powershell-6

New Q9:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

From Access Control (IAM), you can view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. Azure Event Hubs

C. Azure Activity Log

D. Azure Service Health

Correct Answer: C

You would use the Azure Activity Log, not Access Control to view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Activity logs are kept for 90 days. You can query for any range of dates, as long as the starting date isn’t more than 90 days in the past.

In this question, we would create a filter to display shut down operations on the virtual machine in the last 14 days.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit

---

New Q10:

HOTSPOT

You need to identify which blades in the Azure portal must be used to perform the following tasks:

1. View security recommendations.

2. Monitor the health of Azure services.

3. Browse available virtual machine images.

Which blade should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1:

Azure Monitor is used to monitoring the health of Azure services.

Azure Monitor maximizes the availability and performance of your applications and services by delivering a comprehensive solution for collecting, analyzing, and acting on telemetry from your cloud and on-premises environments.

It helps you understand how your applications are performing and proactively identify issues affecting them and the resources they depend on.

Box 2:

You can browse available virtual machine images in the Azure Marketplace.

Azure Marketplace provides access and information on solutions and services available from Microsoft and its partners. Customers can discover, try, or buy cloud software solutions built on or for Azure.

The catalog of 8,000+ listings provides Azure building blocks, such as Virtual Machines (VMs), APIs, Azure apps, Solution Templates and managed applications, SaaS apps, containers, and consulting services.

Box 3.

Azure Advisor displays security recommendations.

Azure Advisor provides you with a consistent, consolidated view of recommendations for all your Azure resources. It integrates with Azure Security Center to bring you security recommendations. You can get security recommendations from the Security tab on the Advisor dashboard.

Security Center helps you prevent, detect, and respond to threats with increased visibility into and control over the security of your Azure resources. It periodically analyzes the security state of your Azure resources.

When Security Center identifies potential security vulnerabilities, it creates recommendations. The recommendations guide you through the process of configuring the controls you need.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/marketplace/marketplace-faq-publisher-guide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/advisor/advisor-security-recommendations

---

New Q11:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

A resource can interact with resources in other resource groups.

Box 2: Yes

Deleting the resource group will remove the resource group as well as all the resources in that resource group. This can be useful for the management of resources. For example, a virtual machine has several components (the VM itself,

virtual disks, network adapter, etc.). By placing the VM in its own resource group, you can delete the VM along with all its associated components by deleting the resource group.

Another example is when creating a test environment. You could place the entire test environment (Network components, virtual machines, etc.) in one resource group. You can then delete the entire test environment by deleting the resource group.

Box 3: Yes

Resources from multiple different regions can be placed in a resource group. The resource group only contains metadata about the resources it contains.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-overview

https://www.codeisahighway.com/effective-ways-to-delete-resources-in-a-resource-group-on-azure/

---

New Q12:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-iaas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-saas/

---

New Q13:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/

---

New Q14:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

A PaaS solution does not provide access to the operating system. The Azure Web Apps service provides an environment for you to host your web applications. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS.

However, you have no direct access to the virtual machine, the operating system, or IIS.

Box 2: Yes

A PaaS solution that hosts web apps in Azure does provide the ability to scale the platform automatically. This is known as autoscaling. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS. Autoscaling means adding more load-balanced virtual machines to host web apps.

Box 3: Yes

PaaS provides a framework that developers can build upon to develop or customize cloud-based applications.

PaaS development tools can cut the time it takes to code new apps with pre-coded application components built into the platform, such as workflow, directory services, security features, search, and so on.

References:

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/

---

New Q15:

You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You save VM1 as a template named Template1 to the Azure Resource Manager library. You plan to deploy a virtual machine named VM2 from Template1.

What can you configure during the deployment of VM2?

A. operating system

B. administrator username

C. virtual machine size

D. resource group

Correct Answer: B

When deploying a virtual machine from a template, you must specify:

1. the Resource Group name and location for the VM

2. the administrator username and password

3. a unique DNS name for the public IP

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/ps-template

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VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot: 5V0-41.20

Product: VMware SD-WAN™ by VeloCloud®
Associated Certification: VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot 2022

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5V0-41.20 Free Dumps Questions 1-13 Will Enhance Your Exam Success

Q1 -New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed. The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing.

Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources. The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

Users at the London site are complaining of various intermittent issues around websites not loading, or applications being remotely accessed disconnecting sporadically and reconnecting after a few minutes. The network administrator does not see anything strange on the Edge overview page and decides to check if the CPU or memory has been hitting close to 100. Where should the administrator verify this information?

A. In the VCO > Test 8c Troubleshoot > Remote Diagnostics > System Status
B. In the VCO > Monitor > Click London_Site01 > Click the System Tab
C. In the VCO > Remote Troubleshooting > Remote Actions > System Status
D. In the VCO > Monitor > Alerts

Correct Answer: B

Q2 – New

Scenario 2:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator has configured a Business Policy to send a specific application directly out of an underlay interface. Users have complained of slow responses for that application. While troubleshooting, the network administrator finds the traffic is actually taking an overlay path to another SD-WAN Edge.
What is causing this behavior?

A. The other Edge location is advertising a secure route for the application\\’s subnet.
B. uI has been configured forcing traffic into the underlay towards the hub.
C. Configuring Business Policy Direct settings have no effect on traffic flows.
D. Internet Back.
E. The underlay path is not available forcing traffic into the overlay.

Correct Answer: E

Q3 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator decides to deploy a local Checkpoint VNF appliance on the Edge in London to cut back on unnecessary traffic towards the NY hub location.

The Checkpoint VNF and associated security services were successfully deployed at the London Branch. Users are now complaining that Webpages are extremely slow to load, just like before. What should the administrator do?

A. Reboot the Edge, as this is a requirement in the deployment of a Security VNF.
B. Disable and redeploy the VNF with lower memory requirements.
C. Verify to see if a firewall rule in the Edge is set to allow traffic to the Checkpoint VNF.
D. Check the flow records in Remote Diagnostics.

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

The tunnel from the spoke to the hub is not coming up. What are the two possible reasons? (Choose two.)

A. Spoke Edge and hub Edge are two different Edge models.
B. Spoke Edge and hub Edge have a mismatched certificate authentication mode.
C. Hub WAN Interface might be behind the NAT Device or firewall.
D. Dynamic Branch to Branch is not enabled.

Correct Answer: BC

Q5 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already verified the configuration is correct. Which two parameters should the administrator review to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss)
B. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings
C. Check the flows to verify which Business Policy the traffic of interest is matching
D. Look under Monitor, check the Business priority tab

Correct Answer: AD

Q6 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and blanches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

After deploying the Edge, the security team has determined that traffic from Guest wireless traffic is able to reach resources in the Production network. There should be absolutely no interaction. How can this be prevented?

A. Create an additional segment for Guest wireless traffic and leave the Production traffic in the default global segment.
B. Segmentation is currently not supported on VeloCloud Edge.
C. Create two subnets, one for Guest wireless traffic and another one for Production traffic.
D. Have Guest wireless and Production traffic in the same segment but different VLANs.

Correct Answer: A

Q7 – New

Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers
are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.

Users at multiple branches complain that a highly performant SQL Database cluster residing at the New York Data Center is not responding to database queries or inserts as expected. It is affecting the order management site. A network administrator investigates and finds that traffic from the branches is going through Seattle to reach the SQL Cluster in New York. The design for this SD-WAN network does not call for routing security.

The SQL Cluster is reachable through either Data Center, but for performance reasons, must flow through the New York DC. The network administrator has verified that the routes are not present in the OFC and the BGP neighborship is down in Network Services.

Refer to the Exhibit(s).
Exhibit.

What should the administrator verify?

A. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in New York.
B. The BGP Authentication matches on both sides.
C. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in Seattle.
D. Backhauling through Seattle DC is disabled.

Correct Answer: D

Q8 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present- The network administrator is informed (that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Which metrics can a network administrator verify in the QoE screen to determine the overall health of Underlay and Overlay?

A. Jitter Packet Loss, Speed.
B. Jitter, Packet Loss, Latency.
C. Jitter, Speed, Latency.
D. Packet Loss, Latency, Speed.

Correct Answer: B

Q9 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

A network administrator is investigating connectivity issues between Chicago and San Jose. The administrator browses the Overlay Flow Control (OFC) window and notices that the screen is blank with no routes shown in the OFC. What is a possible reason for this?

A. Cloud VPN for the Edges / Profiles is not enabled.
B. There is an invalid MTU configuration in Chicago.
C. OSPF or BGP is not enabled.
D. The routing table on the Edges has not been initialized.

Correct Answer: A

Q10 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected lo.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users are complaining that web pages to certain websites are very slow to load and at times unresponsive. The network administrator has verified that the traffic is going correctly out of the underlay.
What should the administrator check next?

A. Verify if Path-MTU Discovery is disabled.
B. Verify if there is latency, loss, or jitter on the underlay.
C. Verify the Business Policy flows are matching.
D. Verify if routes to Gateways are present in the Overlay Flow Control (OFC).

Correct Answer: A

Q11 – New

Scenario 1:
A network administrator is tasked with enabling SD-WAN at three branch locations. Topology has been provided for reference. For each site, the administrator is having issues bringing edges online, as another administrator has gone ahead and created a configuration ahead of time. The organization has several branch sites.

One is an Internet-only site and two are Hybrid locations with both internet and MPLS. The last location is MPLS only. There are hub data center locations in this environment as well. Please refer to the topology.
Exhibit.

The network administrator determines the issue preventing the Dallas Branch from coming online.
Refer to the Exhibit(s). What must the administrator do for the Edge to communicate with the Orchestrator and other branches?

A. Reverse the WAN Overlay configurations
B. Update the Orchestrator to the latest version as it enables “Auto WAN Swapping”
C. Delete the User-Defined WAN Overlays as the Orchestrator will discover these automatically on MPLS and Internet
D. Create a User-defined WAN Overlay to bond both interfaces

Correct Answer: A

Q12 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already configured Business Policies based on these requirements. What is the sequence of parameters that the administrator can check to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings.
B. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss).
C. Under Monitor, check the Routing tab.
D. Review Business Policies configuration and match them against the business requirements.

Correct Answer: BD

Q13 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing; internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring several branches to prefer a single prefix, 10.20.11.0/24, from the Seattle hub over the New York hub for various application performance reasons. What are two effective ways the administrator can accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the AS Path in New York to be shorter for 10.20.11.0/24.
B. In the hub preferred order in the profile, set the Seattle hub to be preferred over New York.
C. Modify the AS Path in New York to be longer for 10.20.11.0/24.
D. In the OFC 10.20.11.0/24, modify the preferred exit point to Seattle and pin the route.

Correct Answer: BD

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The 5V0-23.20 exam is a 62-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. The exam time is 125 minutes.

Product: VMware vSphere with Tanzu
Associated Certification: VMware Certified Specialist – vSphere with Tanzu 2022

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Q1 – New

How do Tanzu Kubemetes clusters communicate with Storage Policy Based Management to request
PersistentVolumes?

A. Through a proxy VM
B. Directly with vCenter Server and the underlying ESXi hosts
C. Through the Supervisor Cluster
D. Directlywith the vCenter Server

Correct Answer: A

Q2 – New

A developer is connecting to a Tanzu Kubernetes Cluster using the kubectl sphere login command
Which information must be specified, in addition to both the name of the cluster and the Supervisor Cluster Control Wane IP?

A. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the SSO Username
B. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the Token D for the SSO credentials
C. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the Token ID for the SSO credentials
D. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the SSO Username

Correct Answer: B

Q3 – New

The network topology for a Supervisor Cluster deployed using the vSphere networking stack, and an HAProxy load balancer is being planned. In addition to the control plane management IP range and services P range, how many nonoverlapping P address ranges are needed?

A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

Which value must be increased or decreased to horizontally scale a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster?

A. Namespaces
B. etc instance
C. Worker node count
D. ReplicaSets

Correct Answer: C

Q5 – New

On which cluster can a Supervisor Namespace be created?
A. A Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Integrated cluster
B. A vSphere 7 clusters enabled with Workload Management
C. A Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
D. A vSphere 6.7 clusters enabled with Workload Management

Correct Answer: C

Q6 – New

A company needs to provide global visibility and consistent policy management across multiple Tanzu Kubernetes Clusters, namespaces, and clouds Which VMware solution will meet these requirements\’?

A. vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster
B. vCenter Server
C. Tanzu Mission Control
D. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service

Correct Answer: A

Q7 – New

The application development team is pushing a Kubernetes application into production. It consists of an application server and a database. The team wants to ensure that only the production application server can access the production database.

Can the development team meet this requirement using Kubernetes Network Policy?

A. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a Network Policy that only allows pods on the same network segment
to talk to each other.
B. Yes. by logging in to NSX Manager and creating firewall rules to only allow the production application server pod to talk to the database
C. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a policy that disables pod-to-pod communication in the Namespace
D. No, Kubernetes Network Policy does not support this action.

Correct Answer: A

Q8 – New

Which command should be used by a developer to log in to the vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster?
A. vmwarectl login –server- –vsphere-username
B. kubectl vsphere login –server= –vsphereusername
C. vmwarectl vsphere login –server– –vsphereusername
D. kubectl login –server= –vsphere-username

Correct Answer: B

Q9 – New

Which requirement is valid for vSphere with Tanzu on the vSphere Distributed Switch Network?

A. Workload networks that are routable to the primary workload network
B. HAProxy Virtual Server IP range that is allocated to NSX-T edge router external interface
C. Network Interface Cards with Single Root IO Visualization Support (SR-IOV)
D. HAProxy Frontend interface that has a common subnet and bridged interface to workload networks

Correct Answer: B

Q10 – New

Which two considerations need to be made when deciding on a virtual machine class type during the process of creating a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two )

A. Whether the resources provided by the virtual machine class type should be reserved on the host
B. The configuration parameters that need to be edited in the cluster
C. The amount of CPU. memory, and storage the virtual machine should have
D. Connectivity between the Tanzu Kubernetes cluster and the Subscribed Content Library
E. The storage classes which need to be made available to the cluster

Correct Answer: CD

Q11 – New

Which step in vSphere with Tanzu enablement using the vSphere Distributed Switch process is done prior to using the Workload Management Enablement Wizard?

A. Deploy the load balancer
B. Choose the Kubernetes content library that should be used in the Supervisor Cluster
C. Define the Primary workload network P range
D. Define the Management network interfaces for the Supervisor Cluster

Correct Answer: D

Q12 – New

Which two capabilities are associated with vSphere Pod? (Choose two.)

A. Compatibility with vSphere vMotion
B. Compatibility with vSphere performance charts
C. Compatibility with NSX-V Datacenter
D. Compatibility with vSphere HA and DRS
E. Compatibility with Windows and Linux kernels

Correct Answer: CD

Q13 – New

How does Kubernetes implement the vSphere storage policy in vSphere with Tanzi?

A. Storage class
B. Paravirtual CSl
C. Static Persistent Volume
D. Persistent Volume

Correct Answer: D

……

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2V0-51.21 Exam | Professional VMware Horizon 8. X

Product: Horizon 8. x

Associated Certification: VCP-DTM 2022

Question types: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Hot Area

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Q1 – New

Refer to the exhibit.

The error in the exhibit was received while an administrator was trying to connect to a Horizon ADSI database from a Connection Server. What change does the administrator need to make in the UI to connect to the ADSI database?

A. Change the Computer field to localhost: 369
B. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vdi, dc-int, dc-vmware
C. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vmware,dc-vdi, dc-int
D. Change the Computer field to localhost:3268

Correct Answer: B

Q2 – New

After a disaster recovery failure which left the data center unavailable, a company\’s Horizon Administrator team has dedicated to increase the capacity of their Horizon desktop pools and their resiliency. Which two deployment options would support the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Horizon Desktop deployed as a Service on vCloud Air.
B. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on AWS.
C. Horizon deployed m the same Local Data Center.
D. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on VMware.
E. Horizon deployed in a Remote Data Center

Correct Answer: AC

Q3 -New

An administrator has added a support PCI graphics accelerator to a virtual machine configuration. Which the administrator tries to power on the virtual machine, an error is displayed and the virtual machine remains powered off.

Which of the following virtual machine configuration settings needs to be applied to enable the virtual machine to power on?

A. Reserve all guest memory.
B. Set Memory Shares to High
C. Enable Video Card 3D Graphics.
D. Disable CPU Hot Plug.

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

An administrator needs to change the message a user receives when using an old Horizon client.
Where can this be accomplished?

A. Settings > Global Settings > Client Restriction Settings
B. Client settings in VMware Dynamic Environment Manager
C. Client Restrictions under Desktop Pool settings
D. Settings > Global Policies > Client Restriction Settings

Correct Answer: D

Q5 – New

Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?

A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine.
B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation.
C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine.
D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Dynamic-Environment-Manager/2106/dynamic-environmentmanager2106-install-config.pdf

Q6 – New

What must be implemented on all Connection Servers for logon segment information to be populated in the Horizon Helpdesk Tool?

A. Vdmadmin -1timingProfiler -Enable
B. Vdmadmin -A -d dtpool2 -m machine1 -getstatus
C. Blast Secure Gateway
D. Horizon Helpdesk Agent

Correct Answer: B

Q7 – New

An administrator is leveraging PCoIP protocol in their Horizon environment and wants to distribute clients to end users that have the smallest footprint possible with no local operating system. Which client type satisfies these requirements?

A. Teradici based zero clients
B. Windows embedded thin client
C. MacOS Client
D. Android based thin client

Correct Answer: A

Q8 – New

An administrator wants to leverage Horizon Cloud Service to manage their Horizon on-premises deployment. What does the administrator need to install to achieve this?

A. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector using DHCP
B. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway with a static IP
C. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway using DHCP.
D. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector with a static IP.

Correct Answer: D

Q9 – New

Which two capabilities are supported by VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Application Profiler? (Choose two.)

A. It allows individual user personalization of applications.
B. It allows creation of computer templates.
C. It allows third-party user personalization of applications.
D. It allows creation of application-specific predefined settings.
E. It analyzes registry and file system location settings for an application.

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Dynamic-Environment-Manager/2106/com.vmware.dynamic.environment.manager-appprofiler/GUID-60E0D874-BC1E-4FF8-B86E-3A0594D0D42D.html#:~:text=Application%20Profiler%20is
%20a%20standalone,its%20file%20and%20registry%20configuration

Q10 – New

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the TLS Configuration steps on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:

Q11 – New

An administrator used the Horizon Console to specify the Active Directory account for joining instant-clone VMs to the Active Directory domain. What two permissions must be granted to the Active Directory account to perform this task? (Choose two.)

A. Grant Inventory Administrator role.
B. Write properties in the domain or in the organization units.
C. Create and delete computer objects.
D. Grant the Global Domain Administrator role.
E. Grant the Horizon Domain Admin role.

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/vmware-horizon-7-configuration/

Q12 – New

A new Horizon environment has gone into production. External sessions are being disconnected after a random period of time. The following information has been documented by the administrator:

1. Internal and external users are able to connect to their desktops.
2. External sessions connect via a Unified Access Gateway.
3. Users are immediately able to reconnect but will be disconnected again in a few minutes.
4. Internal sessions, connected directly to the desktops, are not impacted.
5. While the session remains connected, all expected functionality works properly. What could be a cause of this issue?

A. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.
B. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Connection Servers.
C. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Connection Servers.
D. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.

Correct Answer: C

Q13 – New

After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database: Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine

Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted.
B. Desktops can only be customized after the end user logs into the virtual machine.
C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory.
D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification.
E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.13/horizon-virtual-desktops/GUID-CF25204FF88D-4296-9FDB-AEB550E24266.html

…..

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Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization 1V0-21.20 Real Questions and Answers Share 1-13

NEW QUESTION 1

Which event type indicates a Fatal problem has occurred in the system, and the process or operation will be terminated?

A. Information
B. Audit
C. Error
D. Warning

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

A VMware administrator monitoring a project has been advised to run the compute health check using the vSphere 7 clients to monitor the ESXi host’s health. How should the administrator approach this task?

A. Menu > Administrator > Deployment > System Configuration
B. Host > Monitor > Skyline Health > Expand Online Health Connectivity > Compute Health Checks > Reset
C. Host > Monitor > Events
D. Host > Monitor > Issues and Alarms

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

An operator must deploy three virtual machines from a template named Win10-Template, and all three VMs must be configured with unique computer names. Which action must the operator take to achieve this goal?

A. Clone Win10-Template three times, and then change the computer name in each clone.
B. Export Win10-Template to the local filesystem, and then change the computer name.
C. Use a Windows 10 customization specification when deploying the virtual machines.
D. Create the virtual machines using the New Virtual Machine wizard.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

This feature allows an administrator to implement master copies of virtual machines to create ready-for-use virtual machines.

A. Templates
B. Resource Pools
C. Snapshots
D. Custom Attributes

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

Which feature must be enabled to use vSphere Fault Tolerance?

A. vSphere DRS
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSAN

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Which two improvements to the management of a VM are gained when VMware Tools are used? (Choose two.)

A. Performs a clone of the VM
B. Adds VM alarms to the inventory
C. Makes a graceful shutdown of the VM possible
D. Allows a snapshot before the guest OS is upgraded
E. Synchronizes time between the guest and the host

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 7

Which vSphere component provides continuous availability for mission-critical virtual machines so users experience no loss of data and no interruption in service during a host failure?

A. vSphere Fault Tolerance
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSphere vmotion

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit:

Which statement Is true about the access privileges of User 2?

A. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to Prod04-3.
B. User 2 has no access to all objects in the Production folder and Test and Dev folder.
C. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to all VMs In the Production folder.
D. User 2 has access to all objects in the Production folder and no access to Dev01, Dev02, and Dev03.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

An administrator has noticed an increase in network latency when powered-off virtual machines are migrated. Which VMkernel adapter can the administrator use to reduce this latency?

A. vSAN
B. vSphere Replication
C. Provisioning
D. vMotion

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

What is the default encrypted vSphere vMotion state for virtual machines that are not encrypted?

A. Disabled
B. Required
C. Opportunistic
D. Enabled

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

Which hypervisor is a type-1 hypervisor?

A. Oracle VM VirtualBox
B. VMware ESXi
C. VMware Fusion
D. VMware Workstation

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

A vSphere administrator sees the alarm: vSphere HA virtual machine failed to failover This occurred for virtual machines (VMs) in a cluster with vSphere High Availability (HA) enabled. The guest operating system on the VMs did not report a power failure. What is a possible cause of this event?

A. The host is still running but has disconnected from the network.
B. The VMs cloning operations did not complete.
C. A reboot of the vCenter Server impacted vSphere HA.
D. The VMs encountered an error during migration using vSphere vMotion.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

Which DRS score indicates that the virtual machine (VM) is experiencing severe resource contention?

A. 50%
B. 95%
C. 70%
D. 15%

Correct Answer: D

……

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Below are the free updated VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist 5V0-11.21 exam questions:

1. A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.
B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A

2. Which VMware solution provides customers with the ability to query and graphically display activities for audits, events and custom real-time alerts for the VMware NSX-T firewall running in VMware Cloud on AWS?

A. VMware vRealize Network Insight Cloud
B. VMware vRealize Log Insight Cloud
C. VMware vRealize Operations Cloud
D. CloudHealth by VMware

Correct Answer: C

3. A virtual machine in VMware Cloud on AWS sends a packet to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Linux instance in the associated AWS account. Which device is the next hop for the packet?

A. Edge Virtual Machine
B. AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) on the VMware ESXI host
C. Tier-0 (T0) Router
D. Tier-1 (T1) Router

Correct Answer: B

4. To assist with seasonal workload demands over the next two months, a group of interns are hired to assist with day 2 virtual machine operations in VMware Cloud on AWS. Which method should be used for creating these temporary user accounts and assigning the appropriate permissions to them?

A. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vmc.local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts.

B. Log into on-premises VMware vCenter. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts. Ensure that Hybrid Linked Mode is enabled to allow account propagation to the VMware Cloud on AWS SSO domain.

C. Create the required user accounts within Active Directory and assign them to the required group. With Hybrid Linked Mode enabled, assign the correct role in VMware Cloud on AWS to the Active Directory group that contains the user accounts.

D. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts in Active Directory.

Correct Answer: B

5. What is a key functionality of the vRealize Automation Cloud Service Broker?

A. Provides a common catalog for easy consumption on VMware Cloud.
B. Manages blueprints as a code in a YAML format.
C. Automates the DevOps release lifecycle.
D. Creates and deploys virtual machines, applications, and services to multiple clouds.

Correct Answer: A

6. A customer is deploying a new solution based on VMware Cloud on AWS. The customer is already running several native AWS services and would like the new workloads deployed into VMware Cloud on AWS to consume these services without incurring additional traffic charges. During the initial deployment of the VMware Cloud on AWS softwaredefined data center (SDDC), which option must the customer choose to meet the requirement?

A. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same region as the native AWSservices to be consumed.
B. Any availability zone within the same AWS region can be selected. After the SDDC deployment, deploy a services gateway and connect it to the target availability zone.
C. Choose a subnet from the connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed.
D. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed.

Correct Answer: A

7. What are three benefits of using VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose three.)

A. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their VMware Cloud on AWS resources with
familiar VMware tools.
B. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their native AWS resources with familiar VMware tools.
C. VMware Cloud on AWS supports optimized virtual AWS Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances.
D. Native VMware workloads can be migrated back and forth between on-premises VMware vSphere environments and VMware Cloud on AWS.
E. With VMware Cloud on AWS, VMware and AWS administrators will manage, maintain and update all virtual machines.
F. Native AWS services can be consumed over the global AWS backbone with high bandwidth and low latency.

Correct Answer: ACE

8. An environment is running a cluster with six i3.metal hosts in the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC). If one host fails, what happens after a new host is automatically added to the cluster?

A. The SDDC and NVMe drives backing VMware vSAN capacity are unmounted from the failed host and attached to the new host. There is no VMware vSAN rebuild required.
B. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 0.
C. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 1.
D. A notification is received from VMware Support to start the VMware vSAN rebuild. Performance might be degraded during rebuild.

Correct Answer: C

9. What are three valid migration modes in VMware HCX? (Choose three.)

A. Planned Failover
B. Hybrid Linked Mode
C. Bulk Migration
D. Replication Assisted vMotion (RAV)
E. HCX vMotion
F. Cross vCenter vMotion

Correct Answer: CDE

10. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator builds a software-defined data center (SDDC) group to enable connectivity to native Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs). Which connectivity option is needed to enable connectivity across environments?

A. Tier-0 (T0) Router
B. Transit Gateway
C. Virtual Private Network
D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.

Correct Answer: A

11. An administrator deploys a VMware Cloud on AWS environment and configures an IPsec virtual private network (VPN) tunnel to their data center. Hybrid Linked Mode connectivity, however, does NOT appear to be working. Before contacting VMware Support, what could the administrator do to narrow down the possible issue?

A. Fill in the relevant IP information for the on-premises infrastructure and run the desired troubleshooting connectivity test.
B. Download and review the Tier-0 (TO) gateway firewall logs.
C. Configure a packet capture device in the on-premises data center to capture packets from the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) to determine which packets are being dropped.
D. Configure a packet capture appliance on a local segment within VMware Cloud on AWS to capture and analyze traffic across a specific NSX-T gateway interface.

Correct Answer: A

12. A company is operating a main data center and two smaller data centers in branch offices. The main data center is being replicated to a disaster recovery site at a co-located data center with a recovery point objective (RPO) of five minutes and a recovery time objective (RTO) of two hours. The branch data centers are shipping backup tapes to the main data center on a weekly basis.

What would be a cost-efficient VMware solution that would improve RTO and RPO for the branch office data centers while maintaining the recovery time for the main data center?

A. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Create a shared content librand let the branch offices subscribe to it. Export the virtual machines in the branch offices to OVF files on the shared content library on a weekly basis.

B. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Migrate the disaster recovery solution from the co-located data center to the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC. Create regular copies of the virtual machines at the branch offices and use AWS Snowball to directly ship the copies to an AWS data center and store them on AWS S3 buckets.

C. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Activate VMware Site Recovery. Replace the co-located disaster recovery (DR) site for the main data center with VMware Site Recovery. For the branch offices, implement VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).

D. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Replace the co-located site for the main data center and the backup tape shipping for the branch offices with VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).

Correct Answer: A

13. Which three statements are true about the Elastic DRS Optimize for Rapid Scale-Out policy? (Choose three.)

A. Hosts are added incrementally when needed for storage.
B. Hosts will NOT be removed automatically when they are no longer needed.
C. Multiple hosts are added at a time when needed for memory or CPU.
D. After a storage scale-out event is triggered, single hosts are added every 30 minutes.
E. High threshold for storage, like the other policies, is set at 75%.
F. To resolve constraints related to CPU and memory, hosts are added two at a time.

Correct Answer: ACF

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1. Which two statements describe Spring JdbcTemplate? (Choose two.)

A. All JdbcTemplate methods throw SQLException which you are required to handle.
B. The JdbcTemplate provides the ability to work with result sets.
C. The JdbcTemplate can only perform updates but not insert them into the database.
D. The JdbcTemplate provides methods for query execution.
E. The JdbcTemplate generates SQL statements.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-jdbctemplate-in-list

2. What are the two reasons Spring is used to build a Java application? (Choose two.)

A. Spring automates a Java application build.
B. Spring provides a Dependency Injection container.
C. Spring automates the deployment of Java applications to all of the major cloud providers.
D. Spring provides comprehensive Java IDE support.
E. Spring provides abstractions over infrastructure such as persistence and messaging.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://spring.io/why-spring

3. Which three types can be used as @Controller method arguments? (Choose three.)

A. Locale
B. Principal
C. Language
D. Session
E. Request
F. HttpSession

Correct Answer: AEF

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/3.0.0.M4/spring-framework-reference/html/ ch15s03.html

4. Which two statements are true about @Controller annotated classes? (Choose two.)

A. The @Controller annotated classes can only render views.
B. The classes are eligible for handling requests in Spring MVC.
C. The classes must be annotated together with @EnableMvcMappings to be discovered via component scanning.
D. @Controller is interchangeable with @RestController with no extra code changes for the methods inside the class.
E. The @Controller annotation is a stereotype annotation like @Component.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-mvc-handler-adapters https://www.dineshonjava.com/stereotypeannotations-in-spring/

5. Refer to the exhibit.

Which option is a valid way to retrieve the account id? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add @PathVariable(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.
B. Add @PathVariable long accounted argument to the update() handler method.
C. Add @RequestParam long accounted argument to the update() handler method.
D. Add @RequestParam(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/4.3.12.RELEASE/spring-framework-reference/htmlsingle/

6. Which two statements are correct regarding the Actuator info endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. It provides configuration options through which only an authenticated user can display application information.
B. It is not enabled by default.
C. It can be used to display arbitrary application information.
D. It can be used to change a property value on a running application.
E. Typically it is used to display build or source control information.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/current/reference/html/actuator.html

7. Which two statements about pointcut expressions are true? (Choose two.)

A. A pointcut expression cannot specify the type of parameters.
B. A pointcut expression will throw an exception if no methods are matched.
C. A pointcut expression cannot have a wildcard for a method name.
D. A pointcut expression can include operators such as the following: andand (and), || (or),! (not).
E. A pointcut expression can be used to select join points that have been annotated with a specific annotation.

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-aop-pointcut-tutorial

8. Which two statements are true concerning the BeanPostProcessor extension point? (Choose two.)

A. BeanPostProcessors are called before the dependencies have been injected.
B. Custom BeanPostProcessors can be implemented for Spring applications.
C. BeanPostProcessors are called before the BeanFactoryPostProcessors.
D. BeanPostProcessors are called during the initialization phase of a bean life cycle.
E. BeanPostProcessors cannot be ordered in a Spring Boot application.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/3.0.0.M3/reference/html/ch04s07.html

9. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface.
B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC.
C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA.
D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean.
Correct Answer: C

10. Refer to the exhibit.

The above code shows a conditional @Bean method for the creation of a JdbcTemplate bean.
Which two statements correctly describe the code behavior? (Choose two.)

A. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnBean (DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.
B. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnMissingBean
(DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.
C. The @Bean annotation should be removed.
D. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when the DataSource class is in the classpath but there is no DataSource bean.
E. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when a bean named dataSource has already been created.

Correct Answer: AD

11. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test.
B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default.
C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing.
D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext.
E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with
@SpringBootConfiguration in the application.

Correct Answer: CD

12. Which two statements are true regarding Spring and Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. EasyMock is supported out of the box.
B. @SpringBootTest or @SpringJUnitConfig can be used for creating an ApplicationContext.
C. Mockito spy is not supported in Spring Boot testing by default.
D. The spring-test dependency provides annotations such as @Mock and @MockBean.
E. Integration and slice testing are both supported.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/2.1.5.RELEASE/reference/html/boot-featurestesting.html

13. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Security? (Choose two.)

A. Access control can be configured at the method level.
B. A special Java Authentication and Authorization Service (JAAS) policy file need to be configured.
C. Authentication data can be accessed using a variety of different mechanisms, including databases and LDAP.
D. In the authorization configuration, the usage of permit () allows bypassing Spring security completely.
E. It provides a strict implementation of the Java EE Security specification.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/security-none-filters-none-access-permitAll

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