Stand Out With The New ECCouncil 312-50v12 Exam Dumps Exam Questions

New ECCouncil 312-50v12 Exam Dumps

Want to excel in the ECCouncil (CEHv12) 312-50v12 exam? You need to use the new ECCouncil 312-50v12 exam dumps exam questions right now.

By downloading the new 312-50v12 exam dumps (PDF or VCE) from Pass4itSure (Dec 17, 2023) https://www.pass4itsure.com/312-50v12.html, you can quickly upgrade your CEHv12 exam preparation and increase your chances of coming out on top.

Here, some new ECCouncil 312-50v12 dumps exam questions (Free) have been prepared for you:

Come from: Pass4itSure
Total number of questions: 15/528
More ECCouncil exam questions…

Question 1:

Based on the below log, which of the following sentences is true?

Mar 1, 2016, 7:33:28 AM 10.240.250.23 – 54373 10.249.253.15 – 22 tcp_ip

A. Application is FTP 10.240.250.23 is the client and 10.249.253.15 is the server.

B. Application is SSH 10.240.250.23 is the server and 10.249.253.15 is the client.

C. SSH communications are encrypted; it\’s impossible to know who is the client or the server.

D. Application is SSH and 10.240.250.23 is the client and 10.249.253.15 is the server.

Correct Answer: D

Mar 1, 2016, 7:33:28 AM 10.240.250.23 – 54373 10.249.253.15 – 22 tcp_ip Let\’s just disassemble this entry. Mar 1, 2016, 7:33:28 AM – time of the request

10.240.250.23 – 54373 – client\’s IP and port

10.249.253.15 – server IP – 22 – SSH port

Question 2:

While performing an Nmap scan against a host, Paola determines the existence of a firewall. In an attempt to determine whether the firewall is stateful or stateless, which of the following options would be best to use?

A. -sA

B. -sX

C. -sT

D. -sF

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Gavin owns a white-hat firm and is performing a website security audit for one of his clients. He begins by running a scan which looks for common misconfigurations and outdated software versions. Which of the following tools is he most likely using?

A. Nikto

B. Nmap

C. Metasploit

D. Armitage

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Samuel a security administrator, is assessing the configuration of a web server. He noticed that the server permits SSLv2 connections, and the same private key certificate is used on a different server that allows SSLv2 connections. This vulnerability makes the web server vulnerable to attacks as the SSLv2 server can leak key information.

Which of the following attacks can be performed by exploiting the above vulnerability?

A. DROWN attack

B. Padding oracle attack

C. Side-channel attack

D. DUHK attack

Correct Answer: A

DROWN is a serious vulnerability that affects HTTPS and other services that deem SSL and TLS, some of the essential cryptographic protocols for net security. These protocols allow everyone on the net to browse the net, use email, look on-

line, and send instant messages while no third-parties can browse the communication. DROWN allows attackers to break the encryption and read or steal sensitive communications, as well as passwords, credit card numbers, trade

secrets, or financial data. At the time of public disclosure in March 2016, our measurements indicated that two-thirds of all HTTPS servers were vulnerable to the attack. fortuitously, the vulnerability is much less prevalent currently. As of 2019,

SSL Labs estimates that only 2% of HTTPS servers are vulnerable.

What will the attackers gain? Any communication between users and the server. This typically includes, however isn’t limited to, usernames and passwords, credit card numbers, emails, instant messages, and sensitive documents. under

some common scenarios, an attacker can also impersonate a secure website and intercept or change the content the user sees.

Who is vulnerable? Websites, mail servers, and other TLS-dependent services are in danger from the DROWN attack. At the time of public disclosure, many popular sites were affected. we used Internet-wide scanning to determine how many sites are

vulnerable:

new 312-50v12 dumps exam questions 4

SSLv2 Operators of vulnerable servers have to take action. there\’s nothing practical that browsers or end-users will do on their own to protect against this attack. Is my site vulnerable? Modern servers and shoppers use the TLS encryption protocol. However, because of misconfigurations, several servers also still support SSLv2, a 1990s-era precursor to TLS.

This support did not matter in practice, since no up-to-date clients use SSLv2. Therefore, even though SSLv2 is thought to be badly insecure, until now, simply supporting SSLv2 wasn’t thought of as a security problem, as clients never used it. DROWN shows that merely supporting SSLv2 may be a threat to fashionable servers and clients.

It modern associate degree attacker to modern fashionable TLS connections between up-to-date clients and servers by sending probes to a server that supports SSLv2 and uses the same private key.

new 312-50v12 dumps exam questions 4-2

SSLv2

It allows SSLv2 connections. This is surprisingly common, due to misconfiguration and inappropriate default settings.

Its private key is used on any other server that allows SSLv2 connections, even for another protocol. Many companies reuse the same certificate and key on their web and email servers, for instance. In this case, if the email server supports

SSLv2 and the web server do not, an attacker can take advantage of the email server to break TLS connections to the web server.

A server is vulnerable to DROWN if:

new 312-50v12 dumps exam questions 4-3

SSLv2 How do I protect my server? To protect against DROWN, server operators need to ensure that their private keys software is used anyplace with server computer code that enables SSLv2 connections. This includes net servers, SMTP servers, IMAP and POP servers, and the other software that supports SSL/TLS. Disabling SSLv2 is difficult and depends on the particular server software. we offer instructions here for many common products: OpenSSL: OpenSSL may be a science library employed in several server merchandises.

For users of OpenSSL, the simplest and recommended solution is to upgrade to a recent OpenSSL version. OpenSSL 1.0.2 users ought to upgrade to 1.0.2g. OpenSSL 1.0.1 users ought to upgrade to one.0.1s. Users of older OpenSSL versions ought to upgrade to either one of these versions. (Updated March thirteenth, 16:00 UTC) Microsoft IIS (Windows Server): Support for SSLv2 on the server aspect is enabled by default only on the OS versions that correspond to IIS 7.0 and IIS seven.5, particularly Windows Scene, Windows Server 2008, Windows seven, and Windows Server 2008R2.

This support is disabled within the appropriate SSLv2 subkey for `Server\’, as outlined in KB245030. Although users haven’t taken the steps to disable SSLv2, the export-grade and 56-bit ciphers that make DROWN possible don’t seem to be supported by default.

Network Security Services (NSS): NSS may be a common science library designed for several server merchandise. NSS version three.13 (released back in 2012) and higher than ought to have SSLv2 disabled by default. (A small variety of users might have enabled SSLv2 manually and can take steps to disable it.)

Users of older versions ought to upgrade to a more modern version. we tend to still advocate checking whether or not your non-public secret is exposed elsewhere Other affected software and in-operation systems: Instructions and data for Apache, Postfix, Nginx, Debian, Red Hat Browsers, and other consumers: practical nothing practical that net browsers or different client computer code will do to stop DROWN. only server operators are ready to take action to guard against the attack.

Question 5:

in this form of encryption algorithm, every Individual block contains 64-bit data, and three keys are used, where each key consists of 56 bits. Which is this encryption algorithm?

A. IDEA

B. Triple Data Encryption Standard

C. MDS encryption algorithm

D. AES

Correct Answer: B

Triple DES is another mode of DES operation. It takes three 64-bit keys, for an overall key length of 192 bits. In Stealth, you merely type within the entire 192-bit (24-character) key instead of entering each of the three keys individually. The Triple-DES DLL then breaks the user-provided key into three subkeys, padding the keys if necessary so that they are each 64-bit long.

The procedure for encryption is strictly equivalent as regular DES, but it \ is repeated 3 times, hence the name Triple DES. The info is encrypted with the primary key, decrypted with the second key, and eventually encrypted again with the third key. Triple DES runs 3 times slower than DES but is far safer if used properly. The procedure for decrypting something is that the same as the procedure for encryption, except it\’s executed in reverse.

Like DES, data is encrypted and decrypted in 64-bit chunks. Although the input key for DES is 64 bits long, the particular key employed by DES is merely 56 bits long. The smallest amount of significant (right-most) bit in each byte may be parity and will be set so that there is always an odd number of 1s in every byte. These parity bits are ignored, so only the seven most vital bits of every byte are used, leading to a key length of 56 bits. this suggests that the effective key strength for Triple DES is really 168 bits because each of the three keys contains 8 parity bits that aren’t used during the encryption process.

Triple DES ModesTriple ECB (Electronic Code Book)? This variant of Triple DES works precisely the same way because the ECB mode of DES? is often the foremost commonly used mode of operation. Triple CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)? This method is similar to the quality DES CBC mode.?like Triple ECB, the effective key length is 168 bits, and keys are utilized equivalently, as described above, but the chaining features of CBC mode also are employed.?the primary 64-bit key acts because the Initialization Vector to DES.?

Triple ECB is then executed for one 64-bit block of plaintext.?The resulting ciphertext is then XORed with subsequent plaintext block to be encrypted, and therefore the procedure is repeated.?This method adds a layer of security to Triple DES and is therefore safer than Triple ECB, although it \ is not used as widely as Triple ECB.

Question 6:

BitLocker encryption has been implemented for all the Windows-based computers in an organization. You are concerned that someone might lose their cryptographic key. Therefore, a mechanism was implemented to recover the keys from Active Directory. What is this mechanism called in cryptography?

A. Key Archival

B. Key escrow.

C. Certificate rollover

D. Key renewal

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Given below are the different steps involved in the vulnerability-management life cycle.

1) Remediation 2) Identify assets and create a baseline 3) Verification 4) Monitor 5) Vulnerability scan 6) Risk assessment

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in vulnerability management.

A. 2–>5–>6–>1–>3–>4

B. 2–>1–>5–>6–>4–>3

C. 2–>4–>5–>3–>6–> 1

D. 1–>2–>3–>4–>5–>6

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Morris, a professional hacker, performed a vulnerability scan on a target organization by sniffing the traffic on the network to identify the active systems, network services, applications, and vulnerabilities. He also obtained the list of the users who are currently accessing the network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Morris performed on the target organization?

A. internal assessment

B. Passive assessment

C. External assessment

D. Credentialed assessment

Correct Answer: B

Passive Assessment Passive assessments sniff the traffic present on the network to identify the active systems, network services, applications, and vulnerabilities. Passive assessments also provide a list of the users who are currently accessing the network.

Question 9:

Shellshock allowed an unauthorized user to gain access to a server. It affected many Internet-facing services, which OS did it not directly affect?

A. Linux

B. Unix

C. OS X

D. Windows

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Fingerprinting an Operating System helps a cracker because:

A. It defines exactly what software you have installed

B. It opens a security-delayed window based on the port being scanned

C. It doesn\’t depend on the patches that have been applied to fix existing security holes

D. It informs the cracker of which vulnerabilities he may be able to exploit on your system

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Wilson, a professional hacker, targets an organization for financial benefit and plans to compromise its systems by sending malicious emails. For this purpose, he uses a tool to track the emails of the target and extracts information such as sender identities, mall servers, sender IP addresses, and sender locations from different public sources. He also checks if an email address was leaked using the haveibeenpwned.com API. Which of the following tools is used by Wilson in the above scenario?

A. Factiva

B. Netcraft

C. info gap

D. Zoominfo

Correct Answer: C

Infoga may be a tool gathering email account information (ip, hostname, country,…) from completely different public supply (search engines, PGP key servers, and shodan) and checking if email was leaked using haveibeenpwned.com API. is a really simple tool, however very effective for the first stages of a penetration test or just to know the visibility of your company within the net.

Question 12:

When discussing passwords, what is considered a brute force attack?

A. You attempt every single possibility until you exhaust all possible combinations or discover the password

B. You threaten to use the rubber hose on someone unless they reveal their password

C. You load a dictionary of words into your cracking program

D. You create hashes of a large number of words and compare it with the encrypted passwords

E. You wait until the password expires

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

Attacker Steve targeted an organization\’s network to redirect the company\’s web traffic to another malicious website. To achieve this goal, Steve performed DNS cache poisoning by exploiting the vulnerabilities In the DNS server software and modifying the original IP address of the target website to that of a fake website. What is the technique employed by Steve to gather information for identity theft?

A. Pretexting

B. Pharming

C. Wardriving

D. Skimming

Correct Answer: B

A pharming attacker tries to send a website \’s traffic to a faux website controlled by the offender, typically for the aim of collecting sensitive data from victims or putting malware on their machines. Attackers tend to specialize in making lookalike e-commerce and digital banking websites to reap credentials and payment card data.

Though they share similar goals, pharming uses a special technique from phishing. “Pharming attackers are targeted on manipulating a system, instead of tricking people into reaching to a dangerous website,” explains David Emm, principal security man of science at Kaspersky. “When either a phishing or pharming attacker is completed by a criminal, they need a similar driving issue to induce victims onto a corrupt location, however the mechanisms during which this is often undertaken are completely different.”

Question 14:

Which of the following tools is used to detect wireless LANs using the 802.11a/b/g/n WLAN standards on a Linux platform?

A. Kismet

B. Abel

C. Netstumbler

D. Nessus

Correct Answer: A

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kismet_(software)

Kismet is a network detector, packet sniffer, and intrusion detection system for 802.11 wireless LANs. Kismet will work with any wireless card that supports raw monitoring mode and can sniff 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n traffic.

Question 15:

A penetration tester is performing the footprinting process and is reviewing publicly available information about an organization by using the Google search engine.

Which of the following advanced operators would allow the pen tester to restrict the search to the organization\’s web domain?

A. [allinurl:]

B. [location:]

C. [site:]

D. [link:]

Correct Answer: C

Google hacking or Google Dorking https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Google_hacking It is a hacker technique that uses Google Search and other Google applications to find security holes in the configuration and computer code that websites are using. Google Dorking could also be used for OSINT.

Search syntax https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Google_Search Google\’s search engine has its built-in query language. The following list of queries can be run to find a list of files, find information about your competition, track people, get information about SEO backlinks, build email lists, and of course, discover web vulnerabilities.

-[site:] – Search within a specific website

New 312-50v12 exam dumps new ECCouncil 312-50v12 exam

The ECCouncil 312-50v12 exam is also known as the CEH v12 exam. There are no prerequisites for it, and anyone can participate. The exam is remotely proctored, and 70% of the marks are required to pass. The cost of passing the exam to earn the Certified Ethical Hacker certification is between $1,699 and $2,049.

312-50v12 exam key update, you need to keep your eyes peeled:

Content Updates

  • New academic Xi framework: 1. Learning Xi 2. Certification 3. Participation 4. Competition
  • Competition: New challenges every month!
  • 100% compliant with the NICE 2.0 framework
  • Based on a comprehensive industry-wide job task analysis
  • Practical Xi labs
  • Practice Xi range
  • Global C|EH Community Competition
  • Cheat sheet
  • Coverage of the latest malware
  • Lab-intensive courses (each Xi objective is demonstrated through the lab)
  • Hands-on program (50% of training time dedicated to the lab)
  • A lab environment that simulates a real-time environment
  • Covers the latest hacking tools (Windows, macOS, and Linux-based)
  • Covers the latest operating systems and patched test environments
  • Updated versions of tool screenshots, tool list slides, and countermeasure slides

Technology refresh

  • MITRE ATT&CK FRAME
  • Diamond model for intrusion analysis
  • Tips for building persistence
  • Circumvent NAC and endpoint security
  • Fog calculations
  • Edge computing
  • Grid computing

Summary of valid ECCouncil 312-50v12 learning resources:

The official ones have these:

ECCouncil 312-50v12 learning resources

Of course, you can also learn through books:

Certified Ethical Hacker (CEHv12 312-50 Exam Guide: Keep up to date with ethical hacking trends and hone your skills with hands-on activities

Is the ECCouncil 312-50v12 Certified Ethical Hacker certification worth the effort, and money?

Before coming back to this question, I think it’s important to explain that CEH doesn’t just teach theoretical concepts. Although CEH materials are primarily theoretical, they also teach how to use different tools and techniques to execute attacks.

CEH is only valuable if you emphasize it properly and use it in this way. CEH covers almost all areas. So, in my opinion, CEH is a foundational certification that will help anyone who wants to get into any IT security field.

At last:

With Pass4itSure’s new 312-50v12 exam dumps, your exam preparation can be taken to the next level.

Go and download the new 312-50v12 exam dumps (PDF or VCE) at https://www.pass4itsure.com/312-50v12.html now to prepare for your exam.

The latest 5V0-61.22 dumps are the best material for Vmware Certification

5V0-61.22 dumps have been upgraded to the latest version, including 60 latest exam questions and answers, reviewed by the Vmware professional team, and confirmed that it can be used as the preparation material for the “VMware Workspace ONE 21. X Advanced Integration Specialist” certification exam!

Candidates are free to choose PDF or VCE tools to download the latest 5V0-61.22 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-61-22.html because they all contain the latest exam questions and answers!

Share some latest 5V0-61.22 dumps exam questions online for free:

FromNumber of exam questionsOnline DownloadMore
Pass4itsure135V0-61.22 PDFVmware
QUESTION 1:

What is a prerequisite to have Apteligent integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence?

A. VMware Workspace ONE UEM must manage VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence SDK apps as internal apps

B. VMware Workspace ONE Digital Employee Experience Management must be configured

C. VMware Workspace ONE Assist must be deployed on all iOS and Android devices

D. VMware Workspace ONE UEM must have Memcached deployed

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE/services/intelligence-
documentation/GUID-16_intel_apteligent.html#:~:text=To%20display%20Apteligent%20by%20VMware,it%20mu

st%20be%20in%20use

QUESTION 2:

An administrator wants to ensure end-users have a seamless cross-device authentication experience while leveraging Single Sign-On (SSO) and meeting security compliance requirements.

Which VMware solutions can be integrated to achieve this use-case?

A. Workspace ONE Access + Workspace ONE UEM

B. Workspace ONE Intelligence + Workspace ONE Access

C. Workspace ONE Assist + Workspace ONE Intelligence

D. Workspace ONE UEM + Workspace ONE Assist

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Which feature limits the number of changes that can be made to Users and Groups when updating directories in VMware Workspace ONE Access?

A. UEM Security PIN

B. Default Action For Inactive Users

C. Conditional Group Sync

D. Directory Sync Safeguard

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Which statement about VMware Workspace ONE Access with other VMware Workspace ONE product integrations is accurate?

A. VMware Workspace ONE Trust Network includes several security solutions that can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Access, which can provide a consolidated view of all threats reported by the various security solutions

B. VMware Workspace ONE Assist can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Access to provide administrators the ability to seamlessly launch remote management sessions for eligible devices from the VMware Workspace ONE Access console

C. AirWatch Cloud connector can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Access to act as a proxy for users to access internal resources

D. VMware Workspace ONE Access can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence to provide insights on user logins and application launches

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

Which two actions are valid based on identified risk behaviors in VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence Risk Analytics? (Choose two.)

A. Add authentication methods to the user or device with VMware Workspace ONE Access integration

B. Delete all previous risk scoring for the user

C. Move the user to the “very high” risk category

D. Monitor the device or user

E. Add authentication methods to the user or device with VMware Workspace ONE UEM integration

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6:

An organization wants to prevent users from connecting to VMware Horizon desktop or application pools from a Horizon Pod deployed on their internal network unless the user selects the Horizon pool from the Unified Catalog of their Workspace ONE Access shared SaaS tenant.

Which additional setting must the organization administrator configure?

A. Enable the Virtual App Service on all Unified Access Gateway systems that allow users to connect to Horizon pools from the Horizon Pod

B. Configure the Workspace ONE Access tenant as a SAML 2.0 authenticator on all Horizon Connection Servers in the Horizon Pod

C. Enable the VMware Tunnel on all Unified Access Gateway systems that allow users to connect to Horizon pools from the Horizon Pod

D. Set “Delegation of authentication to VMware Horizon (SAML 2.0 Authenticator)” to “Allowed” on all Horizon Connection Servers in the Horizon Pod

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-Access/22.09/ws1-access-resources.pdf

QUESTION 7:

An administrator has enabled and configured Kerberos in the VMware Workspace ONE Access console, but the connection test fails. What is one reason this connection failed to authenticate?

A. The Linux machine on which the Kerberos Auth service is installed was not joined to the domain

B. The certificate was not enabled on the VMware Workspace ONE UEM console

C. The Kerberos Auth service is incorrectly configured on the AirWatch Cloud Connector

D. The certificate is unsigned by a trusted SSL or public or internal certificate authority

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-
Access/20.10/ws1_access_connector_install_2010/GUID-54010E16-18D8-427C-AC06-0829D076A337.html

QUESTION 8:

An administrator has been tasked with building and enabling Secure Email Gateway (SEG) V2 n the Unified Access Gateway (UAG). How should the SSL certificate be added to the UAG?

A. From the UAG console: Import-Certificate-FilePath “C:\CA-PublicKey.Cer”-CertStoreLocation
Cert:\LocalMachine\Root

B. Upload the SSL certificate to the Workspace ONE UEM console, or upload it locally to the UAG when confirming the SEG Edge service on the UAG.

C. From the UAG console: sudo security add-trusted-cert-d-r trust root-k /Library/Keychains/System.keychain ~/new-root-certificate. crt.

D. Upload the SSL certificate to the Workspace ONE UEM console, or add it when the SSL is configuring the SEG Edge service on the UAG.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/Unified-Access-Gateway/2106/uag-deploy-
config/GUID-777AD886-B48D-4D07-8A82-F17F3664EDA0.html

QUESTION 9:

Which two options are valid when managing directories m VMware Workspace ONE Access through the Manage > Directories page? (Choose two.)

A. Enable Password Recovery Assistant

B. Schedule the sync frequency

C. Configure Kerberos Auth Service

D. Change the mapped attributes list

E. Manage built-in identity provider for User Auth

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10:

A resource server in the workflow of an OAuth request refers to a server that hosts the protected resources a client is attempting to access.

Which Workspace ONE services act as the resource server in the OAuth workflow?

A. VMware Unified Access Gateway

B. Workspace ONE Access

C. Workspace ONE Content Delivery Network

D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

An administrator is monitoring the Kerberos Auth service on the VMware Workspace ONE Access Connector Server.

What is the proper health check URL if port 8443 is used for the Kerberos Auth service against a server with hostname = connector? local?

A. https://connector.local:8443/eks/health

B. http://connector.local/eks/health

C. https://connector.local/eks/health

D. http://connector.local:8443/eks/health

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2136987

QUESTION 12:

Which two methods may administrators use to provision users from Okta to VMware Workspace ONE Access? (Choose two.)

A. System for Cross-domain Identity Management (SCIM) API

B. Workspace ONE UEM REST API

C. Active Directory Sync

D. Just-in-time (JIT) Provisioning

E. AirWatch Cloud Connector

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13:

A customer has asked for recommendations around a disaster recovery architecture design for VMware Workspace ONE Access. The customer has an extremely aggressive recovery point objective and recovery time objective.

Which HA/DR design should be recommended, given the supported options?

A. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters, One 3-node cluster Datacenter 1 and the other 3-node cluster m Datacenter 2. The two 3-node clusters are set up in an active/passive configuration.

B. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters. One 3-node cluster Datacenter 1 and the other 3-node cluster m Datacenter 2. The two 3-node clusters are set up in an active/active configuration.

C. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters, Both 3-node clusters are spanned across both datacenters, two nodes in one datacenter and one in the other, respectively. The two 3-node clusters are setup in an active/active configuration.

D. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters, Both 3-node clusters are spanned across both datacenters, two nodes in one datacenter and one in the other, respectively. The two 3-node clusters are setup in an active/passive configuration.

Correct Answer: C


The latest 5V0-61.22 dumps contain 60 latest exam questions and answers, the best preparation material for the “VMware Workspace ONE 21. X Advanced Integration Specialist” exam! Fully in line with the actual scene test conditions!

Candidates only need to download 5V0-61.22 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-61-22.html, use PDF or PDF to help you practice all exam questions, and ensure that you pass the exam 100% successfully.

Download PL-300 Dumps [Latest] | Don’t Be Afraid To Start From Scratch

Pass PL-300

I don’t have a foundation in Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst, but I need to take the PL-300 exam, what should I do? Don’t worry, there are us, don’t be afraid to start from scratch. We provide you with the latest PL-300 dumps to help you.

If you don’t have any foundation and don’t worry, prepare for the PL-300 exam, choose Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps download https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html PDF+VCE format PL-300 exam questions to help you pass the exam easily.

How do I prepare for the Microsoft PL-300 exam from scratch?

One thing to keep in mind first: preparing for the PL-300 exam takes time and effort, and studying and practicing as much as possible will help you succeed in the PL-300 exam.

These are all things you have to do:

  • Learn about the exam syllabus and question types
  • Take a training course
  • Practice questions
  • Hands-on operation
  • Participate in community events

Of course, one must not forget the most important thing: use the latest PL-300 dumps.

So the question follows, where can I get the latest PL-300 dumps?

At Pass4itSure we have put effort into working out the latest PL-300 dumps that you can use with confidence.

If you are worried about the PL-300 exam and have no foundation, try the Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps.

Want to take the free Microsoft PL-300 exam test?

Here are the latest PL-300 exam questions for you online:

Q1:

You have a Microsoft Power Bl report. The size of the PBIX file is 550 MB. The report is accessed by using an App workspace in the shared capacity of powerbi.com.

The report uses an imported dataset that contains one fact table. The fact table contains 12 million rows. The dataset is scheduled to refresh twice a day at 08:00 and 17:00.

The report is a single page that contains 15 custom visuals and 10 default visuals.

Users say that the report is slow to load the visuals when they access and interact with the report

You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of the report.

What should you recommend?

A. Replace the default visuals with AppSource visuals.

B. Change any DAX measures to use iterator functions.

C. Remove unused columns from tables in the data model.

D. Increase the number of times that the dataset is refreshed

Correct Answer: C

DirectQuery: No data is imported or copied into Power BI Desktop. Import: The selected tables and columns are imported into Power BI Desktop. As you create or interact with a visualization, Power BI Desktop uses the imported data.

Benefits of using DirectQuery

There are a few benefits to using DirectQuery:

DirectQuery lets you build visualizations over very large datasets, where it would otherwise be unfeasible to first import all the data with pre-aggregation. Underlying data changes can require a refresh of data.

For some reports, the need to display current data can require large data transfers, making reimporting data unfeasible. By contrast, DirectQuery reports always use current data.

The 1-GB dataset limitation doesn’t apply to DirectQuery.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-use-directquery


Q2:

DRAG DROP

You are building a dataset from a JSON file that contains an array of documents.

You need to import attributes as columns from all the documents in the JSON file. The solution must ensure that data attributes can be used as date hierarchies in Microsoft Power BI reports.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

free PL-300 exam test q2

Correct Answer:

free PL-300 exam test q2-2

1- Convert list to table 2- Expand Column 3- Set Date type

Here is an example: https://youtu.be/B4kzyxnhQfI

The definition of the function which expands columns: https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/powerquery-m/table-expandrecordcolumn


Q3:

You have a collection of reports for the HR department of your company. The datasets use row-level security (RLS). The company has multiple sales regions that each have an HR manager. You need to ensure that the HR managers can interact with the data from their region only. The HR managers must be prevented from changing the layout of the reports.

How should you provide access to the reports for the HR managers?

A. Create a new workspace, copy the datasets and reports, and add the HR managers as members of the workspace.

B. Publish the reports to a different workspace other than the one hosting the datasets.

C. Publish the reports in an app and grant the HR managers access permission.

D. Add the HR managers as members of the existing workspace that hosts the reports and the datasets.

Correct Answer: C

Note: Row-level security (RLS) with Power BI can be used to restrict data access for given users. Filters restrict data access at the row level, and you can define filters within roles. In the Power BI service, members of a workspace have

access to datasets in the workspace.

RLS doesn’t restrict this data access.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls


Q4:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a Power BI report that imports a data table and a sales table from an Azure SQL database data source.

The sales table has the following date foreign keys:

1. Due Date

2. Order Date

3. Delivery Date

You need to support the analysis of sales over time-based on all the date foreign keys.

Solution: From Power Query Editor, you rename the date query as Due Date. You reference the Due Date query twice to make the queries for Order Date and Delivery Date.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Creating two additional tables in Power Query can be a possible solution:

Remove any inactive relationships.

Consider renaming the role-playing dimension-type table to better describe its role. In the example, the Airport table is related to the ArrivalAirport column of the Flight table, so it\’s renamed as Arrival Airport. Create a copy of the role-playing

table, providing it with a name that reflects its role. If it\’s an Import table, we recommend defining a calculated table. If it\’s a DirectQuery table, you can duplicate the Power Query query.

In the example, the Departure Airport table was created by using the following calculated table definition.


Q5:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales has a column named CustomerlD. The Data Type of CustomerlD is Whole Number.

You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain non-numeric values.

You need to ensure that non-numeric values in the CustomerlD column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerlD column and click Remove Errors.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Q6:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You are modeling data by using Microsoft Power Bl. Part of the data model is a large Microsoft SQL Server table named Order that has more than 100 million records.

During the development process, you need to import a sample of the data from the Order table.

Solution: You write a DAX expression that uses the FILTER function.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

The filter is applied after the data is imported. Instead, add a WHERE clause to the SQL statement.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-gateway-sql-tutorial


Q7:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a quick measure as shown in the following exhibit.

free PL-300 exam test q7

You need to create a monthly rolling average measure for Sales over time.

How should you configure the quick measure calculation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

free PL-300 exam test q7-2

Correct Answer:

free PL-300 exam test q7-3

Box 1: Total Sales We select the field Total Sales

Box 2: Date Select a date field.

Box 3: Month Monthly periods.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-quick-measures


Q8:

HOTSPOT

You have a table that contains a column named Phone. The following is a sample of the data in the Phone column.

free PL-300 exam test q8

You need to add a new column that contains the data in the format of nnn-nnn-nnnn.

How should you complete the Query Editor formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

free PL-300 exam test q8-2

Correct Answer:

free PL-300 exam test q8-3

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/text-replace https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/text-end


Q9:

You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard. The report used to create the dashboard uses an imported dataset from a Microsoft SQL Server data source. The dashboard is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.) What occurred at 12:03:06 PM?

A. A user pressed F5

B. A new transaction was added to the data source.

C. A user added a comment to a tile.

D. The dashboard tile cache was refreshed.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/refresh-data


Q10:

DRAG DROP

You have the Power BI data model shown in the following exhibit.

free PL-300 exam test q10

Select and Place:

free PL-300 exam test q10-2

Correct Answer:

free PL-300 exam test q10-3

Q11:

HOTSPOT

You need to calculate the last day of the month in the balance sheet data to ensure that you can relate the balance sheet data to the Date table.

Which type of calculation and which formula should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

free PL-300 exam test q11

Correct Answer:

free PL-300 exam test q11-2

Box 1: A DAX Calculated measure

Box 2: Date.EndofQuarter(#date([Year],[Mont],1))

END OF QUARTER returns the last date of the quarter in the current context for the specified column of dates.

The following sample formula creates a measure that returns the end of the quarter, for the current context.

= ENDOFQUARTER(DateTime[DateKey])

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dax/endofquarter-function-dax


Q12:

HOTSPOT

You have a column named UnitslnStock as shown in the following exhibit

free PL-300 exam test q12

UnitsInStock has 75 non-null values, of which 51 are unique.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

free PL-300 exam test q12-2

Correct Answer:

free PL-300 exam test q12-3

Box 1: 75 rows

Is nullable allows NULL values in the column.

Box 2: reduce


Q13:

You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site that contains several document libraries. One of the document libraries contains manufacturing reports saved as Microsoft Excel files. All the manufacturing reports have the same data structure.

You need to load only the manufacturing reports to a table for analysis.

What should you do in Microsoft Power Bl Desktop?

A. Get data from a SharePoint Online folder, enter the site URL, and then select Combine and Load.

B. Get data from a SharePoint Online list and enter the site URL. Edit the query and filter by the path to the manufacturing reports library.

C. Get data from a SharePoint Online folder and enter the site URL. Edit the query and filter by the path to the manufacturing reports library.

D. Get data from a SharePoint Online list, enter the site URL, and then select Combine and Load.

Correct Answer: B

We have to import Excel files from SharePoint, so we need the connector SharePoint folder which is used to get access to the files stored in the library.

SharePoint list is a collection of content that has rows and columns (like a table) and is used for task lists, calendars, etc. Since we have to filter only on manufacturing reports, we have to select Transform and then filter by the corresponding folder path.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-query/connectors/sharepointlist


Q14:

You import two Microsoft Excel tables named Customer and Address into Power Query. The customer contains the following columns:

Customer ID Customer Name Phone Email Address Address ID

The address contains the following columns:

Address ID Address Line 1 Address Line 2 City State/Region Country Postal Code

The Customer ID and Address ID columns represent unique rows.

You need to create a query that has one row per customer. Each row must contain City, State/Region, and Country for each customer.

What should you do?

A. Merge the Customer and Address tables.

B. Transpose the Customer and Address tables.

C. Group the Customer and Address tables by the Address ID column.

D. Append the Customer and Address tables.

Correct Answer: A

There are two primary ways of combining queries: merging and appending. When you have one or more columns that you\’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

When you have additional rows of data that you\’d like to add to an existing query, you append the query.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-shape-and-combine-data


Q15:

others might not have a correct solution.

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen,

You create a parameter named DataSourceExcel that holds the file name and location of a Microsoft Excel data source.

You need to update the query to reference the parameter instead of multiple hard-coded copies of the location within each query definition.

Solution: In the Power Query M code, you replace references to the Excel file with DataSourceExcel.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Instead, modify the source step of the queries to use DataSourceExcel as the file path.

Note: Parameterising a Data Source could be used in many different use cases. From connecting to different data sources defined in Query Parameters to load different combinations of columns.


Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps can help you easily prepare for the exam, relax, and practice boldly, the success of the exam must be yours, download the latest PL-300 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html now.

MD-101 Dumps [Update] Exam Really Can’t Do Without It

MD-101 Dumps

The “really difficult drama” that began to be rehearsed since planning the Microsoft MD-101 exam is really not straightforward!
Always worried, constantly feeling that you can’t pass, waking up in the middle of the night is a nightmare that can’t be tested!
Lack of preparation, lack of self-confidence, this frustration comes up even more!
If you want to pass the MD-101 exam easily, you must rely on the latest MD-101 dumps!

Today, I recommend a successful solution to exam problems – Pass4itSure MD-101 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/md-101.html(Updated: Apr 06, 2023).

Are MD-101 dumps really effective?

When it comes to MD-101 dumps, many people’s first reaction is: does this really work? And in fact: buy early and be effective, and the success of the exam depends on it to save!

Excellent MD-101 dumps will not only help you pass the Microsoft MD-101 exam but also help you:

Save money and boost your confidence!

Pass4itSure MD-101 dumps, a collection of the latest MD-101 exam study materials, provides you with the latest exam practice questions, all centered around real exam content. By practicing it, you will easily pass the MD-101 exam and feel confident.’

Let’s talk about the price that everyone cares about the most!

The MD-101 dumps on the market cost a hundred dollars at every turn, which puts people under great economic pressure.
And Pass4itSure always defines dumps at a moderate price of $49.99-$59.99, so that the majority of test takers have no financial pressure.

PDF Only: $45.99Software Only: $49.99Software + PDF: $59.99

All of the above proves that Pass4itSure is a good choice for you to pass the MD-101 exam.

Next, share the free MD-101 dumps questions.

Best practice MD-101 Managing Modern Desktops exam questions [2023.4]

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have a hybrid Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.

You configure a Windows Autopilot deployment profile as shown in the following exhibit.

md-101 practice questions  1

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

md-101 practice questions 1-2

Correct Answer:

md-101 practice questions 1-3

Box 1: import a CSV file into Windows Autopilot

You can perform Windows Autopilot device registration within your organization by manually collecting the hardware identity of devices (hardware hashes) and uploading this information in a comma-separated-values (CSV) file.

Box 2: joined to Azure AD only As per exhibit (Azure AD joined).

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/autopilot/add-devices

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/concept-azure-ad-join-hybrid


Question 2:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-insider/business/manage-builds

Your company has a hybrid configuration of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Your company also has a Microsoft 365 subscription.

After creating a conditional access policy for Microsoft Exchange Online, you are tasked with configuring the policy to block access to Exchange Online. However, the policy should allow access for hybrid Azure AD-joined devices

Solution: You should configure the Device platforms settings.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Within a Conditional Access policy, an administrator can make use of signals from conditions like risk, device platform, or location to enhance their policy decisions.

Client apps By default, all newly created Conditional Access policies will apply to all client app types even if the client apps condition isn’t configured.

These conditions are commonly used when requiring a managed device, blocking legacy authentication, and blocking web applications but allowing mobile or desktop apps.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/conditions#device-state


Question 3:

You need to meet the requirements of the MKG department users.

What should you do?

A. Assign the MKG department users the Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business

B. Download the APPX file for App1 from Microsoft Store for Business

C. Add App1 to the private store

D. Assign the MKG department users the Basic Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business

E. Acquire App1 from Microsoft Store for Business

Correct Answer: E

Enable the users in the MKG department to use App1.

The private store is a feature in Microsoft Store for Business and Education that organizations receive during the signup process. When admins add apps to the private store, all employees in the organization can view and download the apps.

Your private store is available as a tab in the Microsoft Store app and is usually named for your company or organization. Only apps with online licenses can be added to the private store.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/distribute-apps-from-your-private-store


Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You upgrade three computers from Windows 8.1 to Windows 10 as shown in the following table.

md-101 practice questions 4

The in-place upgrade settings used to perform the upgrade are shown in the following table.

md-101 practice questions 4-2

After the upgrade, you perform the following actions on each computer:

1. Add a local user account named LocalAdmin1.

2. Install Microsoft Office 2019.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

md-101 practice questions 4-3

Correct Answer:

md-101 practice questions 4-4

Box 1: No More than 10 days.

Please take note!

The question states “The in-place upgrade settings used to perform the upgrade are shown in the following table.”

On Computer 2 the setting is None – i.e. Nothing: Everything will be deleted, including files, app, and Settings. This is equal to a clean install…

The Windows. old folder will always be created during an upgrade install, even if you choose the “Nothing” option. “If you choose to “Keep nothing” when you upgrade to Windows 8.1, or if you reset, refresh, or reinstall Windows, your personal

files are temporarily saved to the Windows. old” with a 10-day limit to do so…

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/retrieve-files-from-the-windows-old-folder-f668ada4-701b-204a-73c3-952bc5ceb1c8

https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/all/how-to-recover-restore-your-previous-version-of/94368560-9c64-4387-92b9-82a9234216ad

Reference:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/go-back-to-windows-8-1-40e2d7dc-f640-b0e5-56e1-b41a27e28533


Question 5:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a user named User1 and the devices shown in the following table.

md-101 practice questions 5

User1 can access her Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox from both Device 1 and Device 2.

You plan to create a Conditional Access policy named CAPolicy1 that will have the following settings:

1. Assignments

2. Users or workload identities: User1

3. Cloud apps or actions: Office 365 Exchange Online

4. Access controls

5. Grant: Block access

You need to configure CAPolicy1 to allow mailbox access from Device 1 but block mailbox access from Device 2.

Solution: You add a condition that specifies a trusted location.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead, use solution: You add a condition to filter for devices.

Note: Conditional Access: Filter for devices

When creating Conditional Access policies, administrators have asked for the ability to target or exclude specific devices in their environment. The conditioning filter for devices gives administrators this capability.

Now you can target specific devices using supported operators and properties for device filters and the other available assignment conditions in your Conditional Access policies.

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-condition-filters-for-devices


Question 6:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains the devices shown in the following table.

md-101 practice questions 6

You need to assign app protection settings to the devices.

What is the minimum number of app protection policies required?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Correct Answer: D

One for Windows 10 with enrollment

One for Windows 10 without enrollment

One for Android (you can\’t set with or without enrollment)

One for iOS/iPadOS (you can\’t set it with or without enrollment)

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/app-protection-policies


Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You need to meet the technical requirements for Windows Autopilot.

Which two settings should you configure from the Azure Active Directory blade?

To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

md-101 practice questions 7

Correct Answer:

md-101 practice questions 7-2

Box 1: Devices Note: Deploy Windows 10 Enterprise to the computers of the Phoenix office users by using Windows Autopilot.

Configure device settings If you want to manage device identities by using the Azure portal, the devices need to be either registered or joined to Azure AD. As an administrator, you can control the process of registering and joining devices by configuring device settings.

Box 2: Mobility (MDM and MAM)

Windows Autopilot Deployment for existing devices.

Configure the Enrollment Status Page.

If you want, you can set up an enrollment status page for Autopilot using Intune.

To enable and configure the enrollment and status page:

1) Open Intune in the Azure portal.

2) Access Intune > Device enrollment > Windows enrollment and Set up an enrollment status page.

3) Access Azure Active Directory > Mobility (MDM and MAM) > Microsoft Intune and Configure automatic MDM enrollment and configure the MDM user scope for some or all users.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/device-management-azure-portal#configure-device-settings https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/autopilot/existing-devices


Question 8:

You manage a Microsoft 365 environment that has co-management enabled.

All computers run Windows 10 and are deployed by using the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT).

You need to recommend a solution to deploy Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus to new computers. The latest version must always be installed. The solution must minimize administrative effort.

What is the best tool to use for the deployment? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A. Microsoft Intune

B. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit

C. Office Deployment Tool (ODT)

D. a Group Policy object (GPO)

E. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager

Correct Answer: A

Intune –> Create device group –> Select o365 app –> deploy to group

ODT –> Download files -> Create XML –> How to trigger install (manual install/MDT Task seq/PowerShell script/logon script etc)

SCCM –> create new package via ODT or via wizard –> select DPs to distribute –>deploy to collection

MDT –> requires ODT to have the latest version but is fastest with installation as O365 is installed during TS, so in the end I would use this in production, but is not what MS asks.

In the question, it states the machines are in co-management, which indicates the presence of ConfigMgr and Intune otherwise machines cannot be co-managed. In ConfigMgr, there is a co-management workload you can move to Intune

specifically for Office 365 management. Office deployment and management from Intune is by far the most simple way to deploy Office apps (MS 365 Apps for business).

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/comanage/workloads#office-click-to-run-apps

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/apps-add-office365#select-microsoft-365-apps


Question 9:

HOTSPOT

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains the users shown in the following table.

md-101 practice questions 9

You have a server named Server that runs Windows Server 2019 and has the Windows Deployment Services role installed. Server1 contains an x86 boot image and three Windows 10 install images. The install images are shown in the following table.

md-101 practice questions 9-2

You purchase a computer named Computer1 that is compatible with the 64-bit version of Windows 10.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

md-101 practice questions 9-3

Correct Answer:

md-101 practice questions 9-4

Box 1: No

User1 is a member of Group1. User1 does not have any permission to Image1.

Box 2: Yes

User1 has read permissions to Image2 through Group1.

Box 3: Yes

User2 has read permissions to Image3 through Group2.


Question 10:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft Intune subscription that has the following device compliance policy settings:

1. Mark devices with no compliance policy assigned as Compliant

2. Compliance status validity period (days): 14

On January 1, you enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune as shown in the following table.

md-101 practice questions 10

On January 4, you create the following two device compliance policies:

1. Name: Policy1

2. Platform: Windows 10 and later

3. Require BitLocker: Require

4. Mark device noncompliant: 5 days after non-compliance

5. Scope (Tags): Tag1

6. Name: Policy2

7. Platform: Windows 10 and later

8. Firewall: Require

9. Mark the device noncompliant: Immediately 10.Scope (Tags): Tag2 On January 5, you assign Policy1 and Policy2 to Group1.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

md-101 practice questions 10-2

Correct Answer:

md-101 practice questions 10-3

Box 1: No

Policy1 and Policy2 apply to Group1 which Device1 is a member of. Device 1 does not meet the firewall requirement in Policy2 so the device will immediately be marked as non-compliant.

Box 2: No

For the same reason as Box1.

Box 3: Yes

Policy1 and Policy2 apply to Group1. Device2 is not a member of Group1 so the policies don’t apply.

The Scope (tags) have nothing to do with whether the policy is applied or not. The tags are used in RBAC.


Question 11:

You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.

You have a workgroup computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.

You need to add Computer1 to contoso.com.

What should you use?

A. the Settings app

B. Computer Management

C. netdom.exe

D. dsregcmd.exe

Correct Answer: D

If you want to manually join the computer to Azure AD, you can execute the disregard/join command. This command should be run in the SYSTEM context (using psexec for example) and will force an attempt to Azure AD.

Reference: https://365bythijs.be/2019/11/02/troubleshooting-hybrid-azure-ad-join/


Question 12:

You have a Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) deployment share named DS1.

In the Out-of-Box Drivers node, you create folders that contain drivers for different hardware models.

You need to configure the Inject Drivers MDT task to use PnP detection to install the drivers for one of the hardware models.

What should you do first?

A. Create a selection profile

B. Import an OS package

C. Add a Validate task to the task sequence

D. Add a Gather task to the task sequence

Correct Answer: A

By default, MDT adds any storage and network drivers that you import to the boot images. However, you should add only the drivers that are necessary to the boot image. You can control which drivers are added by using selection profiles.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-mdt/deploy-a-windows-10-image-using-mdt


Question 13:

HOTSPOT

A company named A. Datum Corporation uses Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager, Microsoft Intune, and Desktop Analytics.

A.Datum purchases a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has devices that run the following operating systems:

1. Windows 8.1

2. Windows 10

3. Android

4. iOS

A.Datum plans to use Desktop Analytics to monitor the Contoso devices.

You need to identify which devices can be monitored by using Desktop Analytics and how to add the devices to Desktop Analytics.

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

md-101 practice questions 13

Correct Answer:

md-101 practice questions 13-2

Box 1: Windows 8.1 and Windows 10 only

Windows 7, Windows 8.1, and Windows 10 are supported.

Box 2: Install the Endpoint Configuration Manager agent.

Need to for the Windows 8.1 client.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/desktop-analytics/enroll-devices https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/desktop-analytics/overview


Question 14:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Your company has Windows 10 computers are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You make use of Intune to manage the servicing channel settings of all company computers.

You receive an inquiry regarding the servicing status of a specific computer.

You need to review the necessary policy report.

Solution: You navigate to the Per update ring deployment state via Software updates.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/windows-update-compliance-reports


Question 15:

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.

A new user named Admin1 is responsible for deploying Windows 10 to computers and joining the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

Admin1 successfully joins computers to Azure AD.

Several days later, Admin1 receives the following error message: “This user is not authorized to enroll. You can try to do this again or contact your system administrator with the error code (0x801c0003).”

You need to ensure that Admin1 can join computers to Azure AD and follow the principle of least privilege.

What should you do?

A. Assign the Global administrator role to Admin1.

B. Modify the Device settings in Azure AD.

C. Assign the Cloud device administrator role to Admin1.

D. Modify the User settings in Azure AD.

Correct Answer: B

If you have rights to manage devices in Intune, you can manage devices for which mobile device management is listed as Microsoft Intune. If the device isn’t enrolled with Microsoft Intune, the Manage option won\’t be available.

Note: Enable or disable an Azure AD device

There are two ways to enable or disable devices:

The toolbar on the All Devices page, after you select one or more devices.

The toolbar, after you drill down for a specific device.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/device-management-azure-portal


Download the Microsoft MD-101 updated exam questions in PDF format and start MD-101 preparation today: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1kBcLVLPJ4ABqVwq-bE16ceGCXG_uYLuo/view?usp=share_link (free MD-101 pdf [drive])

Final words:

You have to ask me how can I pass the Microsoft MD-101 exam easily. That would definitely be using the Pass4itSure MD-101 dumps. With it, you’ll be ready for the exam with ease, get the full MD-101 exam question at https://www.pass4itsure.com/md-101.html (414) now.

350-401 Dumps Update | Can A High Price Buy Success

Choose 350-401 Dumps

Paying a high price to get a high-priced 350-401 dumps is not necessarily successful. Passing the Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam requires correct, up-to-date 350-401 dumps.

Success cannot be achieved at a high price. To solve this problem, Pass4itSure has launched the latest 350-401 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-401.html to help you, at a low cost for everyone. (Only $45.99)

Why is it impossible to succeed in the 350-401 exam at a high price?

Because success depends not on the price of the 350-401 dumps, but on the quality of the dumps.

High price does not equal high quality! Some unethical providers define 350-401 dumps for a hundred dollars at exorbitant prices, but the content is really outdated, repetitive, and will not help you in the slightest!

The low price also has high-quality Cisco 350-401 dumps!

There are also some people who adhere to the principles of honesty, truthfulness, and trustworthiness, and provide you with real-time updated 350-401 dump exam preparation resources at moderate prices and serve candidates wholeheartedly to help you complete the exam.

Pass4itSure is just that. It is a compilation of the latest 350-401 exam learning materials, providing you with the newest exam practice questions, all based on actual exam content. The 350-401 dumps, a collection of questions from painstaking work, expert preparation, and constant feedback, will make it easy to pass the 350-401 exam.

Free 350-401 dumps questions pdf (2023)

Want to pass the Cisco 350-401 exam at a low cost? Want to get free 350-401 dumps? That’s right, we’ve collected the latest questions for the 350-401 exam, and there’s a PDF available for free download.

Cisco ENCOR 350-401 practice questions online practice

350-401 Practice Question 1:

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

A. ideal for data center

B. complicated deployment

C. ideal for client/end-user system

D. referred to as bare-metal

Correct Answer: C


350-401 Practice Question 2:

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

A. VNI

B. GRE

C. VTEP

D. EVPN

Correct Answer: C

VTEP (Virtual Tunnel Endpoint) – This is the device that does the encapsulation and de-encapsulation.


350-401 Practice Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions latest q3

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID.

Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

A. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

Correct Answer: D


350-401 Practice Question 4:

Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

A. TCP

B. HTTPS

C. SSH

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: B

The REST API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS messages that contain JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents. You can use any programming language to generate the messages and the JSON or XML documents that contain the API methods or Managed Object (MO) descriptions.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2- x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/ b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Config uration_Guide_chapter_01.html


350-401 Practice Question 5:

Which of the following statements regarding BFD are correct? (Select 2 choices.)

A. BFD is supported by OSPF, EIGRP, BGP, and IS-IS.

B. BFD detects link failures in less than one second.

C. BFD can bypass a failed peer without relying on a routing protocol.

D. BFD creates one session per routing protocol per interface.

E. BFD is supported only on physical interfaces.

F. BFD consumes more CPU resources than routing protocol timers do.

Correct Answer: AB


350-401 Practice Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions latest q6

An engineer has configured Cisco ISE to assign VLANs to clients based on their method of authentication, but this is not working as expected. Which action will resolve this issue?

A. require a DHCP address assignment

B. utilize RADIUS profiling

C. set a NAC state

D. enable AAA override

Correct Answer: D


350-401 Practice Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions latest q7

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers. Which configuration accomplishes the task?

A. R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

B. R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200

C. R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

D. R4(config-router)nighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200

Correct Answer: A

Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has a preference to exit the AS in order to reach a certain network. A path with a higher local preference is preferred. The default value for local preference is 100.

Unlike the weight attribute, which is only relevant to the local router, local preference is an attribute routers exchange in the same AS.

The local preference is set with the “bgp default local-preference value ” command. In this case, both R3 and R4 have exit links but R4 has a higher local preference so R4 will be chosen as the preferred exit point from AS 200.


350-401 Practice Question 8:

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0

R2(config-if)# ip ospf 100 area 0

B. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#ip ospf 100 area 0

C. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-multipoint R2(config-if)# router ospf 100 R2(config-router)# network 172.22.2.0 0.0.0.265 area 0

D. R2(config)# interface Loopbacko R2(config-if)# ip address 172.22.2.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip ospf network broadcast R2(config-if)# ip ospf 100 area 0

Correct Answer: B

When OSPF is running on a given loopback interface, it sees the network type of “LOOPBACK” and it knows that it can not establish an adjacency through that loopback interface with another router so it advertises that loopback as a host route or the only IP address on that logical interface.

As Martin explained so nicely you can tell OSPF that it is not a loopback and a point-to-point network type, and OSPF says “OK I am going to advertise the interface with its correct mask”.

In an MPLS environment where OSPF is the IGP in the core, and you have configured the loopback interface of the PE router with a /24 mask, you can have some problems, because there is a discrepancy, the loopback\’s mask is 24 but OSPF is advertising a mask of /32.

There are a few solutions to fix this problem, one solution is to reconfigure the mask to be /32, and another solution is to configure the loopback interface with “ip ospf network point-to-point”.


350-401 Practice Question 9:

DRAG DROP

An engineer plans to use Python to convert text files that contain device information to JSON Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct the request. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-401 exam questions latest q9

Correct Answer:

350-401 exam questions latest q9-2
350-401 Practice Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions latest q10

Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

A. 1

B. 7

C. 13

D. 15

Correct Answer: A

Lines (CON, AUX, VTY) default to level 1 privileges.


350-401 Practice Question 11:

Which two statements about VRF-lite are factual? (Choose two)

A. It can support multiple customers on a single switch

B. It supports most routing protocols, including EIGRP, ISIS, and OSPF

C. It should be used when a customer\’s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF

D. It can increase the packet switching rate

E. It supports MPLS-VRF label exchange and labeled packets

Correct Answer: AC

VRF-lite does not support IGRP and ISIS.

1. VRF-lite does not support all MPLS-VRF functionality: label exchange, LDP adjacency, or labeled packets.

2. VRF-lite does not affect the packet switching rate.

3. The capability vrf-lite subcommand under router ospf should be used when configuring OSPF as the routing protocol between the PE and the CE.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/vrf.html#wp1045190


350-401 Practice Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

Select and Place:

350-401 exam questions latest q12

Correct Answer:

350-401 exam questions latest q12-2
350-401 Practice Question 13:

An engineer must configure the interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. To accomplish this task, which command set must be added to the initial configuration?

Initial Configuration interface GigabitEthernet0/0description To IDF A 38-24-044.40ip address 172.16.13.2 255.255.255.0

A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt

B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120

C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120

D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt

Correct Answer: A

In fact, VRRP has the preemption enabled by default so we don`t need the vrrp 10 preempt command. The default priority is 100 so we don`t need to configure it either.

But notice that the correct command to configure the virtual IP address for the group is vrrp 10 ip {ip-address} (not vrrp group 10 ip …) and this command does not include a subnet mask.


350-401 Practice Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the QoS mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

350-401 exam questions latest q14

Correct Answer:

350-401 exam questions latest q14-2
350-401 Practice Question 15:

Using the EIRP formula, what parameter is subtracted to determine the EIRP value?

A. transmitter power

B. antenna cable loss

C. antenna gain

D. signal-to-noise ratio

Correct Answer: B

Once you know the complete combination of the transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual power level that will be radiated from the antenna.

This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries.

In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract the cable loss.

latest questions for the 350-401 pdf free download:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1vd0-M9gbSw691vc5eBP_QxWBmCHD0xju/view?usp=share_link

Other Cisco CCNP exam resource sharing:

Cisco CCNP Dumps

Better, Free Cisco 300-715 Exam Dumps Questions

Summary:

Now you understand what the title says? It is important to choose the appropriate 350-401 dumps for the ENCOR 350-401 exam. Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps are inexpensive and ideal for you. Come and pass the 350-401 exam at a low price! for the latest 350-401 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-401.html (966 Q&As)

AZ-900 Dumps 2023 | Value For Money Learning Materials

Value For Money AZ-900 Dumps

AZ-900 dumps can help you pass the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam, but usually require a large amount of money. You need the latest AZ-900 dumps, and AZ-900 value-for-money learning materials to help you pass the exam.

Take a look at Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps 2023 https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html (New Issue 604+), always defining the dumps at a moderate price of $45.99 so that the majority of test takers are not under financial pressure.

How to pass the AZ-900 exam in 2023?

There is no doubt that you will need the help of real AZ-900 learning materials to pass the exam. The latest AZ-900 dumps you deserve to have.

Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps 2023 is the most challenging learning material to help you succeed on the Microsoft AZ-90 certification exam.

A few questions about the AZ-900 dumps study material

At present, there are many AZ-900 learning materials on the market, some of which are too complex and will make people’s brains hurt.

To sum up, there are generally two types of situations:

  1. Some exam material providers define AZ-900 dumps prices at exorbitant prices that are unaffordable.
  2. Other exam material providers define AZ-900 dumps at exaggerated and low prices, with worrying, outdated, and copied exam questions, costing you time and money!

Check out Pass4itSure

Pass4itSure provides you with a personalized service, the latest AZ-900 dumps learning materials, presented in PDF and VCE formats, and a variety of options. The $45.99 price to define the AZ-900 dumps is good value for money. Aren’t you still impressed?

Microsoft Azure Fundamentals (AZ-900 dumps) free questions

New Q1:

You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You need to customize a usage report for Microsoft Yammer. Which two tools can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services

B. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services

C. Microsoft Power BI in a browser

D. Microsoft Power BI Desktop

E. Microsoft Visual Studio

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/usage-analytics/customize-reports?view=o365-worldwide


New Q2:

Your company plans to migrate to Azure. The company has several departments. All the Azure resources used by each department will be managed by a department administrator.

You need to recommend an Azure deployment that provides the ability to segment Azure for the departments.

What are two possible techniques to segment Azure for the departments? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. multiple subscriptions

B. multiple Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directories

C. multiple regions

D. multiple resource groups

Correct Answer: AD

An Azure subscription is a container for Azure resources. It is also a boundary for permissions to resources and for billing. You are charged monthly for all resources in a subscription. A single Azure tenant (Azure Active Directory) can contain multiple Azure subscriptions.

A resource group is a container that holds related resources for an Azure solution. The resource group can include all the resources for the solution, or only those resources that you want to manage as a group.

To enable each department administrator to manage the Azure resources used by that department, you will need to create a separate subscription per department.

You can then assign each department administrator as an administrator for the subscription to enable them to manage all resources in that subscription.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/create-subscription https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/add-change-subscription-administrator


New Q3:

Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a Canadian government contractor

B. a European government contractor

C. a United States government entity

D. a United States government contractor

E. a European government entity

Correct Answer: CD

Azure Government is a cloud environment specifically built to meet compliance and security requirements for the US government. This mission-critical cloud delivers breakthrough innovation to U.S. government customers and their partners.

Azure Government applies to government at any level — from state and local governments to federal agencies including Department of Defense agencies.

The key difference between Microsoft Azure and Microsoft Azure Government is that Azure Government is a sovereign cloud. It\’s a physically separated instance of Azure, dedicated to U.S. government workloads only. It\’s built exclusively for government agencies and their solution providers.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government


New Q4:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 4
Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 4-2

New Q5:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 5

Correct Answer:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 5-2

New Q6:

Your developers have created 10 web applications that must be hosted on Azure. You need to determine which Azure web tier plan to host the web apps. The web tier plan must meet the following requirements:

1. The web apps will use custom domains.

2. The web apps each require 10 GB of storage.

3. The web apps must each run in dedicated compute instances.

4. Load balancing between instances must be included.

5. Costs must be minimized. Which web tier plan should you use?

A. Standard

B. Basic

C. Free

D. Shared

Correct Answer: B

Standard offers 50 GB of storage space, while Basic only gives 10 GB.

References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/websites/


New Q7:

Your company plans to deploy several million sensors that will upload data to Azure. You need to identify which Azure resources must be created to support the planned solution.

Which two Azure resources should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Data Lake

B. Azure Queue storage

C. Azure File Storage

D. Azure IoT Hub

E. Azure Notification Hubs

Correct Answer: AD

IoT Hub (Internet of things Hub) provides data from millions of sensors. IoT Hub is a managed service, hosted in the cloud, that acts as a central message hub for bi-directional communication between your IoT application and the devices it manages.

You can use Azure IoT Hub to build IoT solutions with reliable and secure communications between millions of IoT devices and a cloud-hosted solution backend. You can connect virtually any device to IoT Hub.

There are two storage services IoT Hub can route messages to — Azure Blob Storage and Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 (ADLS Gen2) accounts. Azure Data Lake Storage accounts are hierarchical namespace-enabled storage accounts built on top of blob storage. Both of these use blobs for their storage.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/about-iot-hub https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-messages-d2c


New Q8:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs macOS and has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

A PowerShell script is a file that contains PowerShell cmdlets and code. A PowerShell script needs to be run in PowerShell.

In this question, the computer has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed. Therefore, this solution does meet the goal.

Note: To create Azure resources using PowerShell, you would need to import the Azure PowerShell module which includes the PowerShell cmdlets required to create the resources.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/scripting/components/ise/how-to-write-and-run-scripts-in-the-windows-powershell-ise?view=powershell-6

New Q9:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

From Access Control (IAM), you can view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. Azure Event Hubs

C. Azure Activity Log

D. Azure Service Health

Correct Answer: C

You would use the Azure Activity Log, not Access Control to view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Activity logs are kept for 90 days. You can query for any range of dates, as long as the starting date isn’t more than 90 days in the past.

In this question, we would create a filter to display shut down operations on the virtual machine in the last 14 days.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit


New Q10:

HOTSPOT

You need to identify which blades in the Azure portal must be used to perform the following tasks:

1. View security recommendations.

2. Monitor the health of Azure services.

3. Browse available virtual machine images.

Which blade should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 10

Correct Answer:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 10-2

Box 1:

Azure Monitor is used to monitoring the health of Azure services.

Azure Monitor maximizes the availability and performance of your applications and services by delivering a comprehensive solution for collecting, analyzing, and acting on telemetry from your cloud and on-premises environments.

It helps you understand how your applications are performing and proactively identify issues affecting them and the resources they depend on.

Box 2:

You can browse available virtual machine images in the Azure Marketplace.

Azure Marketplace provides access and information on solutions and services available from Microsoft and its partners. Customers can discover, try, or buy cloud software solutions built on or for Azure.

The catalog of 8,000+ listings provides Azure building blocks, such as Virtual Machines (VMs), APIs, Azure apps, Solution Templates and managed applications, SaaS apps, containers, and consulting services.

Box 3.

Azure Advisor displays security recommendations.

Azure Advisor provides you with a consistent, consolidated view of recommendations for all your Azure resources. It integrates with Azure Security Center to bring you security recommendations. You can get security recommendations from the Security tab on the Advisor dashboard.

Security Center helps you prevent, detect, and respond to threats with increased visibility into and control over the security of your Azure resources. It periodically analyzes the security state of your Azure resources.

When Security Center identifies potential security vulnerabilities, it creates recommendations. The recommendations guide you through the process of configuring the controls you need.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/marketplace/marketplace-faq-publisher-guide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/advisor/advisor-security-recommendations


New Q11:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 11

Correct Answer:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 11-2

Box 1: No

A resource can interact with resources in other resource groups.

Box 2: Yes

Deleting the resource group will remove the resource group as well as all the resources in that resource group. This can be useful for the management of resources. For example, a virtual machine has several components (the VM itself,

virtual disks, network adapter, etc.). By placing the VM in its own resource group, you can delete the VM along with all its associated components by deleting the resource group.

Another example is when creating a test environment. You could place the entire test environment (Network components, virtual machines, etc.) in one resource group. You can then delete the entire test environment by deleting the resource group.

Box 3: Yes

Resources from multiple different regions can be placed in a resource group. The resource group only contains metadata about the resources it contains.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-overview

https://www.codeisahighway.com/effective-ways-to-delete-resources-in-a-resource-group-on-azure/


New Q12:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 12

Correct Answer:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 12-2

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-iaas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-saas/


New Q13:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 13

Correct Answer:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 13-2

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/


New Q14:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 14

Correct Answer:

Microsoft (AZ-900 Dumps) Free Questions 14-2

Box 1: No

A PaaS solution does not provide access to the operating system. The Azure Web Apps service provides an environment for you to host your web applications. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS.

However, you have no direct access to the virtual machine, the operating system, or IIS.

Box 2: Yes

A PaaS solution that hosts web apps in Azure does provide the ability to scale the platform automatically. This is known as autoscaling. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS. Autoscaling means adding more load-balanced virtual machines to host web apps.

Box 3: Yes

PaaS provides a framework that developers can build upon to develop or customize cloud-based applications.

PaaS development tools can cut the time it takes to code new apps with pre-coded application components built into the platform, such as workflow, directory services, security features, search, and so on.

References:

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/


New Q15:

You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You save VM1 as a template named Template1 to the Azure Resource Manager library. You plan to deploy a virtual machine named VM2 from Template1.

What can you configure during the deployment of VM2?

A. operating system

B. administrator username

C. virtual machine size

D. resource group

Correct Answer: B

When deploying a virtual machine from a template, you must specify:

1. the Resource Group name and location for the VM

2. the administrator username and password

3. a unique DNS name for the public IP

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/ps-template


Free AZ-900 dumps pdf download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1hZ669aYL7-AqIuq0sfI9NDsBbnGCQa3Y/view?usp=share_link

Summary:

Pass4itSure has updated the AZ-900 dumps 2023 to be worthwhile study material that will help you pass the exam.

Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps are cost-effective, and they have a money-back guarantee, so you can get the latest AZ-900 dumps at https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html without worry

VMware 5V0-41.20 Exam Dumps [New] Effective Quick Preparation Materials

Guess you want to solve the VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot 5V0-41.20 exam as soon as possible, so we have updated the VMware 5V0-41.20 exam dumps (latest version) to help you quickly pass the VMware 5V0-41.20 exam.

Pass4itSure 5V0-41.20 exam dumps Latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-41-20.html has updated the dumps with accurate 36 questions and correct answers to ensure that you can successfully pass the 5V0-41.20 exam.

5V0-41.20 exam dumps 2022

What the 5V0-41.20 exam looks like?

VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot: 5V0-41.20

Product: VMware SD-WAN™ by VeloCloud®
Associated Certification: VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot 2022

The 5V0-41.20 exam is a proctored exam. The test language is English, and you need to answer 36 multiple-choice questions in 90 minutes and score 300 points to pass.

5V0-41.20 exam useful resources:

  • VCP Community
  • VMware Customer Connect Learning
  • VMware Press
  • VMware Certification Market Place
  • VCP Community
  • VMware Customer Connect Learning

How do I pass the VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot exam quickly?

First, you need to have accurate VMware SD-WAN Troubleshoot exam preparation materials.

Secondly, you need to practice.

Pass4itSure 5V0-41.20 exam dumps provide you with valid exam preparation materials for quick exam preparation.

Where can I download a valid 5V0-41.20 dumps PDF for preparation?

You can download the free 5V0-41.20 dumps pdf at [Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1L1pbuViYBsqagSY5iFQI5qxy-bhBsbvm/view?usp=share_link

Do you want to get the latest VMware 5v0-41.20 dumps questions?

If yes, then you have come to the right place. Free 5V0-41.20 dumps questions are available below.

5V0-41.20 Free Dumps Questions 1-13 Will Enhance Your Exam Success

Q1 -New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed. The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing.

Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources. The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

Users at the London site are complaining of various intermittent issues around websites not loading, or applications being remotely accessed disconnecting sporadically and reconnecting after a few minutes. The network administrator does not see anything strange on the Edge overview page and decides to check if the CPU or memory has been hitting close to 100. Where should the administrator verify this information?

A. In the VCO > Test 8c Troubleshoot > Remote Diagnostics > System Status
B. In the VCO > Monitor > Click London_Site01 > Click the System Tab
C. In the VCO > Remote Troubleshooting > Remote Actions > System Status
D. In the VCO > Monitor > Alerts

Correct Answer: B

Q2 – New

Scenario 2:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator has configured a Business Policy to send a specific application directly out of an underlay interface. Users have complained of slow responses for that application. While troubleshooting, the network administrator finds the traffic is actually taking an overlay path to another SD-WAN Edge.
What is causing this behavior?

A. The other Edge location is advertising a secure route for the application\\’s subnet.
B. uI has been configured forcing traffic into the underlay towards the hub.
C. Configuring Business Policy Direct settings have no effect on traffic flows.
D. Internet Back.
E. The underlay path is not available forcing traffic into the overlay.

Correct Answer: E

Q3 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator decides to deploy a local Checkpoint VNF appliance on the Edge in London to cut back on unnecessary traffic towards the NY hub location.

The Checkpoint VNF and associated security services were successfully deployed at the London Branch. Users are now complaining that Webpages are extremely slow to load, just like before. What should the administrator do?

A. Reboot the Edge, as this is a requirement in the deployment of a Security VNF.
B. Disable and redeploy the VNF with lower memory requirements.
C. Verify to see if a firewall rule in the Edge is set to allow traffic to the Checkpoint VNF.
D. Check the flow records in Remote Diagnostics.

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

The tunnel from the spoke to the hub is not coming up. What are the two possible reasons? (Choose two.)

A. Spoke Edge and hub Edge are two different Edge models.
B. Spoke Edge and hub Edge have a mismatched certificate authentication mode.
C. Hub WAN Interface might be behind the NAT Device or firewall.
D. Dynamic Branch to Branch is not enabled.

Correct Answer: BC

Q5 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already verified the configuration is correct. Which two parameters should the administrator review to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss)
B. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings
C. Check the flows to verify which Business Policy the traffic of interest is matching
D. Look under Monitor, check the Business priority tab

Correct Answer: AD

Q6 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and blanches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

After deploying the Edge, the security team has determined that traffic from Guest wireless traffic is able to reach resources in the Production network. There should be absolutely no interaction. How can this be prevented?

A. Create an additional segment for Guest wireless traffic and leave the Production traffic in the default global segment.
B. Segmentation is currently not supported on VeloCloud Edge.
C. Create two subnets, one for Guest wireless traffic and another one for Production traffic.
D. Have Guest wireless and Production traffic in the same segment but different VLANs.

Correct Answer: A

Q7 – New

Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers
are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.

Users at multiple branches complain that a highly performant SQL Database cluster residing at the New York Data Center is not responding to database queries or inserts as expected. It is affecting the order management site. A network administrator investigates and finds that traffic from the branches is going through Seattle to reach the SQL Cluster in New York. The design for this SD-WAN network does not call for routing security.

The SQL Cluster is reachable through either Data Center, but for performance reasons, must flow through the New York DC. The network administrator has verified that the routes are not present in the OFC and the BGP neighborship is down in Network Services.

Refer to the Exhibit(s).
Exhibit.

What should the administrator verify?

A. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in New York.
B. The BGP Authentication matches on both sides.
C. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in Seattle.
D. Backhauling through Seattle DC is disabled.

Correct Answer: D

Q8 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present- The network administrator is informed (that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Which metrics can a network administrator verify in the QoE screen to determine the overall health of Underlay and Overlay?

A. Jitter Packet Loss, Speed.
B. Jitter, Packet Loss, Latency.
C. Jitter, Speed, Latency.
D. Packet Loss, Latency, Speed.

Correct Answer: B

Q9 – New

Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.

The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.

The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

A network administrator is investigating connectivity issues between Chicago and San Jose. The administrator browses the Overlay Flow Control (OFC) window and notices that the screen is blank with no routes shown in the OFC. What is a possible reason for this?

A. Cloud VPN for the Edges / Profiles is not enabled.
B. There is an invalid MTU configuration in Chicago.
C. OSPF or BGP is not enabled.
D. The routing table on the Edges has not been initialized.

Correct Answer: A

Q10 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected lo.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users are complaining that web pages to certain websites are very slow to load and at times unresponsive. The network administrator has verified that the traffic is going correctly out of the underlay.
What should the administrator check next?

A. Verify if Path-MTU Discovery is disabled.
B. Verify if there is latency, loss, or jitter on the underlay.
C. Verify the Business Policy flows are matching.
D. Verify if routes to Gateways are present in the Overlay Flow Control (OFC).

Correct Answer: A

Q11 – New

Scenario 1:
A network administrator is tasked with enabling SD-WAN at three branch locations. Topology has been provided for reference. For each site, the administrator is having issues bringing edges online, as another administrator has gone ahead and created a configuration ahead of time. The organization has several branch sites.

One is an Internet-only site and two are Hybrid locations with both internet and MPLS. The last location is MPLS only. There are hub data center locations in this environment as well. Please refer to the topology.
Exhibit.

The network administrator determines the issue preventing the Dallas Branch from coming online.
Refer to the Exhibit(s). What must the administrator do for the Edge to communicate with the Orchestrator and other branches?

A. Reverse the WAN Overlay configurations
B. Update the Orchestrator to the latest version as it enables “Auto WAN Swapping”
C. Delete the User-Defined WAN Overlays as the Orchestrator will discover these automatically on MPLS and Internet
D. Create a User-defined WAN Overlay to bond both interfaces

Correct Answer: A

Q12 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.

Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already configured Business Policies based on these requirements. What is the sequence of parameters that the administrator can check to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings.
B. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss).
C. Under Monitor, check the Routing tab.
D. Review Business Policies configuration and match them against the business requirements.

Correct Answer: BD

Q13 – New

Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.

Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing; internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring several branches to prefer a single prefix, 10.20.11.0/24, from the Seattle hub over the New York hub for various application performance reasons. What are two effective ways the administrator can accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the AS Path in New York to be shorter for 10.20.11.0/24.
B. In the hub preferred order in the profile, set the Seattle hub to be preferred over New York.
C. Modify the AS Path in New York to be longer for 10.20.11.0/24.
D. In the OFC 10.20.11.0/24, modify the preferred exit point to Seattle and pin the route.

Correct Answer: BD

To successfully pass the 5V0-41.20 exam, you can use the latest Pass4itSure 5V0-41.20 exam dumps as preparation material. Click here for the full 5V0-41.20 exam questions.

5V0-23.20 Dumps Updated | Powerful VMware 5V0-23.20 Exam Study Materials

Our 5V0-23.20 dumps have just been updated to accurate content and are the best material for you to study for the VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist exam, and she is also the most accurate VMware 5V0-23.20 exam preparation.

New Pass4itSure 5V0-23.20 dumps WebPage https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-23-20.html With 62 new exam practice questions from the latest exam content, you will be able to pass the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam with serious practice.

Powerful VMware 5V0-23.20 Exam Study Materials

Can you introduce the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam?

The 5V0-23.20 exam is a 62-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. The exam time is 125 minutes.

Product: VMware vSphere with Tanzu
Associated Certification: VMware Certified Specialist – vSphere with Tanzu 2022

What 5V0-23.20 exam resources need attention?

  • VCP Community
  • VMware Customer Connect Learning
  • VMware Press
  • VMware Certification Market Place
  • Pass4itSure 5V0-23.20 dumps

What is an effective preparation for the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam?

That must be to prepare for the VMware 5V0-23.20 exam with the latest 5V0-23.20 dumps as valid learning material.

The latest 5V0-23.20 dumps are the perfect way to prepare for the exam.

Where can I get the valid 5V0-23.20 dumps? Is there a free one?

Over here. Pass4itSure provides you with the correct 5V0-23.20 dumps and is the best 5V0-23.20 exam study material.

And you can also download the latest 5V0-23.20 dumps PDF Q&A for free: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1w24-wm1lvUfdG2mfinCsTABrvR1GKYkS/view?usp=share_link

VMware 5V0-23.20 free dumps questions to help you pass:

Q1 – New

How do Tanzu Kubemetes clusters communicate with Storage Policy Based Management to request
PersistentVolumes?

A. Through a proxy VM
B. Directly with vCenter Server and the underlying ESXi hosts
C. Through the Supervisor Cluster
D. Directlywith the vCenter Server

Correct Answer: A

Q2 – New

A developer is connecting to a Tanzu Kubernetes Cluster using the kubectl sphere login command
Which information must be specified, in addition to both the name of the cluster and the Supervisor Cluster Control Wane IP?

A. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the SSO Username
B. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the Token D for the SSO credentials
C. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the Token ID for the SSO credentials
D. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the SSO Username

Correct Answer: B

Q3 – New

The network topology for a Supervisor Cluster deployed using the vSphere networking stack, and an HAProxy load balancer is being planned. In addition to the control plane management IP range and services P range, how many nonoverlapping P address ranges are needed?

A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

Which value must be increased or decreased to horizontally scale a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster?

A. Namespaces
B. etc instance
C. Worker node count
D. ReplicaSets

Correct Answer: C

Q5 – New

On which cluster can a Supervisor Namespace be created?
A. A Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Integrated cluster
B. A vSphere 7 clusters enabled with Workload Management
C. A Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
D. A vSphere 6.7 clusters enabled with Workload Management

Correct Answer: C

Q6 – New

A company needs to provide global visibility and consistent policy management across multiple Tanzu Kubernetes Clusters, namespaces, and clouds Which VMware solution will meet these requirements\’?

A. vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster
B. vCenter Server
C. Tanzu Mission Control
D. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service

Correct Answer: A

Q7 – New

The application development team is pushing a Kubernetes application into production. It consists of an application server and a database. The team wants to ensure that only the production application server can access the production database.

Can the development team meet this requirement using Kubernetes Network Policy?

A. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a Network Policy that only allows pods on the same network segment
to talk to each other.
B. Yes. by logging in to NSX Manager and creating firewall rules to only allow the production application server pod to talk to the database
C. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a policy that disables pod-to-pod communication in the Namespace
D. No, Kubernetes Network Policy does not support this action.

Correct Answer: A

Q8 – New

Which command should be used by a developer to log in to the vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster?
A. vmwarectl login –server- –vsphere-username
B. kubectl vsphere login –server= –vsphereusername
C. vmwarectl vsphere login –server– –vsphereusername
D. kubectl login –server= –vsphere-username

Correct Answer: B

Q9 – New

Which requirement is valid for vSphere with Tanzu on the vSphere Distributed Switch Network?

A. Workload networks that are routable to the primary workload network
B. HAProxy Virtual Server IP range that is allocated to NSX-T edge router external interface
C. Network Interface Cards with Single Root IO Visualization Support (SR-IOV)
D. HAProxy Frontend interface that has a common subnet and bridged interface to workload networks

Correct Answer: B

Q10 – New

Which two considerations need to be made when deciding on a virtual machine class type during the process of creating a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two )

A. Whether the resources provided by the virtual machine class type should be reserved on the host
B. The configuration parameters that need to be edited in the cluster
C. The amount of CPU. memory, and storage the virtual machine should have
D. Connectivity between the Tanzu Kubernetes cluster and the Subscribed Content Library
E. The storage classes which need to be made available to the cluster

Correct Answer: CD

Q11 – New

Which step in vSphere with Tanzu enablement using the vSphere Distributed Switch process is done prior to using the Workload Management Enablement Wizard?

A. Deploy the load balancer
B. Choose the Kubernetes content library that should be used in the Supervisor Cluster
C. Define the Primary workload network P range
D. Define the Management network interfaces for the Supervisor Cluster

Correct Answer: D

Q12 – New

Which two capabilities are associated with vSphere Pod? (Choose two.)

A. Compatibility with vSphere vMotion
B. Compatibility with vSphere performance charts
C. Compatibility with NSX-V Datacenter
D. Compatibility with vSphere HA and DRS
E. Compatibility with Windows and Linux kernels

Correct Answer: CD

Q13 – New

How does Kubernetes implement the vSphere storage policy in vSphere with Tanzi?

A. Storage class
B. Paravirtual CSl
C. Static Persistent Volume
D. Persistent Volume

Correct Answer: D

……

Firmly use Pass4itSure 5V0-23.20 dumps (All 5V0-23.20 exam questions) https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-23-20.html Prepare for the exam, success must be yours. Come on.

2V0-51.21 Exam Dumps Updated Exam Prep Materials

To take the Professional VMware Horizon 8. X exam, I’m guessing you’ll need real VMware 2V0-51.21 prep materials. Here, Pass4itSure has prepared the latest VMware 2V0-51.21 exam dumps for you, which is ideal for passing the 2V0-51.21 exam preparation material.

Go to the 2V0-51.21 exam dumps page https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-51-21.html You’ll see a new 94 new quiz practice preparation materials to help you get through.

What is the 2V0-51.21 exam 2022?

2V0-51.21 exam

2V0-51.21 Exam | Professional VMware Horizon 8. X

Product: Horizon 8. x

Associated Certification: VCP-DTM 2022

Question types: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Hot Area

The 2V0-51.21 exam requires you to answer 60 questions in 120 minutes and score more than 300 points to pass.

Are there any free VMware 2V0-51.21 resources available to learn after passing the exam?

You can prepare for the exam with the help of free 2V0-51.21 exam dumps resources provided by Pass4itSure.

Download online free 2V0-51.21 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/11VCF3Kva5r8i7X8VUhgYgEdSTZFY3JUT/view?usp=share_link

How do get prepared for the VMware 2V0-51.21 exam?

If you prepare 2V0-51.21 preparation materials, it will help you a lot in the exam. You can get the best 2V0-51.21 exam dumps preparation material on the Pass4itSure website. Our 2V0-51.21 exam dumps preparation materials will be very helpful for the main exam.

Where can I find free new VMware 2V0-51.21 exam dumps questions?

Here, Certificationpdf.com is there for you. Right below.

2V0-51.21 Free Dumps Free Questions Answers:

Q1 – New

Refer to the exhibit.

The error in the exhibit was received while an administrator was trying to connect to a Horizon ADSI database from a Connection Server. What change does the administrator need to make in the UI to connect to the ADSI database?

A. Change the Computer field to localhost: 369
B. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vdi, dc-int, dc-vmware
C. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vmware,dc-vdi, dc-int
D. Change the Computer field to localhost:3268

Correct Answer: B

Q2 – New

After a disaster recovery failure which left the data center unavailable, a company\’s Horizon Administrator team has dedicated to increase the capacity of their Horizon desktop pools and their resiliency. Which two deployment options would support the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Horizon Desktop deployed as a Service on vCloud Air.
B. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on AWS.
C. Horizon deployed m the same Local Data Center.
D. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on VMware.
E. Horizon deployed in a Remote Data Center

Correct Answer: AC

Q3 -New

An administrator has added a support PCI graphics accelerator to a virtual machine configuration. Which the administrator tries to power on the virtual machine, an error is displayed and the virtual machine remains powered off.

Which of the following virtual machine configuration settings needs to be applied to enable the virtual machine to power on?

A. Reserve all guest memory.
B. Set Memory Shares to High
C. Enable Video Card 3D Graphics.
D. Disable CPU Hot Plug.

Correct Answer: B

Q4 – New

An administrator needs to change the message a user receives when using an old Horizon client.
Where can this be accomplished?

A. Settings > Global Settings > Client Restriction Settings
B. Client settings in VMware Dynamic Environment Manager
C. Client Restrictions under Desktop Pool settings
D. Settings > Global Policies > Client Restriction Settings

Correct Answer: D

Q5 – New

Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?

A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine.
B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation.
C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine.
D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Dynamic-Environment-Manager/2106/dynamic-environmentmanager2106-install-config.pdf

Q6 – New

What must be implemented on all Connection Servers for logon segment information to be populated in the Horizon Helpdesk Tool?

A. Vdmadmin -1timingProfiler -Enable
B. Vdmadmin -A -d dtpool2 -m machine1 -getstatus
C. Blast Secure Gateway
D. Horizon Helpdesk Agent

Correct Answer: B

Q7 – New

An administrator is leveraging PCoIP protocol in their Horizon environment and wants to distribute clients to end users that have the smallest footprint possible with no local operating system. Which client type satisfies these requirements?

A. Teradici based zero clients
B. Windows embedded thin client
C. MacOS Client
D. Android based thin client

Correct Answer: A

Q8 – New

An administrator wants to leverage Horizon Cloud Service to manage their Horizon on-premises deployment. What does the administrator need to install to achieve this?

A. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector using DHCP
B. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway with a static IP
C. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway using DHCP.
D. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector with a static IP.

Correct Answer: D

Q9 – New

Which two capabilities are supported by VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Application Profiler? (Choose two.)

A. It allows individual user personalization of applications.
B. It allows creation of computer templates.
C. It allows third-party user personalization of applications.
D. It allows creation of application-specific predefined settings.
E. It analyzes registry and file system location settings for an application.

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Dynamic-Environment-Manager/2106/com.vmware.dynamic.environment.manager-appprofiler/GUID-60E0D874-BC1E-4FF8-B86E-3A0594D0D42D.html#:~:text=Application%20Profiler%20is
%20a%20standalone,its%20file%20and%20registry%20configuration

Q10 – New

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the TLS Configuration steps on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:

Q11 – New

An administrator used the Horizon Console to specify the Active Directory account for joining instant-clone VMs to the Active Directory domain. What two permissions must be granted to the Active Directory account to perform this task? (Choose two.)

A. Grant Inventory Administrator role.
B. Write properties in the domain or in the organization units.
C. Create and delete computer objects.
D. Grant the Global Domain Administrator role.
E. Grant the Horizon Domain Admin role.

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/vmware-horizon-7-configuration/

Q12 – New

A new Horizon environment has gone into production. External sessions are being disconnected after a random period of time. The following information has been documented by the administrator:

1. Internal and external users are able to connect to their desktops.
2. External sessions connect via a Unified Access Gateway.
3. Users are immediately able to reconnect but will be disconnected again in a few minutes.
4. Internal sessions, connected directly to the desktops, are not impacted.
5. While the session remains connected, all expected functionality works properly. What could be a cause of this issue?

A. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.
B. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Connection Servers.
C. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Connection Servers.
D. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.

Correct Answer: C

Q13 – New

After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database: Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine

Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted.
B. Desktops can only be customized after the end user logs into the virtual machine.
C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory.
D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification.
E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.13/horizon-virtual-desktops/GUID-CF25204FF88D-4296-9FDB-AEB550E24266.html

…..

Remember, using the Pass4itSure 2V0-51.21 dumps preparation materials to study for the exam is successful, welcome to download the full 2V0-51.21 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-51-21.html

1V0-21.20 Exam Dumps Update (Q&A)- Prepared Authentic Learning Materials

Exam 1V0-21.20: Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization You must pass to earn your VCTA-DCV 2022 certification. To help you better prepare for the VMware 1V0-21.20 exam, we provide up-to-date 1V0-21.20 exam dumps with the latest questions and answers.

Visit the Pass4itSure 1V0-21.20 exam dumps webpage https://www.pass4itsure.com/1v0-21-20.html where you will find the 1V0-21.20 exam dumps presented by Pass4itSure is authentic 1V0-21.20 learning materials for VCTA-DCV 2022 certification 1V0-21.20 exam preparation.

1V0-21.20 exam

Having difficulty passing the VMware 1V0-21.20 exam? Is that really the case?

The VMware 1V0-21.20 exam stands for the Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization exam.
The test language is English and you need to answer 51 questions in 135 minutes. To pass successfully, you need to score 300 points. The exam format is proctored, and the question types are divided into single and multiple-choice questions.

The 1V0-21.20 exam is relatively easy compared to other Foundation level exams when it still requires hard preparation to pass. You must have real study materials, which can be the Pass4itSure 1V0-21.20 exam dumps mentioned above, with which you will be ready for the 1V0-21.20 exam.

What is the easy way to pass the VMware-1V0-21.20 exam?

That must be the latest 1V0-21.20 exam dumps (Pass4itSure).

It will provide you with the most authentic exam materials, and lead you to effectively prepare for the exam.

Where are the free study materials to help pass the 1V0-21.20 exam?

You are welcome here. We offer you free 1V0-21.20 exam practice to help you study. You can see below.

Latest 1V0-21.20 dumps pdf free (Pass4itSure): https://drive.google.com/file/d/1GQSaXeHHzolI4d3mYAY8umpgaUeB4Kpw/view?usp=share_link

Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization 1V0-21.20 Real Questions and Answers Share 1-13

NEW QUESTION 1

Which event type indicates a Fatal problem has occurred in the system, and the process or operation will be terminated?

A. Information
B. Audit
C. Error
D. Warning

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

A VMware administrator monitoring a project has been advised to run the compute health check using the vSphere 7 clients to monitor the ESXi host’s health. How should the administrator approach this task?

A. Menu > Administrator > Deployment > System Configuration
B. Host > Monitor > Skyline Health > Expand Online Health Connectivity > Compute Health Checks > Reset
C. Host > Monitor > Events
D. Host > Monitor > Issues and Alarms

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

An operator must deploy three virtual machines from a template named Win10-Template, and all three VMs must be configured with unique computer names. Which action must the operator take to achieve this goal?

A. Clone Win10-Template three times, and then change the computer name in each clone.
B. Export Win10-Template to the local filesystem, and then change the computer name.
C. Use a Windows 10 customization specification when deploying the virtual machines.
D. Create the virtual machines using the New Virtual Machine wizard.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

This feature allows an administrator to implement master copies of virtual machines to create ready-for-use virtual machines.

A. Templates
B. Resource Pools
C. Snapshots
D. Custom Attributes

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

Which feature must be enabled to use vSphere Fault Tolerance?

A. vSphere DRS
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSAN

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Which two improvements to the management of a VM are gained when VMware Tools are used? (Choose two.)

A. Performs a clone of the VM
B. Adds VM alarms to the inventory
C. Makes a graceful shutdown of the VM possible
D. Allows a snapshot before the guest OS is upgraded
E. Synchronizes time between the guest and the host

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 7

Which vSphere component provides continuous availability for mission-critical virtual machines so users experience no loss of data and no interruption in service during a host failure?

A. vSphere Fault Tolerance
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSphere vmotion

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit:

Which statement Is true about the access privileges of User 2?

A. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to Prod04-3.
B. User 2 has no access to all objects in the Production folder and Test and Dev folder.
C. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to all VMs In the Production folder.
D. User 2 has access to all objects in the Production folder and no access to Dev01, Dev02, and Dev03.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

An administrator has noticed an increase in network latency when powered-off virtual machines are migrated. Which VMkernel adapter can the administrator use to reduce this latency?

A. vSAN
B. vSphere Replication
C. Provisioning
D. vMotion

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

What is the default encrypted vSphere vMotion state for virtual machines that are not encrypted?

A. Disabled
B. Required
C. Opportunistic
D. Enabled

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

Which hypervisor is a type-1 hypervisor?

A. Oracle VM VirtualBox
B. VMware ESXi
C. VMware Fusion
D. VMware Workstation

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

A vSphere administrator sees the alarm: vSphere HA virtual machine failed to failover This occurred for virtual machines (VMs) in a cluster with vSphere High Availability (HA) enabled. The guest operating system on the VMs did not report a power failure. What is a possible cause of this event?

A. The host is still running but has disconnected from the network.
B. The VMs cloning operations did not complete.
C. A reboot of the vCenter Server impacted vSphere HA.
D. The VMs encountered an error during migration using vSphere vMotion.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

Which DRS score indicates that the virtual machine (VM) is experiencing severe resource contention?

A. 50%
B. 95%
C. 70%
D. 15%

Correct Answer: D

……

Using real study materials such as the Pass4itSure 1V0-21.20 exam dumps to really help you pass the exam, you can download the full 1V0-21.20 exam dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1v0-21-20.html here and continue learning.