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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 408

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400-151 dumps

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QUESTION 56
Which of the following is an example of an involuntary deduction an employer may be required to retain from an employee’s pay?
A. Tax levy
B. Medicare
C. State income tax
D. Federal income tax
400-151 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
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QUESTION 57
Which of the following is described in the statement below? “If an employee is called by the employer for work and there is no work available, the employer may be required by state law or employment agreements to pay for a minimum number of hours of work.”
A. Reporting pay
B. Hazard pay
C. Gross pay
D. Base pay
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.If an employee is called by the employer for work and there is no work available, the employer may be required by state law or employment agreements to pay for a minimum number of hours of work. This is known as reporting pay.Answer option B is incorrect. Hazard pay is additional pay for working in dangerous conditions.Answer option C is incorrect. Gross pay is the amount earned by an employee before taxes are not paid.Answer option D is incorrect. Base pay is the foundation
of an employer’s compensation program because it reflects the value placed on individual jobs by the organization.
QUESTION 58
An employee earning $22,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Which of the following describes this employee?
A. Exempt, based on the executive exemption test
B. Exempt, based on the administrative exemption test
C. Nonexempt, based on the salary basis requirement
D. Nonexempt
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option C is correct.Effective in 2004, employees must be paid a minimum of $455 per week to be exempt from FLSA requirements. This employee earns only $432.69 per week. ($22,500/52 weeks = $432.69.) Although D is also correct, the best answer is the one that explains why. See Chapter 6 for more information.
QUESTION 59
Beth is a nonexempt employee and she earns $17.45 per hour in her job. She has worked 40 hours this week, but management has requested that Beth work seven more hours this weekend. What is the total payment, before taxes, that Beth will be due for her work this week?
A. $820.15
B. $698
C. $1,230.22
D. $881.22
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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QUESTION 60
Which of the following are the benefits of gainsharing programs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Aligns employees to organizational goals
B. Helps the organization to achieve improvement in key performance measures
C. Enhances the focus and awareness of employees
D. Employees are paid on the basis of group performance rather than individual performan
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer options A, B, and C are correct.The benefits of gainsharing programs are as follows:
What is gainsharing?
Gainsharing is a system of management used by a business to get higher levels of performance through the involvement and participation of its people. As performance improves, employees share financially in the gain (improvement). Gainsharing is about people working smarter together and not just working harder.
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QUESTION 61
As a HR Professional you must understand the laws and regulations, which affect employee compensation. Which of the following was the first to address a minimum wage for employees?
A. Davis-Bacon Act
B. Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. Portal-to-Portal Act
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
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QUESTION 62
John earns $45,200 per year as a mechanic in your organization. The $42,500 per year does not include earnings John may have through shift differentials, benefits, overtime, incentives, and bonuses. Which one of the following terms best describes the $45,200 per year that John earns?
A. Variable pay
B. Hygiene factor pay
C. Base pay
D. Market-demand pay
400-151 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
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QUESTION 63
What is the compa-ratio for an employee that earns $75,000 per year, but the midpoint for the role is $85,000 per year?
A. 88 percent
B. 113 percent
C. $10,000 difference
D. 1:88
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
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QUESTION 64
Which of the following is an example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan?
A. An excess-deferral plan
B. A target-benefit plan
C. A money-purchase plan
D. A cash-balance plan

400-151 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.An excess-deferral plan makes up the difference between what an executive could have contributed to a qualified plan if there had not been a limit on contributions and how much was actually contributed because of the discrimination test required by ERISA. These plans are nonqualified because they are not protected by ERISA; they are limited to a small group of executives or highly compensated employees. A target-benefit plan (B) is a hybrid with elements of defined- benefit and money-purchase plans. A money-purchase plan (C) defers a fixed percentage of employee earnings. A cash-balance plan (D) combines elements of defined-benefit and defined-contribution plans. See Chapter 6 for more information.
QUESTION 65
COBRA, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, requires some organizations to offer continuation of group health care coverage to employees and family members based on certain qualifying events. How many employees must exist within an organization for COBRA requirements to be enforced?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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QUESTION 66
Robert is the HR Professional for his organization and he’s speaking with the federation chairman about the labor and the direction of unions. What is a federation?
A. A federation is the same as a union.
B. A federation is a group of national unions.
C. A federation is a union that has international members.
D. A federation is the governing body of a union.
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 615

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400-051 dumps

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Question No : 16 – (Topic 1) Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?
A. storage arrays such as those from EMC or NetApp, if applicable
B. configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping
C. step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup
D. server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the part
number level
E. configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
400-051 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
What does a TRC definition include?
Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local
storage) at the orderable part number level.
Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) – including battery backup
cache or SuperCap – when the TRC uses DAS storage
Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup (e.g. click here).
Design, installation and configuration of external hardware is not included in TRC
definition, such as:
Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for
VMware software are not included in TRC definition.
Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may
also be leveraged for configuration details not included in the TRC definition.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  In a Cisco EnergyWise domain, which two terms describe a Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint
B. domain member
C. child domain member
D. EnergyWise agent
E. Cisco power distribution unit
400-051 dumps Answer: A,C

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) Company ABC is planning to migrate from MCS-hosted Cisco Unified Communications
Manager applications to Cisco UC on UCS B-Series servers. Which statement about
installation media support is true for this migration?
A. The install log can be written to a USB flash drive that is attached to the UCS server.
B. The answer file that is generated by the Answer File Generator (platformConfig.xml) can
be read from a USB flash drive to perform an unattended installation on the UCS server.
C. The Cisco Music on Hold USB audio sound card can be mapped to a virtual USB port
on a VMware virtual machine on the UCS server.
D. The answer file that is generated by the Answer File Generator (platformConfig.xml) can
be read from an FLP image that is mounted in a virtual floppy drive.
E. The Cisco Music on Hold USB audio sound card can be mapped to a virtual serial port
on a VMware virtual machine on the UCS server.
400-051 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Using the AFG will allow you to get this license mac before even touching the server. It is
provided after filling in the main form of the AFG but it can also be found by looking at the
last few lines of your platformconfig.xml file.
Once you have the xml files, you will need to map those to the floppy drive of the VM (no
usb support on the VM OVA). There are many ways to do this. I simply use a freeware
virtual floppy app that I drop the platformconfig.xml file on and then copy the*.flp image out
to the datastore. I’ll end up with a directory on my datastore called AFG that has the host
named *.flp images that I will use during install. It also serves as archival of these files in
the event the server needs to be re-imaged. This is important because the license mac will
change if every parameter is not entered exactly as it was prior. If the license mac
changes, you will have to go through the process of requesting new license files to be
generated.

Question No : 19 – (Topic 2)  In a SIP REFER-based call transfer, which SIP message is being used by the recipient to
notify the originator that the final recipient was successfully contacted?
A. 200 OK
B. NOTIFY with a message body of 200 OK
C. 202 Accepted
D. 100 Trying
E. 200 BYE
400-051 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
The Refer method always begins within the context of an existing call and starts with the
originator. The originator sends a Refer request to the recipient (user agent receiving the
Refer request) to initiate a triggered Invite request. The triggered Invite request uses the
SIP URL contained in the Refer-To header as the destination of the Invite request. The
recipient then contacts the resource in the Refer-To header (final-recipient), and returns a
SIP 202 (Accepted) response to the originator. The recipient also must notify the originator
of the outcome of the Refer transaction–whether the final-recipient was successfully or
unsuccessfully contacted. The notification is accomplished using the Notify Method, SIP’s
event notification mechanism.
A Notify message with a message body of SIP 200 OK
indicates a successful transfer, while a body of SIP 503 Service Unavailable
indicates an unsuccessful transfer.
If the call was successful, a call between the
recipient and the final-recipient results.

Question No : 20 – (Topic 2)  Refer to the exhibit.400-051 dumps

During a QSIG tunneling over SIP call establishment, which two types of SIP messages
can the OGW use to tunnel a waiting QSIG message? (Choose two.)
A. SIP re-INVITE
B. SIP NOTIFY
C. SIP INFO
D. SIP OPTIONS
E. SIP UPDATE
F. SIP REFER
400-051 dumps Answer: A,E
Explanation:
The TGW sends and the OGW receives a 200 OK response–the OGW sends an ACK
message to the TGW and all successive messages during the session are encapsulated
into the body of SIP INFO request messages. There are two exceptions:
When a SIP connection requires an extended handshake process, renegotiation, or an
update, the gateway may encapsulate a waiting QSIG message into a SIP re-INVITE or
SIP UPDATE message during QSIG call establishment.
When the session is terminated, gateways send a SIP BYE message. If the session is
terminated by notice of a QSIG RELEASE COMPLETE message, that message can be
encapsulated into the SIP BYE message.

Question No : 21 – (Topic 2) Which element was added to H.225 messages to enable Fast Connect in H.323 version 2?
A. fastStart
B. fastConnect
C. H.245 PDU
D. User-User Information
E. Connection Information
400-051 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Fast start allows for H323 media connections to be started at the beginning of a call. This is
helpful for ringback scenarios, and also reduces the amount of time calls take to establish
media. H245 is still negotiated later, but the actual media can be done earlier through H225
messages.

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