Category: CCNP Data Center

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QUESTION 20
Which items are hot-swappable on a UCS C-Series Server? (Choose-two)
A. Internal Cooling Fans
B. Power Supplies
C. PCIe Card
D. Mezzanine Card
E. Riser Card
300-175 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 21
Which tool provides automated support capability that provides continuous monitoring, proactive diagnostics, alerts, and remediation recommendations?
A. Cisco Smart Call Home
B. snmp
C. Cisco Director
D. Cisco Threat Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit below.

Which tab do you select to add an APIC account when adding an ACI fabric?
A. Multi-Domain Managers
B. Physical Accounts
C. Managed Network Elements
D. Bare Metal Agents
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Step 2 Click the Multi-Domain Managers tab.
Step 3 Click Add.
Step 4 In the Add Account dialog box, choose APIC from the Account Type drop-down list.
Step 5 Click Submit.

QUESTION 23
Which drive combination prevents you from provisioning RAID on Cisco UCS C-Series servers?
A. SAS HDD and SATA HDD
B. SAS SSD and SATA SSD
C. SATA HDD and SATA SSD
D. SAS HDD only
E. SATA HDD only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about MAC addresses in the Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first 2 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
B. The first 3 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
C. The last 3 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
D. The last 4 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
When deploying Nexus 5000 switches in NPV mode, what technology will help with resilience and increase throughput?
A. F-port-channel trunk
B. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

From the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI, the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter properties of a Cisco UCS -Series Server in standalone mode are configured as shown. Which three options are results of the configuration? (Choose three.)
A. Sixteen dynamic vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
B. A description for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is assigned.
C. Sixteen static vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
D. FIP support on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is enabled.
E. Sixteen dynamic device aliases for vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
F. NIV mode for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is disabled.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 27
Which statement about high-availability clusters for Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects is true?
A. Peers in a cluster must connect to each other by using two 10-Gbps links.
B. The cluster requires a minimum of two IP addresses.
C. The management plane is active/standby.
D. The data plane is active/standby.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 28
A Cisco UCS administrator configuring QoS, Which two options are valid QoS system classes in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose two )
A. drop eligible
B. transactaional data
C. best effort
D. scavenger
E. Fibre Channel
300-175 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which option lists the features that are needed to install VMware ESXi on a local drive from an image file?
A. Virtual Media and VMFS
B. Virtual Media and Virtual KVM
C. Virtual Boot and VMFS
D. Virtual KVM and Virtual Boot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.

What statement happens after the following commands are executed?
A. The server is rebooted
B. Server is up
C. Server Troubleshooting
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 31
You are implementing a UCS B-Series environment for a customer with both bare-metal and virtualized servers. The bare-metal servers require two vNICs and two vHBAs. Administrators of virtualized servers will be utilizing VN-Link technology. Which adapter should be recommended?
A. Cisco UCS M81KR
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-Q
C. Cisco UCS M71KR-E
D. Cisco UCS P81E
E. Cisco UCS M51KR-B
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit

Fabric Interconnect B is in a primary state. Which IP addresses can you use to connect to Fabric Interconnect B?
A. 10.0.0.198, 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200
B. 10.0.0.199 only
C. 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200 only
D. 10.0.0.200 only
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions.To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel. There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.



Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. Which of the following user roles allows the permission Clear All Logs?
A. read-only
B. user
C. operator
D. system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 34
Which two statements about Call Home are true? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual IP address of the Cisco UCS Manager in a cluster is the source of the email.
B. In a cluster configuration, at least one fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity.
C. The fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity to email server or the destination HTTP server
D. At least one destination profile must be configured.
E. Call Home requires SCP to transfer the files securely.
300-175 exam Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 35
You have a Cisco UCS server connected to Cisco Fabric Interconnects. Which two options are characteristics of a virtual machine that is deployed by using VMFEX in high- performance mode in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine connects to a Cisco VIF on the external switch by using Cisco VN- Link in hardware, bypassing the hypervisor.
B. The dynamic vNIC can connect redundantly by using hardware-based failover to the Cisco UCS Fabric
interconnect cluster.
C. Dynamic vNICs inherit parameters from static vNICs
D. The virtual machine can share the same dynamic vNIC with another virtual machine in VMFEX highperformance mode
E. The virtual machine deployed in VM-FEX high-performance mode runs on the host by using the default
BIOS policy that is available in the Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In high-performance mode, traffic to and from a virtual machine (VM) bypasses the DVS and hypervisor. Traffic travels directly between VMs and the virtual interface card (VIC) adapter.
The benefits of high-performance mode are as follows:
-Increases I/O performance and throughput.
-Decreases I/O latency.
-Improves CPU utilization for virualized I/O-intensive applications. You must modify or create several policies in order for VM-FEX for VMware to function optimally:
-VMwarePassThrough Ethernet Adapter Policy (high-performance mode only) -Dynamic vNIC Connection Policies
-BIOS Policy (high-performance mode only)
-VM Lifecycle Policy
Dynamic vNICs are always protected in Cisco UCS, but this field allows you to select a preferred fabric, if any. You can choose one of the following:
-Protected Pref A–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric A but fails over to fabric B if necessary
-Protected Pref B–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric B but fails over to fabric A if necessary Protected–Cisco UCS uses whichever fabric is available Reference:

QUESTION 36
Which configuration must be made to run the fabric interconnects as a vPC pair?
A. The Ethernet mode must be set to switching.
B. The Layer 1 and Layer 2 cables must be configured as a vpc
C. The fabric interconnects cannot run as a VPC pair
D. The ethernet mode must be set to end host
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 37
Which statement about Adapter FEX is true?
A. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the server.
B. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the hypervisor.
C. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the FEX port.
D. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the VM.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements about the maintenance policy configurations available from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI are true? (Choose two.)
A. A maintenance policy can be defined for the service profile associated to a server and for updating a service profile bound to one or more service profiles.
B. A maintenance policy is used to configure a nondisruptive upgrade of the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
C. A maintenance policy can defer the direct deployment of firmware images for components that use neither the host firmware nor the management firmware packages available in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as fabric interconnects and IOMs.
D. A maintenance policy can deploy service profile changes immediately, when acknowledged by an admin user or automatically at the time specified in the schedule.
E. A maintenance policy can be used only to apply nondisruptive service profile changes to servers.
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 40
An admin wants to make sure that for each VLAN added to a vNIC, a static MAC address entry is added to the fabric interconnect. Which setting within Cisco UCS Manager accomplishes this task?
A. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
B. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to All Host VLANs.
C. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to All Host VLANs.
D. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
E. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to All Host VLANs.
F. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Exam Code: 300-175
Exam Name:

DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)

Q&As: 294

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QUESTION 33
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume
642-999 exam Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 34
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 35
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
642-999 dumps Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 36
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 37
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
642-999 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 38
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 39
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v
642-999 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 41
Which two VMware features must be turned off in the data center cluster for Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough to operate? (Choose two.)
A. VMCI
B. DRS
C. FT
D. HA
E. vMotion
642-999 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 42
A perpetual inventory system uses a minimum quantity on hand to initiate purchase ordering procedures for restocking. In reviewing the appropriateness of the minimum quantity level established by the stores department, the internal auditor is least likely to consider
A. Stockout costs, including lost customers.
B. Seasonal variations in forecasting inventory demand.
C. Optimal order sizes determined by the economic order quantities model.
D. Available storage space and potential obsolescence.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic economic order quantity EOQ) model is based on the following variables: demand,variable cost per purchase order, and variable unit carrying cost. Thus, minimum stockinglevels do not affect the EOQ.

QUESTION 43
An organization must manage its flows of raw materials, components, finished goods, services, or information through intermediaries to ultimate consumers. These flows may occur across the functions in an organization’s:
A. Supply chain.
B. Value chain.
C. Logistic chain.
D. Integrated chain.
642-999 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The supply chain consists of flows from sources of a) raw materials, b) components, c)finished goods, d) services, or e) information through intermediaries to ultimate consumers.
These flows and the related activities may occur across the functions in an organization’svalue chain R&D, design, production, marketing, distribution, and customer service). Theseflours and the related activities also may occur across separate organizations.

QUESTION 44
The bullwhip, or whiplash, effect on inventories begins when retailers face uncertain demand from consumers caused by randomness in buying habits. It can be avoided by:
A. The need to purchase or manufacture goods in cost-efficient batches.
B. Changes in price that may encourage purchases in anticipation of future increases.
C. Shortages that may lead to rationing by suppliers or manufacturers and hoarding bymanufacturers or retailers.
D. Sharing of information and coordination among the organizations in the supply chain.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sharing information about sales, inventory, pricing, advertising campaigns, and salesforecasts by all functions and organizations in the supply chain moderates demanduncertainty for all parties. The desired results are a) minimization of inventories held bysuppliers, manufacturers, and retailers; b) avoidance of stackouts; c) fewer rush orders; andd) production as needed by retailers.

QUESTION 45
A desired result of the sharing of information by all functions and organizations in the supply chain is:
A. Fewer rush orders.
B. Maximization of inventories held by suppliers, manufacturers, and retailers.
C. Stockouts.
D. Incompatibility of the information systems of the parties.
642-999 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sharing information about sales, inventory, pricing, advertising campaigns, and salesforecasts by all functions and organizations in the supply chain moderates demanduncertainty for all parties. The desired results are a) minimization of inventories held bysuppliers, manufacturers, and retailers; b) avoidance of stackouts; c) fewer rush orders; andd) production as needed by retailers.

QUESTION 46
Which of the following are intermediaries between sellers and buyers?
I.Agent
II. Broker
III. Consignee I. Consumer
A. I and II only.
B. I and III only.
C. I, II, and III only.
D. I, II, III, and Isl.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A distribution channel is a series of interdependent marketing institutions that facilitate thetransfer of a product from producer seller) to consumer buyer). Intermediaries includemerchant middlemen, agents, brokers, consignees, and facilitating intermediaries.

QUESTION 47
The channel structure in which producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system is a:
A. Horizontal distribution system.
B. Vertical distribution system.
C. Unilateral distribution system.
D. Multichannel system.
642-999 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In vertical distribution systems, producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system. Channel conflict is managed through common ownership, contractual relationships, oradministration by one or a few dominant channel members. Horizontal distribution systemsconsist of two or more companies at one level of the channel working together to exploit newopportunities, such as the introduction of ATMs in supermarkets. The joint nature ofhorizontal distribution efforts is the tool for managing channel conflict. In a multichannelsystem, a single firm sets up two or more channels to reach one or more customer segments. Because such a system is managed by a single firm, channel conflicts can be evaluated andmanaged internally.

QUESTION 48
Which of the following channel structures have the best means of managing channel conflict?
I.Conventional
II. Vertical
III. Horizontal
IV. Multichannel
A. I andII.
B. II, III, and IV.
C. I, III, and IV.
D. II and III.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In vertical distribution systems, channel conflict is managed through common ownership,contractual relationships, or administration by one or a few dominant channel members. Thejoint nature of horizontal distribution efforts is the tool for managing channel conflict. In amultichannel system, because such a system is managed by a single entity, channel conflictscan be evaluated and managed internally. Conventional distribution systems consist of one ormore independent producers, wholesalers, and retailers, each of which is a separate profitmaximizingbusiness. The profit objective of each independent channel member may resultin actions that are not profit-maximizing for the system as a whole, and the conventionaldistribution system offers no means for controlling channel conflict.

QUESTION 49
The airlines have been leaders in the use of technology. Customers can make reservations either with an airline or through a travel agency. In this situation, a travel agency is classified as which type of distribution channel?
A. An intermediary.
B. A jobber.
C. A distributor.
D. A facilitating agent.
642-999 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Marketing intermediaries assist companies in promoting, selling, and distributing their goodsand services to ultimate consumers. For example, travel agents access an airline’scomputerized reservation system and make reservations for their customers without evertaking title to the ticket.

QUESTION 50
Physical distribution is the moving of finished products to:
A. Retail outlets.
B. Shipping point.
C. Consumers.
D. Warehouses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical distribution is the efficient management of supply chains. It controls value-addedflows from suppliers to consumers.

QUESTION 51
Intensive distribution is most likely to be used for:
A. Shopping goods.
B. Specialty goods.
C. Convenience goods.
D. Unsought goods.
642-999 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Convenience goods are consumer goods and services that are usually low-priced and I widelyavailable. Consumers buy them often and with a minimum of comparison and effort. Examples are soap and newspapers. Producers of convenience goods ordinarily use intensivedistribution to sell their products through a large number of retail or
wholesale units.

QUESTION 52
A distribution channel moves goods from producers to customers. Suppose a channel has four producers, each serving the same four customers, and no middlemen. If a distributor is introduced, the number of contacts among producers, customers, and the distributor) in the channel will:
A. Be unaffected.
B. Decrease from 8 to 4.
C. Increase from 8 to 16.
D. Decrease from 16 to 8.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The number of contacts without a distributor is 16 four producers four customers). Thenumber with a distributor is 8 four producers +four customers). Thus, the effort required ofproducers and consumers is reduced by the distributor, thereby increasing marketingefficiency.

QUESTION 53
Which of the following is not a component of physical distribution?
A. Transportation.
B. Pricing.
C. Location of retail outlets.
D. Warehousing.
642-999 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical distribution market logistics) involves planning, implementing, and controlling themovement of materials and final goods to meet customer needs while earning a profit. Physical distribution systems coordinate suppliers, purchasing agents, marketers, channels,and customers. They include warehousing, transportation, and retail outlets.

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QUESTION 2
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy.
A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase
B. Test training needs for the project resources
C. The test design techniques to be used
D. Test performance indicators
E. The test schedule
300-165 exam Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
B. Targets certain types of faults
C. Will guide experienced testers to find defects
D. Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
E. More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
F. Will make non-systematic testing redundant
G. Will reduce the need for early reviews
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4
What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits
A. 16
B. 2
C. 1
D. 63
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk?
A. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
C. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
D. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v. Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence?
A. i, ii, iv, vi
B. ii, i, v, vi
C. ii, v, i, iii
D. i, iv, v, vi
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing?
A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively?
A. By providing training in the payroll domain
B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
D. By providing training on reviewing requirements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why?
A. A person with the ability to complete tasks
B. A quality assurance officer
C. A person with in-depth technical skills
D. A person who brings new ideas to the team
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit
A. They are a cheap resource
B. They have good testing skills
C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team?
A. Provide more time for testing in the schedule
B. Allow people to take some time off
C. Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase
D. Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits
A. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
C. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
D. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations?
A. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
B. Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
C. Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
D. Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit
A. Test environment more complex
B. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
C. Clear channels of communications
D. Possibly different cultures
E. Testing of non-functional requirements
F. Audit trail from requirements to test cases
G. Applying test automation
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project.
A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations
B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system
C. Activities to deploy the system in the user environment
D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
E. Development activities for unit and integration testing
F. Reviews on requirements documentation
G. Defining test environment requirements for system testing
300-165 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate?
A. Test planning
B. Test execution
C. Test management
D. Test design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons.
A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
E. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
F. It builds on large set of historical data
G. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
300-165 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 19
Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project?
A. Quality of the specification
B. Availability of end-users
C. The costs of hardware and tools
D. Unknown input quality due to third party development
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi?
A. 5 maturity levels
B. Focussed on higher level testing
C. 20 key areas
D. Highly related to CMMI
E. Continuous model
F. Staged model
G. Focussed on component and integration testing
H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 21
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
A. ISO 9126
B. IEEE 829
C. BS 7925/2
D. DO-178B
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi?
A. If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
B. If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.
C. TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.
D. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations?
A. Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
B. Defined according to the maturity model used
C. Most visible to stakeholders
D. Low costs actions first
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 6
In a default OS X configuration, you want to change the way that Finder handles ZIP archives. Where can you make that change?
A. System Preferences
B. Disk Utility Preferences
C. Archive Utility Preferences
D. Finder Preferences
642-998 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A user named Robert has an existing user account. The user name associated with his account is Robert. Robert wants to use Bob as his user name when accessing some of the services provided by a Mac running OS X Server. How can you accommodate his request?
A. In Workgroup Manager, click Settings and add a rule to the Services list that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
B. In Workgroup Manager, create a new user with the user name Bob. Select the Robert account, and add the new Bob account to the list in the Aliases pane.
C. In Server app, go to the Advanced Options pane for Robert’s account, and add Bob as an alias.
D. In Server app, add a rule to the Services list in the Settings pane that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
On an OS X Mountain Lion computer with OS X Server installed, you have created a share point named “Finance Dept” that contains a folder named “Reports.” The permissions for both are shown below. Chris is not a member of the Finance group, but you would like her to have access to the Finance Dept share point. In Server app, you select the server, click the Storage tab, select the Finance Dept folder, and modify its permissions a shown below.
After changing the permissions on the share point, what access will Chris have to the reports Folder in the share point?
A. None
B. B.Read & Write
C. Write-only
D. Read-only
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which utility is on the OS X Recovery partition?
A. Firmware Password Utility
B. Boot Camp Assistant
C. Activity Monitor
D. Console
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the function of Gatekeeper?
A. To prevent users from opening untrusted applications.
B. To prevent users from downloading untrusted applications.
C. To prevent users from installing untrusted applications.
D. To prevent users from installing viruses and trojan horses.
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
642-998 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19. What unique code is used to distinguish each Symbian based application installed on a device?
A.UID
B.IMEI
C.SymbianID
D.SID
E.SSID
F.DeviceID
Answer: A
QUESTION 20. What does GPRS stand for in the mobile industry?
A.General Packet Radio Services
B.General Packet Radar Systems
C.General Packet Radio Systems
D.General Packet Radar Services
E.Global Positioning Radio Services
F.Global Positioning Radio Systems
642-998 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which process will let you start up a Mac in target disk mode?
A. Open the Startup Disk preferences, click Target Disk Mode, and then click Restart.
B. Hold down the Option key on the keyboard as the Mac starts up, until a dialog appears, then select Target Disk Mode from the dialog.
C. Hold down the S key on the keyboard while the Mac starts up, then enter the command reboot -target.
D. Start up from the OS X Recovery partition, choose Target Disk Mode from the Startup Disk menu, and restart the Mac.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Using Server app, you are configuring email alerts to be sent to an OS X Server system administrator. Which TWO of these server events can you set to trigger an alert? (Select 2)
A. A user has exceeded his or her assigned disk quota for file sharing.
B. New software updates are available for the server.
C. An unsuccessful attempt was made to log in with the root account.
D. A certificate has expired or is about to expire.
E. The number of files on the server has exceeded a specified number.
642-998 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which tool can you use to verify that a device profile is installed on an OS X Mountain Lion computer?
A. Ticket Viewer
B. The klist command in Terminal
C. Profiles pane in System Preferences
D. Users & Groups pane in System Preferences
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
How can you display the contents of a hidden folder on a mounted volume in Finder?
A. From the Finder menu, choose Preferences, and select “Show hidden items.”
B. Select the volume icon and choose “Show hidden items” from the Action menu.
C. From the View menu, choose “Show hidden items.”
D. From the Go menu, choose “Go to Folder,” enter the path to the hidden folder, and click Go.
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which statement about Gatekeeper is TRUE?
A. Gatekeeper can ONLY be disabled using a configuration profile.
B. Standard users can bypass Gatekeeper.
C. Only the root user can disable Gatekeeper.
D. Only administrator users can bypass Gatekeeper.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Review the screenshot and answer the question below. You downloaded an app using Safari. When you try to open the app, you see the message shown above. What is a possible explanation?
A. The app was signed using a certificate from an unknown authority.
B. The certificate needed to decrypt this app cannot be found in the keychain.
C. Gatekeeper has recognized that the app was altered after it was signed.
D. The sandbox into which the app was downloaded by the quarantine system has become corrupted.
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which procedure will permit only the Marketing group to access a website hosted on OS X Server?
A. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, add a realm, and enable Allowed Access for the Marketing group.
B. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read-only for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.
C. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read/Write for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.
D. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, and select the Marketing group from the Who Can Access menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install and run OS X Server on an OS X Mountain Lion
computer?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
You configured the Time Machine service on a computer with OS X Server to store backup data on the Data volume. Later you configure the service to store the backup data on a larger volume named Backup Data. How is the backup data handled after the switch to the new backup volume?
A. The next time users back up, new and changed files are backed up to the new volume, along with aliases pointing to the data on the old volume.
B. The next time users back up, all their files are backed up to the new volume.
C. Users are presented with a dialog asking which volume they want to use to store their backup data.
D. OS X Server copies the existing backup data from the old volume to the new volume.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
What are TWO ways administrators can remove a device group profile from an OS X Mountain Lion computer? (Select 2)
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group, click Preferences and click the Delete (-) button.
B. In the Profiles pane in System Preferences, select the profile, and click the Remove (-) button.
C. In Profile Manager, click Device Groups, select the appropriate device group, click Members, and click the Delete (x) button to the right of the member computer.
D. In Server app, select the group, click the Edit (pencil) button in the Group pane, and deselect Manage.
E. In the Profiles tab in Device Manager, select the OS X Mountain Lion computer, select Profiles, select the group, and click the Delete (-) button.
642-998 exam Correct Answer: BE

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