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QUESTION 20
Which items are hot-swappable on a UCS C-Series Server? (Choose-two)
A. Internal Cooling Fans
B. Power Supplies
C. PCIe Card
D. Mezzanine Card
E. Riser Card
300-175 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 21
Which tool provides automated support capability that provides continuous monitoring, proactive diagnostics, alerts, and remediation recommendations?
A. Cisco Smart Call Home
B. snmp
C. Cisco Director
D. Cisco Threat Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit below.
300-175 dumps
Which tab do you select to add an APIC account when adding an ACI fabric?
A. Multi-Domain Managers
B. Physical Accounts
C. Managed Network Elements
D. Bare Metal Agents
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Step 2 Click the Multi-Domain Managers tab.
Step 3 Click Add.
Step 4 In the Add Account dialog box, choose APIC from the Account Type drop-down list.
Step 5 Click Submit.

QUESTION 23
Which drive combination prevents you from provisioning RAID on Cisco UCS C-Series servers?
A. SAS HDD and SATA HDD
B. SAS SSD and SATA SSD
C. SATA HDD and SATA SSD
D. SAS HDD only
E. SATA HDD only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about MAC addresses in the Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first 2 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
B. The first 3 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
C. The last 3 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
D. The last 4 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
When deploying Nexus 5000 switches in NPV mode, what technology will help with resilience and increase throughput?
A. F-port-channel trunk
B. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-175 dumps
From the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI, the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter properties of a Cisco UCS -Series Server in standalone mode are configured as shown. Which three options are results of the configuration? (Choose three.)
A. Sixteen dynamic vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
B. A description for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is assigned.
C. Sixteen static vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
D. FIP support on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is enabled.
E. Sixteen dynamic device aliases for vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
F. NIV mode for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is disabled.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 27
Which statement about high-availability clusters for Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects is true?
A. Peers in a cluster must connect to each other by using two 10-Gbps links.
B. The cluster requires a minimum of two IP addresses.
C. The management plane is active/standby.
D. The data plane is active/standby.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 28
A Cisco UCS administrator configuring QoS, Which two options are valid QoS system classes in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose two )
A. drop eligible
B. transactaional data
C. best effort
D. scavenger
E. Fibre Channel
300-175 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which option lists the features that are needed to install VMware ESXi on a local drive from an image file?
A. Virtual Media and VMFS
B. Virtual Media and Virtual KVM
C. Virtual Boot and VMFS
D. Virtual KVM and Virtual Boot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
300-175 dumps
What statement happens after the following commands are executed?
A. The server is rebooted
B. Server is up
C. Server Troubleshooting
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 31
You are implementing a UCS B-Series environment for a customer with both bare-metal and virtualized servers. The bare-metal servers require two vNICs and two vHBAs. Administrators of virtualized servers will be utilizing VN-Link technology. Which adapter should be recommended?
A. Cisco UCS M81KR
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-Q
C. Cisco UCS M71KR-E
D. Cisco UCS P81E
E. Cisco UCS M51KR-B
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit
300-175 dumps
Fabric Interconnect B is in a primary state. Which IP addresses can you use to connect to Fabric Interconnect B?
A. 10.0.0.198, 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200
B. 10.0.0.199 only
C. 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200 only
D. 10.0.0.200 only
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions.To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel. There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.
300-175 dumps
300-175 dumps
300-175 dumps
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. Which of the following user roles allows the permission Clear All Logs?
A. read-only
B. user
C. operator
D. system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 34
Which two statements about Call Home are true? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual IP address of the Cisco UCS Manager in a cluster is the source of the email.
B. In a cluster configuration, at least one fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity.
C. The fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity to email server or the destination HTTP server
D. At least one destination profile must be configured.
E. Call Home requires SCP to transfer the files securely.
300-175 exam Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 35
You have a Cisco UCS server connected to Cisco Fabric Interconnects. Which two options are characteristics of a virtual machine that is deployed by using VMFEX in high- performance mode in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine connects to a Cisco VIF on the external switch by using Cisco VN- Link in hardware, bypassing the hypervisor.
B. The dynamic vNIC can connect redundantly by using hardware-based failover to the Cisco UCS Fabric
interconnect cluster.
C. Dynamic vNICs inherit parameters from static vNICs
D. The virtual machine can share the same dynamic vNIC with another virtual machine in VMFEX highperformance mode
E. The virtual machine deployed in VM-FEX high-performance mode runs on the host by using the default
BIOS policy that is available in the Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In high-performance mode, traffic to and from a virtual machine (VM) bypasses the DVS and hypervisor. Traffic travels directly between VMs and the virtual interface card (VIC) adapter.
The benefits of high-performance mode are as follows:
-Increases I/O performance and throughput.
-Decreases I/O latency.
-Improves CPU utilization for virualized I/O-intensive applications. You must modify or create several policies in order for VM-FEX for VMware to function optimally:
-VMwarePassThrough Ethernet Adapter Policy (high-performance mode only) -Dynamic vNIC Connection Policies
-BIOS Policy (high-performance mode only)
-VM Lifecycle Policy
Dynamic vNICs are always protected in Cisco UCS, but this field allows you to select a preferred fabric, if any. You can choose one of the following:
-Protected Pref A–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric A but fails over to fabric B if necessary
-Protected Pref B–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric B but fails over to fabric A if necessary Protected–Cisco UCS uses whichever fabric is available Reference:

QUESTION 36
Which configuration must be made to run the fabric interconnects as a vPC pair?
A. The Ethernet mode must be set to switching.
B. The Layer 1 and Layer 2 cables must be configured as a vpc
C. The fabric interconnects cannot run as a VPC pair
D. The ethernet mode must be set to end host
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 37
Which statement about Adapter FEX is true?
A. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the server.
B. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the hypervisor.
C. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the FEX port.
D. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the VM.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements about the maintenance policy configurations available from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI are true? (Choose two.)
A. A maintenance policy can be defined for the service profile associated to a server and for updating a service profile bound to one or more service profiles.
B. A maintenance policy is used to configure a nondisruptive upgrade of the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
C. A maintenance policy can defer the direct deployment of firmware images for components that use neither the host firmware nor the management firmware packages available in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as fabric interconnects and IOMs.
D. A maintenance policy can deploy service profile changes immediately, when acknowledged by an admin user or automatically at the time specified in the schedule.
E. A maintenance policy can be used only to apply nondisruptive service profile changes to servers.
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 40
An admin wants to make sure that for each VLAN added to a vNIC, a static MAC address entry is added to the fabric interconnect. Which setting within Cisco UCS Manager accomplishes this task?
A. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
B. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to All Host VLANs.
C. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to All Host VLANs.
D. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
E. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to All Host VLANs.
F. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Exam Code: 300-175
Exam Name:

DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)

Q&As: 294

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[2018 Certification Dumps] Latest Cisco 642-999 Dumps DCUCI Exam CCNP Data Center Youtube Study Guide Free Download 173Q&As [33 to 53]

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QUESTION 33
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume
642-999 exam 
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 34
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 35
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
642-999 dumps 
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 36
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 37
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
642-999 pdf 
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 38
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 39
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v
642-999 vce 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 41
Which two VMware features must be turned off in the data center cluster for Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough to operate? (Choose two.)
A. VMCI
B. DRS
C. FT
D. HA
E. vMotion
642-999 exam 
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 42
A perpetual inventory system uses a minimum quantity on hand to initiate purchase ordering procedures for restocking. In reviewing the appropriateness of the minimum quantity level established by the stores department, the internal auditor is least likely to consider
A. Stockout costs, including lost customers.
B. Seasonal variations in forecasting inventory demand.
C. Optimal order sizes determined by the economic order quantities model.
D. Available storage space and potential obsolescence.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic economic order quantity EOQ) model is based on the following variables: demand,variable cost per purchase order, and variable unit carrying cost. Thus, minimum stockinglevels do not affect the EOQ.

QUESTION 43
An organization must manage its flows of raw materials, components, finished goods, services, or information through intermediaries to ultimate consumers. These flows may occur across the functions in an organization’s:
A. Supply chain.
B. Value chain.
C. Logistic chain.
D. Integrated chain.
642-999 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The supply chain consists of flows from sources of a) raw materials, b) components, c)finished goods, d) services, or e) information through intermediaries to ultimate consumers.
These flows and the related activities may occur across the functions in an organization’svalue chain R&D, design, production, marketing, distribution, and customer service). Theseflours and the related activities also may occur across separate organizations.

QUESTION 44
The bullwhip, or whiplash, effect on inventories begins when retailers face uncertain demand from consumers caused by randomness in buying habits. It can be avoided by:
A. The need to purchase or manufacture goods in cost-efficient batches.
B. Changes in price that may encourage purchases in anticipation of future increases.
C. Shortages that may lead to rationing by suppliers or manufacturers and hoarding bymanufacturers or retailers.
D. Sharing of information and coordination among the organizations in the supply chain.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sharing information about sales, inventory, pricing, advertising campaigns, and salesforecasts by all functions and organizations in the supply chain moderates demanduncertainty for all parties. The desired results are a) minimization of inventories held bysuppliers, manufacturers, and retailers; b) avoidance of stackouts; c) fewer rush orders; andd) production as needed by retailers.

QUESTION 45
A desired result of the sharing of information by all functions and organizations in the supply chain is:
A. Fewer rush orders.
B. Maximization of inventories held by suppliers, manufacturers, and retailers.
C. Stockouts.
D. Incompatibility of the information systems of the parties.
642-999 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sharing information about sales, inventory, pricing, advertising campaigns, and salesforecasts by all functions and organizations in the supply chain moderates demanduncertainty for all parties. The desired results are a) minimization of inventories held bysuppliers, manufacturers, and retailers; b) avoidance of stackouts; c) fewer rush orders; andd) production as needed by retailers.

QUESTION 46
Which of the following are intermediaries between sellers and buyers?
I.Agent
II. Broker
III. Consignee I. Consumer
A. I and II only.
B. I and III only.
C. I, II, and III only.
D. I, II, III, and Isl.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A distribution channel is a series of interdependent marketing institutions that facilitate thetransfer of a product from producer seller) to consumer buyer). Intermediaries includemerchant middlemen, agents, brokers, consignees, and facilitating intermediaries.

QUESTION 47
The channel structure in which producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system is a:
A. Horizontal distribution system.
B. Vertical distribution system.
C. Unilateral distribution system.
D. Multichannel system.
642-999 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In vertical distribution systems, producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system. Channel conflict is managed through common ownership, contractual relationships, oradministration by one or a few dominant channel members. Horizontal distribution systemsconsist of two or more companies at one level of the channel working together to exploit newopportunities, such as the introduction of ATMs in supermarkets. The joint nature ofhorizontal distribution efforts is the tool for managing channel conflict. In a multichannelsystem, a single firm sets up two or more channels to reach one or more customer segments. Because such a system is managed by a single firm, channel conflicts can be evaluated andmanaged internally.

QUESTION 48
Which of the following channel structures have the best means of managing channel conflict?
I.Conventional
II. Vertical
III. Horizontal
IV. Multichannel

A. I andII.
B. II, III, and IV.
C. I, III, and IV.
D. II and III.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In vertical distribution systems, channel conflict is managed through common ownership,contractual relationships, or administration by one or a few dominant channel members. Thejoint nature of horizontal distribution efforts is the tool for managing channel conflict. In amultichannel system, because such a system is managed by a single entity, channel conflictscan be evaluated and managed internally. Conventional distribution systems consist of one ormore independent producers, wholesalers, and retailers, each of which is a separate profitmaximizingbusiness. The profit objective of each independent channel member may resultin actions that are not profit-maximizing for the system as a whole, and the conventionaldistribution system offers no means for controlling channel conflict.

QUESTION 49
The airlines have been leaders in the use of technology. Customers can make reservations either with an airline or through a travel agency. In this situation, a travel agency is classified as which type of distribution channel?
A. An intermediary.
B. A jobber.
C. A distributor.
D. A facilitating agent.
642-999 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Marketing intermediaries assist companies in promoting, selling, and distributing their goodsand services to ultimate consumers. For example, travel agents access an airline’scomputerized reservation system and make reservations for their customers without evertaking title to the ticket.

QUESTION 50
Physical distribution is the moving of finished products to:
A. Retail outlets.
B. Shipping point.
C. Consumers.
D. Warehouses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical distribution is the efficient management of supply chains. It controls value-addedflows from suppliers to consumers.

QUESTION 51
Intensive distribution is most likely to be used for:
A. Shopping goods.
B. Specialty goods.
C. Convenience goods.
D. Unsought goods.
642-999 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Convenience goods are consumer goods and services that are usually low-priced and I widelyavailable. Consumers buy them often and with a minimum of comparison and effort. Examples are soap and newspapers. Producers of convenience goods ordinarily use intensivedistribution to sell their products through a large number of retail or
wholesale units.

QUESTION 52
A distribution channel moves goods from producers to customers. Suppose a channel has four producers, each serving the same four customers, and no middlemen. If a distributor is introduced, the number of contacts among producers, customers, and the distributor) in the channel will:
A. Be unaffected.
B. Decrease from 8 to 4.
C. Increase from 8 to 16.
D. Decrease from 16 to 8.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The number of contacts without a distributor is 16 four producers four customers). Thenumber with a distributor is 8 four producers +four customers). Thus, the effort required ofproducers and consumers is reduced by the distributor, thereby increasing marketingefficiency.

QUESTION 53
Which of the following is not a component of physical distribution?
A. Transportation.
B. Pricing.
C. Location of retail outlets.
D. Warehousing.
642-999 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical distribution market logistics) involves planning, implementing, and controlling themovement of materials and final goods to meet customer needs while earning a profit. Physical distribution systems coordinate suppliers, purchasing agents, marketers, channels,and customers. They include warehousing, transportation, and retail outlets.

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QUESTION 35
A network engineer is troubleshooting and configures the ASA logging level to debugging. The logging-buffer is dominated by %ASA-6-305009 log messages. Which command suppresses those syslog messages while maintaining ability to troubleshoot?
A. no logging buffered 305009
B. message 305009 disable
C. no message 305009 logging
D. no logging message 305009
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which option describes the purpose of the input parameter when you use the packet-tracer command on a Cisco device?
A. to provide detailed packet-trace information
B. to specify the source interface for the packet trace
C. to display the trace capture in XML format
D. to specify the protocol type for the packet trace
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which two options are two purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace
C. to inject virtual packets into the data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to correct dropped packets in a production network
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which set of commands enables logging and displays the log buffer on a Cisco ASA?
A. enable logging show logging
B. logging enable show logging
C. enable logging int e0/1 view logging
D. logging enable logging view config
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which command displays syslog messages on the Cisco ASA console as they occur?
A. Console logging <level>
B. Logging console <level>
C. Logging trap <level>
D. Terminal monitor
E. Logging monitor <level>
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which set of commands creates a message list that includes all severity 2 (critical) messages on a Cisco security device?
A. logging list critical_messages level 2 console logging critical_messages
B. logging list critical_messages level 2
  logging console critical_messages
C. logging list critical_messages level 2 logging console enable critical_messages
D. logging list enable critical_messages level 2 console logging critical_messages
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
An administrator is deploying port-security to restrict traffic from certain ports to specific MAC addresses. Which two considerations must an administrator take into account when using the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration will be updated with MAC addresses from traffic seen ingressing the port. The configuration will automatically be saved to NVRAM if no other changes to the configuration have been made.
B. The configuration will be updated with MAC addresses from traffic seen ingressing the port. The configuration will not automatically be saved to NVRAM.
C. Only MAC addresses with the 5th most significant bit of the address (the ‘sticky’ bit) set to 1 will be learned.
D. If configured on a trunk port without the ‘vlan’ keyword, it will apply to all vlans.
E. If configured on a trunk port without the ‘vlan’ keyword, it will apply only to the native vlan.
300-206 vce Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 198
You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 2.0.
You configure the application at the following levels:
l Root Web
l Web application root directory
l Web site
l Web application subdirectory
In which of the following files will these levels be stored?
A. Manhine.config
B. Proxy auto-config
C. ApplicationName.config
D. Web.config
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 199
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You create a Console application named ConsoleApplication4. You use the System.Security.Cryptography namespace. You want to use the key lengths of 384 bits to 16384 bits. You use RSACryptoServiceProvider class to encrypt and decrypt data. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, true);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,false);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
B.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, false);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,false);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
C.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, false);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,true);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
D.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, true);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,true);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
300-206 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 200
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create an application that will be used by all the branches of the company. You use the Regex class in the application to validate some strings. You want to search an input string for an occurrence of a regular expression. Which of the following methods of the Regex class will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Matches
B. Match
C. IsMatch
D. Equals
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 201
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are developing an application using .NET Framework 2.0. You are required to use a datatype that will store only the numbers. The numbers should be in positive form and should not be larger than 65,535. Which of the following datatypes will you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. System.UInt16
B. ushort
C. System.Int16
D. int
E. short
300-206 dumps Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 202
Mark works as a Software Developer for BlueWell Inc. He is required to create a class, named Members. Each element of this class has a unique ID stored in a database field, named Member_ID. Which of the following options will he use to represent Member_ID, while designing the Members class?
A. Event
B. Method
C. Function
D. Property
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 203
George works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates an application named App1 using Visual Studio .NET. App1 uses the version 2.0.0.0 of an assembly named Assembly1. However, he wants App1 to use a new version i.e. 2.1.0.0 of Assembly1. Therefore, he needs to specify Assembly1’s location so that App1 can use version 2.1.0.0 of Assembly1. What will George use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The <probing> element.
B. A managed code.
C. The <codeBase> element.
D. An unmanaged code.
300-206 pdf Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 204
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You use C# .NET to develop a windows application. The application will implement a role-based authorization scheme that is based on a Microsoft SQL Server database of user names. Users will enter their names in a text box named UserName. You must ensure that users are assigned the supervisor role and the PG role by  default. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task?
A. GenericIdentity identity = new GenericIdentity(UserName.Text);
string[] RoleArray = {“Supervisor”, “PG”};
WindowsPrincipal principal = new WindowsPrincipal(identity);
B. WindowsIdentity identity = new WindowsIdentity.GetAnonymous();
string[] RoleArray = {“Supervisor”, “PG”};
WindowsPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, RoleArray);
C. GenericIdentity identity = new GenericIdentity(UserName.Text);
string[] RoleArray = {“Supervisor”, “PG”};
GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, RoleArray);
D. WindowsIdentity identity = new WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent();
string[] RoleArray ={“Supervisor”, “PG”}; GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, RoleArray);
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 205
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create the definition for a Car class by using the following code segment:
public class Car {
[XmlAttribute(AttributeName = “category”)]
public string CarType;
public string model;
[XmlIgnore]
public int year;
[XmlElement(ElementName = “mileage”)]
public int miles;
public ConditionType condition;

public Car() {
}
public enum ConditionType {
[XmlEnum(“Poor”)] BelowAverage,
[XmlEnum(“Good”)] Average,
[XmlEnum(“Excellent”)] AboveAverage
}}
You create an instance of the Car class. You fill the public fields of the Car class as shown in the table below:
You are required to recognize the XML block that is produced by the Car class after serialization. Which of the following XML blocks represents the output of serializing the Car class?
A. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema”
category=”sedan”>
<model>racer</model>
<mileage>15000</mileage>
<condition>Excellent</condition>
</Car>
B. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema”>
<category>sedan</category>
<model>racer</model>
<mileage>15000</mileage>
<condition>Excellent</condition>

</Car>
C. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema””
CarType=”sedan”>
<model>racer</model>
<miles>15000</miles>
<condition>AboveAverage</condition>
</Car>
D. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema”
category=”sedan”>
<model>racer</model>
<mileage>15000</mileage>
<conditionType>Excellent</conditionType>
</Car>
300-206 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 206
You work as a Software Developer for Blue Well Inc. You create a mobile Web application for mobile users. You want to ensure that a cookieless session is implemented on it. Which of the following statements are the main reasons of implementing a cookieless session on a mobile Web application? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Tests mobile Web applications
B. Stores data in Web server memory
C. Ensures better compatibility with mobile devices
D. Maintains session state of each user
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 207
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. You create a Windows application using the .NET Framework. You create a database to maintain the record of the students. You create a table named Student. You want to retrieve names and roll number of those students whose age is less than ten years. An instance of the SqlCommand class named StudentCommand is already created. Which of the following code segments should you use to execute the query?
A. StudentCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; StudentCommand.CommandText = “SELECT Name, Roll number FROM Student WHERE Age <10”;
B. StudentCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
StudentCommand.CommandText = “Name and Roll number of students less than ten years”;
C. StudentCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text;
StudentCommand.CommandText = “SELECT Name, Roll number FROM Student WHERE Age <10”;
D. StudentCommand.CommandText = CommandText.Text;
StudentCommand.CommandType = “SELECT Name, Roll number FROM Student WHERE Age <10”;
300-206 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 208
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are developing the data access component that all applications in your company intranet will use to access Microsoft SQL Server. You must include code to correctly catch and iterate through any number of errors that could be encountered when
connecting to SQL Server. Which code segment should you choose?
A. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)){
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
} catch (SqlException ex) {
foreach (SqlError error in ex.Errors) {
// handle the exception…
}
} finally {
// clean up

}
}
B. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)){
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (SqlException ex) {
foreach (SqlError error in ex.Errors) {
// handle the exception…
}
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
} finally {
// clean up
}
}
C. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString))}
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (SqlException ex) {
switch (ex.Number) {
case 1:
// handle the exception…
break;
default:
// handle the exception…
break;
}
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
}
}
D. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)){
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (SqlException ex) {
switch (ex.Number) {
case 1:
// handle the exception…

break;
default:
// handle the exception…
break;
}
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
} finally {
// clean up
}
}
Answer: B

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QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit

300-115 dumps

which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?
A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into err
disabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port

B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 180
What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 181
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
300-115  exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 182
Question about trunk configuration
int faX/X
switchport trunk allowed vlan x,x,x,x
switchport mode trunk
exit
show vlan
VLAN Name Status Ports
1 default active Fa0/1, Fa0/3, Fa0/3, FaX/X show interface trunk (no output)
A. link is shutdown
B. interface needs no shutdown
C. other side is configured as access port
D. missing switchport command

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 183
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The
application will perform security related operations. You want to manage the role-based security in the application. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the StackTrace property.
B. Use the Process class.
C. Use the WindowsIdentity class.
D. Use the WindowsPrincipal class.
300-115  dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 184
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company. You sometimes require a variable number of arguments to be passed to a method. For example, you may require a sum method, which calculates the total of the numbers passed to it no matter how many numbers are passed. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the out keyword.
B. Use the base keyword.
C. Use the volatile keyword.
D. Use the params keyword.
E. Use the ref keyword.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 185
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create a remoting application that provides stock information to customers using .NET Framework. The server component raises an event on the client computer when certain conditions are met. You must ensure that the server raises exactly one event for each client application that is registered for the event. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the server class as a SingleCall Activated Object (SAO) and check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
B. Configure the server class as a Singleton Activated Object (SAO) and check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
C. Configure the server class as a Client Activated Object (CAO) and override the CreateObjRef method to check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
D. Configure the server class as a Client Activated Object (CAO) and check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
300-115 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 186
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You are creating an assembly named Assem1 using .NET Framework. Assem1 contains a public method. The global cache contains a second assembly named Assem2. You need to ensure that the public method is only called from Assem2. Which of the following permission classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. DataProtectionPermission
B. PublisherIdentityPermission
C. StrongNameIdentityPermission
D. GacIdentityPermission
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 187
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. The application is used to map HTTP requests to HTTP handlers based on a file name extension. You need to ensure that each HTTP handler processes individual HTTP URLs or groups of URL extensions in the application. Which of the following built-in HTTP handlers will you use to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Web service handler (*.asmx)
B. Generic handler (*.ashx)
C. Generic Web handler (*.ashx)
D. ASP.NET page handler (*.aspx)
E. Trace handler (trace.axd)
300-115 vce 
Answer: A,C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following code snippets is an example of tight encapsulation?
A. protected int x;
protected void fun(){x=5;}
B. int x;
public void fun(){x=5;}
C. public int x;
public void fun() {x=5;}
D. private int x;
public void fun(){x=5;}
E. private int x;
private void fun(){x=5;}
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 189
John works as a Web Developer for ABC Inc. He develops an ASP.NET application, named MyApp1, using Visual Studio .NET. The application will be used in the Sales department to generate monthly reports. John wants to deploy the application on the company’s intranet. The company uses Microsoft Windows authentication. John wants to deny access to all the members of the Guest1 role. Which of the following attributes will he use in the <authorization> element of the application’s Web.config file to accomplish the task?
A. <deny=”Guest1″ />
B. <deny users=Guest1(“All”) />
C. <deny users=”Guest1″ />
D. <deny roles=”Guest1″ />
300-115  exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 190
You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. You write code in the application and execute it, but it caused an error. Now, you want to find out the reason that has thrown the exception. Which of the following properties will you use to accomplish this task?
A. Message
B. TraceSwitch
C. Data
D. Source
E. StackTrace
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 191
You work as an Application Developer for ABC. The company uses Visual Studio .NET Framework 3.5 as its application development platform. You are working on enhancements to an existing WPF application. One problem you have been encountering is that users of the current version routinely enter invalid data, and since the controls use data binding, that data either gets put in the database incorrectly, or in some cases generates a database error. You want to incorporate validation with your data bound controls. Which of the following choices is the best way to accomplish this goal?
A. Use the default error template and implement it when binding the individual controls to the data source.
B. Assign validator controls to each control you wish to validate, and incorporate those in the binding of that control to the data source.
C. Use a custom error template and implement it when binding the individual controls to the data source.
D. Assign validator controls to each control you wish to validate, and set the validation properties to indicate what constitutes valid data.
300-115 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 192
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You create a Console application to create multiple satellite assemblies. Which of the following statements about satellite assemblies are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. They do not contain any executable code.
B. They are used to deploy language-specific resources for an application.
C. The Assembly Linker tool is used to compile .resources files into satellite assemblies.
D. An application can have only one satellite assembly.
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 193
Julia works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. She develops an application using Visual Studio .NET. The application uses a method named MyMethod, which is located in an unmanaged DLL. Julia wants MyMethod to require the application to allocate unmanaged memory, fill the data, and pass the memory address to the application. She also wants to ensure that on returning from MyMethod, the application de-allocates the unmanaged memory. What will Julia do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the methods of the MemoryStream class.
B. Use the Marshal class.
C. Derive a new class from the Stream class, and override the allocation methods.
D. Use a byte array.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 194
Maria works as a Software Developer for BlueWell Inc. She develops an application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. The application displays employee details from a SQL Server database.
Maria wants to use a string
array, named MyArray, in the application code to store employee names. Which of the following statements will she use to declare MyArray?
A. string MyArray[9] = new string;
B. string[] MyArray = new string[0 to 9];
C. string[] MyArray = new string[9];
D. Option Base 1
string[] MyArray = new string[9];
E. Option Base 0
string[] MyArray = new string[9];
300-115 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 195
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You need to represent a strongly typed lambda expression as a data structure in the form of an expression tree. Which of the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MethodCallExpression
B. Expression
C. LambdaExpression
D. Expression(TDelegate)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 196
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You have created a console application that uses two threads, named thread1 and thread2. You need to modify the code to prevent the execution of thread1 until thread2 completes its execution. Which of the following steps will you take to accomplish this task?
A. Call the SpinWait() method of thread1.
B. Use a WaitCallBack delegate to synchronize the threads.
C. Call the sleep() method of thread1.
D. Configure thread1 to run at a lower priority.
E. Configure thread2 to run at a higher priority.
300-115 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 197
You work as a Software Developer for Hi-Tech Inc. You develop an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. You create an unregistered COM DLL file named Com1.dll. You want to use this
Com1.dll file in your application code. However, Com1.dll needs to be registered in the Windows Registry before it is used by the application. Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Wsdl.exe
B. Regsvr32.exe
C. Tlbimp.exe
D. Disco.exe
Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy.
A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase
B. Test training needs for the project resources
C. The test design techniques to be used
D. Test performance indicators
E. The test schedule
300-165 exam Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
B. Targets certain types of faults
C. Will guide experienced testers to find defects
D. Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
E. More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
F. Will make non-systematic testing redundant
G. Will reduce the need for early reviews
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4
What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits
A. 16
B. 2
C. 1
D. 63
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk?
A. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
C. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
D. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v. Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence?
A. i, ii, iv, vi
B. ii, i, v, vi
C. ii, v, i, iii
D. i, iv, v, vi
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing?
A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively?
A. By providing training in the payroll domain
B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
D. By providing training on reviewing requirements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why?
A. A person with the ability to complete tasks
B. A quality assurance officer
C. A person with in-depth technical skills
D. A person who brings new ideas to the team
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit
A. They are a cheap resource
B. They have good testing skills
C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team?
A. Provide more time for testing in the schedule
B. Allow people to take some time off
C. Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase
D. Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits
A. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
C. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
D. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations?
A. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
B. Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
C. Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
D. Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit
A. Test environment more complex
B. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
C. Clear channels of communications
D. Possibly different cultures
E. Testing of non-functional requirements
F. Audit trail from requirements to test cases
G. Applying test automation
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project.
A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations
B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system
C. Activities to deploy the system in the user environment
D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
E. Development activities for unit and integration testing
F. Reviews on requirements documentation
G. Defining test environment requirements for system testing
300-165 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate?
A. Test planning
B. Test execution
C. Test management
D. Test design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons.
A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
E. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
F. It builds on large set of historical data
G. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
300-165 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 19
Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project?
A. Quality of the specification

B. Availability of end-users
C. The costs of hardware and tools
D. Unknown input quality due to third party development
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi?
A. 5 maturity levels
B. Focussed on higher level testing
C. 20 key areas
D. Highly related to CMMI
E. Continuous model
F. Staged model
G. Focussed on component and integration testing
H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 21
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
A. ISO 9126
B. IEEE 829
C. BS 7925/2
D. DO-178B
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi?
A. If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
B. If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.
C. TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.
D. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations?
A. Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
B. Defined according to the maturity model used

C. Most visible to stakeholders
D. Low costs actions first
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 6
In a default OS X configuration, you want to change the way that Finder handles ZIP archives. Where can you make that change?
A. System Preferences
B. Disk Utility Preferences
C. Archive Utility Preferences
D. Finder Preferences
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A user named Robert has an existing user account. The user name associated with his account is Robert. Robert wants to use Bob as his user name when accessing some of the services provided by a Mac running OS X Server. How can you accommodate his request?
A. In Workgroup Manager, click Settings and add a rule to the Services list that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
B. In Workgroup Manager, create a new user with the user name Bob. Select the Robert account, and add the new Bob account to the list in the Aliases pane.
C. In Server app, go to the Advanced Options pane for Robert’s account, and add Bob as an alias.
D. In Server app, add a rule to the Services list in the Settings pane that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
On an OS X Mountain Lion computer with OS X Server installed, you have created a share point named “Finance Dept” that contains a folder named “Reports.” The permissions for both are shown below. Chris is not a member of the Finance group, but you would like her to have access to the Finance Dept share point. In Server app, you select the server, click the Storage tab, select the Finance Dept folder, and modify its permissions a shown below.
After changing the permissions on the share point, what access will Chris have to the reports Folder in the share point?
A. None
B. B.Read & Write
C. Write-only
D. Read-only

642-998 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which utility is on the OS X Recovery partition?
A. Firmware Password Utility
B. Boot Camp Assistant
C. Activity Monitor
D. Console
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the function of Gatekeeper?
A. To prevent users from opening untrusted applications.
B. To prevent users from downloading untrusted applications.
C. To prevent users from installing untrusted applications.
D. To prevent users from installing viruses and trojan horses.
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
642-998 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines

C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
642-998 dumps 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19. What unique code is used to distinguish each Symbian based application installed on a device?
A.UID
B.IMEI
C.SymbianID
D.SID
E.SSID
F.DeviceID
Answer: A
QUESTION 20. What does GPRS stand for in the mobile industry?
A.General Packet Radio Services
B.General Packet Radar Systems
C.General Packet Radio Systems
D.General Packet Radar Services
E.Global Positioning Radio Services
F.Global Positioning Radio Systems
642-998 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which process will let you start up a Mac in target disk mode?
A. Open the Startup Disk preferences, click Target Disk Mode, and then click Restart.
B. Hold down the Option key on the keyboard as the Mac starts up, until a dialog appears, then select Target Disk Mode from the dialog.
C. Hold down the S key on the keyboard while the Mac starts up, then enter the command reboot -target.
D. Start up from the OS X Recovery partition, choose Target Disk Mode from the Startup Disk menu, and restart the Mac.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Using Server app, you are configuring email alerts to be sent to an OS X Server system administrator. Which TWO of these server events can you set to trigger an alert? (Select 2)
A. A user has exceeded his or her assigned disk quota for file sharing.
B. New software updates are available for the server.
C. An unsuccessful attempt was made to log in with the root account.
D. A certificate has expired or is about to expire.
E. The number of files on the server has exceeded a specified number.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which tool can you use to verify that a device profile is installed on an OS X Mountain Lion computer?
A. Ticket Viewer
B. The klist command in Terminal
C. Profiles pane in System Preferences
D. Users & Groups pane in System Preferences
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
How can you display the contents of a hidden folder on a mounted volume in Finder?
A. From the Finder menu, choose Preferences, and select “Show hidden items.”
B. Select the volume icon and choose “Show hidden items” from the Action menu.
C. From the View menu, choose “Show hidden items.”
D. From the Go menu, choose “Go to Folder,” enter the path to the hidden folder, and click Go.
642-998 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which statement about Gatekeeper is TRUE?
A. Gatekeeper can ONLY be disabled using a configuration profile.
B. Standard users can bypass Gatekeeper.
C. Only the root user can disable Gatekeeper.
D. Only administrator users can bypass Gatekeeper.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Review the screenshot and answer the question below. You downloaded an app using Safari. When you try to open the app, you see the message shown above. What is a possible explanation?
A. The app was signed using a certificate from an unknown authority.
B. The certificate needed to decrypt this app cannot be found in the keychain.
C. Gatekeeper has recognized that the app was altered after it was signed.
D. The sandbox into which the app was downloaded by the quarantine system has become corrupted.
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which procedure will permit only the Marketing group to access a website hosted on OS X Server?
A. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, add a realm, and enable Allowed Access for the Marketing group.
B. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read-only for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.
C. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read/Write for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.

D. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, and select the Marketing group from the Who Can Access menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install and run OS X Server on an OS X Mountain Lion
computer?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
642-998 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
You configured the Time Machine service on a computer with OS X Server to store backup data on the Data volume. Later you configure the service to store the backup data on a larger volume named Backup Data. How is the backup data handled after the switch to the new backup volume?
A. The next time users back up, new and changed files are backed up to the new volume, along with aliases pointing to the data on the old volume.
B. The next time users back up, all their files are backed up to the new volume.
C. Users are presented with a dialog asking which volume they want to use to store their backup data.
D. OS X Server copies the existing backup data from the old volume to the new volume.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
What are TWO ways administrators can remove a device group profile from an OS X Mountain Lion computer? (Select 2)
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group, click Preferences and click the Delete (-) button.
B. In the Profiles pane in System Preferences, select the profile, and click the Remove (-) button.
C. In Profile Manager, click Device Groups, select the appropriate device group, click Members, and click the Delete (x) button to the right of the member computer.
D. In Server app, select the group, click the Edit (pencil) button in the Group pane, and deselect Manage.
E. In the Profiles tab in Device Manager, select the OS X Mountain Lion computer, select Profiles, select the group, and click the Delete (-) button.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: BE

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Exam Code: 600-509
Exam Name: Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability
Q&As: 112

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Question: 1
See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things. Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
600-509 exam Answer: C
Question: 2
In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B
Question: 3
Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
600-509 dumps Answer: B
Question: 4
Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A
Question: 5
What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
600-509 pdf Answer: C
Question: 6
See the illustration below:
To test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created in accordance with the Data Combination Test. In addition, it has been agreed that less depth testing must be performed. One data pair has been defined that must be fully tested in combination:
car – attraction
Eight test cases are designed using a classification tree.
  Where must the ‘bullets’ for test case 4 be placed?
A. Saturday, fun park, 2nd
B. Sunday, museum, station
C. Sunday, fun park, station
Answer: C
Question: 7
A structured testing approach is characterized by:
providing concrete footholds covering the full scope and describing the complete range of relevant aspects providing a structure, so that it is clear what exactly by whom, when and in what sequence has to be done. What is the fourth characteristic?
A. it delivers insight into and advice on any risks in respect of the quality of the tested system
B. managing test activities in the context of time, money and quality
C. the testing is on the critical path of the total development, as briefly as possible, so that the total lead time of development is shortened
D. to find defects at an early stage
600-509 vce Answer: B
Question: 8
During the Process Cycle Test, the coverage type paths is used. In which way can coverage be varied here?
A. by using boundary values
B. by using a higher or lower test depth level
C. by taking equivalence classes into consideration
Answer: B
Question: 9
Which activity is not part of the Completion phase?
A. updating the testware to be preserved
B. assessing test results
C. evaluating the test process
D. selecting the testware to be preserved
600-509 exam Answer: B
Question: 10
Which type of tool is used in the Execution phase to test a module or component that has a relationship with programs that have not yet been realized?
A. code coverage tool
B. comparator
C. ‘model-based testing’ tool
D. stubs and drivers
Answer: D
Question: 11
For the creation of the central starting point there are several techniques. In the given situation it is necessary that consistency between the data entered is guaranteed. Which of the techniques below is preferable if only one technique may be used?
A. use of production data
B. entering through separate front-end software
C. entering through regular system functions
600-509 dumps Answer: C
Question: 12
See the definition below: The ease with which the information system can be adapted to new requirements of the user and the changing external environment, or to correct errors. Of which quality characteristic is this the definition?
A. manageability
B. flexibility
C. maintainability
Answer: C
Question: 13
See the decision and test situations below:
R = (A AND B) OR C
Which test situation is missing if the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision
coverage is used?

A. Option A
B. Option B
600-509 pdf Answer: B
Question: 14
See the specification below in which a decision point is described:
R = (D OR E) AND F
Use of the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision coverage produces the
following table with test situations:
Which values are missing where the dots are stated (? to make the table complete?
A. 010
B. 011
C. 110
D. 111
Answer: B
Question: 15
See the specification of a discount campaign below:
How many equivalence classes can be distinguished from the above specification?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
600-509 vce Answer: B
Question: 16
The specification of test cases according to a test design technique follows five general steps. Which step is stablishing the starting point?Which step is ?stablishing the starting point?
A. step 2
B. step 3
C. step 4
D. step 5
Answer: C
Question: 17
See the illustration below:
Which test situations can be differentiated when the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?
A. 1-2; 2-3; 3-4; 2-4; 2-5; 2-6; 3-5; 3-6; 4-5; 4-6; 5-6
B. 1-2; 1-3; 1-4; 2-5; 3-5; 4-5; 2-6; 3-6; 4-6
C. 1-2-5; 1-2-6; 1-3-6; 1-3-5; 1-4-6; 1-4-5
600-509 exam Answer: B
Question: 18
Which system development method is agile and contains structured guidelines for development testing?
A. DSDM
B. SDM
C. XP
600-509 dumps Answer: C
Question: 19
See the illustration below:
What is the minimum number of logical test cases generated by the use of the Process Cycle Test if the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9
Answer: C

  • 1.0 Fundamentals of Networking 35% 600-509 Dumps
    1.1 Describe the operation of IP data networks
    1.1.a Describe the purpose and functions of network devices
    1.1.b Identify common applications and their impact on the network
    1.2 Identify basic LAN switching technologies
    1.2.a VLANs
    1.2.b Network segmentation and basic traffic management
    1.3 Describe IP addressing (IPv4 / IPv6)
    1.3.a Basic principles of IP address
    1.3.b Subnets and prefixes
    1.4 Describe IP routing
    1.4.a Understands the basic routing concepts
    1.4.a [i] Differentiate between routing and routing protocols
    1.4.a [ii] Static vs. Dynamic routing
    1.4.a [iii] IP routing table
    1.4.b Understands the difference between routing and switching
    1.5 Describe network data security
    1.5.a TLS basics
    1.5.b Certificates
    1.5.c User/host authentication
    1.6 Troubleshoot host IP configuration
    1.7 Describe network virtualization
    1.8 Describe network assurance technologies
    1.8.a Quality of service
    1.8.b Load balancing
    1.8.c Network proximity
    1.8.d Network availability
    1.9 Describe application-aware networks

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[2017 Certification Dumps] Pass Best Cisco 400-151 Dumps PDF CCIE Data Center Written Exam Video Training With 100% Guarantee

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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 408

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QUESTION 56
Which of the following is an example of an involuntary deduction an employer may be required to retain from an employee’s pay?
A. Tax levy
B. Medicare
C. State income tax
D. Federal income tax
400-151 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 57
Which of the following is described in the statement below? “If an employee is called by the employer for work and there is no work available, the employer may be required by state law or employment agreements to pay for a minimum number of hours of work.”
A. Reporting pay
B. Hazard pay
C. Gross pay
D. Base pay
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.If an employee is called by the employer for work and there is no work available, the employer may be required by state law or employment agreements to pay for a minimum number of hours of work. This is known as reporting pay.Answer option B is incorrect. Hazard pay is additional pay for working in dangerous conditions.Answer option C is incorrect. Gross pay is the amount earned by an employee before taxes are not paid.Answer option D is incorrect. Base pay is the foundation
of an employer’s compensation program because it reflects the value placed on individual jobs by the organization.
QUESTION 58
An employee earning $22,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Which of the following describes this employee?
A. Exempt, based on the executive exemption test
B. Exempt, based on the administrative exemption test
C. Nonexempt, based on the salary basis requirement
D. Nonexempt
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option C is correct.Effective in 2004, employees must be paid a minimum of $455 per week to be exempt from FLSA requirements. This employee earns only $432.69 per week. ($22,500/52 weeks = $432.69.) Although D is also correct, the best answer is the one that explains why. See Chapter 6 for more information.
QUESTION 59
Beth is a nonexempt employee and she earns $17.45 per hour in her job. She has worked 40 hours this week, but management has requested that Beth work seven more hours this weekend. What is the total payment, before taxes, that Beth will be due for her work this week?
A. $820.15
B. $698
C. $1,230.22
D. $881.22
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 60
Which of the following are the benefits of gainsharing programs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Aligns employees to organizational goals
B. Helps the organization to achieve improvement in key performance measures
C. Enhances the focus and awareness of employees
D. Employees are paid on the basis of group performance rather than individual performan
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer options A, B, and C are correct.The benefits of gainsharing programs are as follows:
What is gainsharing?
Gainsharing is a system of management used by a business to get higher levels of performance through the involvement and participation of its people. As performance improves, employees share financially in the gain (improvement). Gainsharing is about people working smarter together and not just working harder.
References:

QUESTION 61
As a HR Professional you must understand the laws and regulations, which affect employee compensation. Which of the following was the first to address a minimum wage for employees?
A. Davis-Bacon Act
B. Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. Portal-to-Portal Act
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 62
John earns $45,200 per year as a mechanic in your organization. The $42,500 per year does not include earnings John may have through shift differentials, benefits, overtime, incentives, and bonuses. Which one of the following terms best describes the $45,200 per year that John earns?
A. Variable pay
B. Hygiene factor pay
C. Base pay
D. Market-demand pay
400-151 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 63
What is the compa-ratio for an employee that earns $75,000 per year, but the midpoint for the role is $85,000 per year?
A. 88 percent
B. 113 percent
C. $10,000 difference
D. 1:88
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 64
Which of the following is an example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan?
A. An excess-deferral plan
B. A target-benefit plan
C. A money-purchase plan
D. A cash-balance plan

400-151 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.An excess-deferral plan makes up the difference between what an executive could have contributed to a qualified plan if there had not been a limit on contributions and how much was actually contributed because of the discrimination test required by ERISA. These plans are nonqualified because they are not protected by ERISA; they are limited to a small group of executives or highly compensated employees. A target-benefit plan (B) is a hybrid with elements of defined- benefit and money-purchase plans. A money-purchase plan (C) defers a fixed percentage of employee earnings. A cash-balance plan (D) combines elements of defined-benefit and defined-contribution plans. See Chapter 6 for more information.
QUESTION 65
COBRA, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, requires some organizations to offer continuation of group health care coverage to employees and family members based on certain qualifying events. How many employees must exist within an organization for COBRA requirements to be enforced?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 66
Robert is the HR Professional for his organization and he’s speaking with the federation chairman about the labor and the direction of unions. What is a federation?
A. A federation is the same as a union.
B. A federation is a group of national unions.
C. A federation is a union that has international members.
D. A federation is the governing body of a union.
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:

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[2017 Certification Dumps] Real Cisco 210-260 Dumps PDF Exam Video Questions And Answers Implementing Cisco Network Security

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION NO: 109
All of the following risk factors for CAD can be modified by a regular and appropriate exercise
training program EXCEPT
A. Advancing age.
B. DM.
C. Hypertension.
D. HDL cholesterol.
210-260 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 110
Emerging risk factors for CAD include
A. Advancing age, family history, and male sex.
B. Impaired fasting glucose, obesity, and hypertension.
C. Lipoprotein(a), advancing age, and male sex.
D. Homocysteine, lipoprotein(a), and fibrinogen.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 111
Theories are used in programs for
A. Giving individuals an exercise prescription.
B. Perceiving rewards of certain behaviors.
C. Self- reevaluation.

D. Providing a conceptual framework for behavioral assessment.
210-260 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
In which stage of motivational readiness is a person who is an irregular exerciser?
A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 113
Setting several short-term goals to attain a long term goal to increase self-efficacy is an example of
A. An application of cognitive-behavioral principles.
B. An evaluation.
C. A relationship to theory.
D. An explanatory theory.
210-260 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
A limitation of psychological theories is
A. They do not reinforce behavior.
B. They leave out important elements (e.g.,sociocultural factors).
C. They make too many assumptions.
D. They cannot evaluate programs.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 115

The idea that intention is the most important determinant of behavior is a central component of the
A. Relapse Prevention Model.
B. Social Cognitive Theory.
C. Theory of Planned Behavior.
D. Transtheoretical Model.
210-260 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 116
In the Social Cognitive Theory, which three major dynamic interacting influences are postulated as
determining behavioral change?
A. Personal, behavioral, and environmental.
B. Reinforcement, commitment, and social support.
C. High-risk situations, social support, and perceived control.
D. Stage of readiness, processes of change, and confidence.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 117
A decisional balance sheet is used to
A. Assess barriers and benefits for physical activity or exercise.
B. Determine a person’s self-efficacy.
C. Determine a person’s readiness to change behavior.
D. All of the above.
210-260 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 118
An individual would not increase self-efficacy by
A. Performance accomplishments.
B. Vicarious experience.
C. Verbal persuasion.
D. Using a decisional balance sheet.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 119
People in which stage are at the greatest risk of relapse?
A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.
210-260 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which of the following strategies can help a person to maintain his or her physical activity?
A. Schedule check-in appointments.
B. Reduce barriers.
C. Increase benefits.
D. Educate regarding different types of exercise.
E. All of the above.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Referrals to other sources may be required if someone
A. Has health problems.
B. Reports symptoms of depression.
C. Has an eating disorder.
D. All of the above.
210-260 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 122
Establishing specific expectations of what you are, willing to do as a counselor and staying
focused on exercise/physical activity issues and behavioral skills related to exercise are strategies
for handling which type of client?

A. Adissatisfied client.
B. A needy client.
C. A hostile client.
D. A shy client.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Encouraging moderate-intensity activity and the accumulation of activity throughout the day are
examples of
A. Relapse prevention counseling.
B. Using the stages of change.
C. Allowing individuality in exercise choices.
D. Addressing the individual’s agenda.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following is an example of a behavioral process in the Transtheoretical Model?
A. Consciousnessraising.
B. Stimulus control
C. Dramatic relief.
D. Environmental reevaluation.
210-260 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 125
One mistake that health care providers and exercise promoters make is to
A. Assume that most individuals are ready to change their behavior.
B. Encourage the accumulation of moderate intensity activity throughout the day.
C. Legitimize a client’s concerns.
D. Use the five A’s strategy for counseling.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 126
The concept of shaping refers to
A. Using self-monitoring techniques (e.g., exercise logs).
B. Using visual prompts (e.g., packing a gym bag the night before) as reminders to exercise.
C. The process for establishing self-efficacy.
D. Setting intermediate goals that lead to a long-term goal.
210-260 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 127
Verbal encouragement, material incentives, self praise, and use of specific contingency contracts
are examples of
A. Shaping.
B. Reinforcement.
C. Antecedent control.
D. Setting goals.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 128
The three functions of the Participant-Centered Education and Counseling Model include
A. Identifying high-risk situations, developing a plan for these situations, and eliminating “all-or
none” thinking.
B. Information gathering, developing a helping relationship, and participant education and
counseling.
C. Exhibiting empathy, legitimizing a client’s concerns, and forming a partnership.
D. Assessing, asking questions, and establishing a supportive relationship.
210-260 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION 129
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks

C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 131
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

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[2017 Certification Dumps] Easily To Pass New Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions Video Training Ensure Success

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION 36
For a Steelhead Mobile solution to work properly, what port needs to be allowed by the device that
Steelhead Mobile is installed on?
A. 7800
B. 7810
C. 7801
D. 7830
E. 7840
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What service needs to be allowed if you are enforcing outbound security in the Steelhead Mobile solution?
A. Rbtdebug.exe
B. Rbtmon.exe
C. Shmobile.exe
D. Rbtsport.exe
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 38
On the Steelhead Mobile Controller, what VPNs require the use of Reorder Intermediate Drivers? (Select 2)
A. Nortel VPN
B. Cisco VPN client
C. Check Point
D. OpenVPN
E. Riverbed VPN client
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39
On the Steelhead Mobile Controller, what is the default setting of Reorder Intermediate Drivers?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled
C. Offline
D. Online
E. Checked
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
How can you provide updates to multiple Steelhead Mobile clients at the same time? (Select 2)
A. Using profiles
B. Using multiple Steelhead Mobile Controllers
C. Using Group IDs
D. Using policies
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 41
On the Steelhead Mobile Controller, when should you use the CIFS option ‘Disable Write Optimization’?
A. When the Steelhead Mobile client does frequent writes to large files
B. An application that expects write-through without asking for it explicitly
C. To increase performance during large updates to files
D. To reduce datastore usage on busy Steelhead Mobile clients
E. To increase performance during directory listings
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which authentication methods are available to the Steelhead Mobile Controller?
A. Local and LDAP
B. Local, NIS, and LDAP
C. Local, RADIUS, and TACACS+
D. Local, RADIUS, and Active Directory
E. NTLM and Kerberos
400-351 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
What information is available in the System Snapshot files on the Steelhead Mobile Controller?
A. A copy of all memory
B. A copy of hardware registers
C. Status indicators
D. System configs and tcpdumps
E. A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 44
When using SSL, what is the purpose of peer authentication?
A. Register peers
B. Confirm the identity of the peer
C. Establish sessions
D. Verify the user permissions
E. Authenticate the client to the server
400-351 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
How does the Steelhead Mobile Controller provide Steelhead Mobile clients with the assigned policies and
policy updates?
A. Using the GID
B. Using the SID
C. Policies are pushed to all clients using IPSec
D. The Steelhead Mobile client needs to be re-installed to update the policies
E. Upon connection to the Steelhead appliance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
The Steelhead Mobile client on your laptop is showing a status of “Firewalled”. What is the problem?
A. Port 7800 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile Controller and the Steelhead appliance
B. Port 7810 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile client and the Steelhead appliance
C. Port 7801 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile client and the Windows TCP Stack
D. Port 7850 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile Controller and the Steelhead appliance
E. Port 7801 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile Controller and the Steelhead appliance
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
The Group ID (GID) links which two policies? (Select 2)
A. Optimization
B. Acceleration
C. Installation
D. Endpoint
E. Assignment
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 48
You would like your Steelhead Mobile clients to automatically detect when they are in a branch office with
a local Steelhead. You have decided that the Steelhead Mobile Client should only optimize connections if
the Steelhead appliance is more than 10 ms away. What is the name of the feature you need to enable?
A. Adapter location awareness
B. Latency licensing awareness
C. Optimization awareness
D. Branch office self-awareness
E. Latency-based location awareness
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
To verify that the Steelhead Mobile client software is running, what process should you look for in the
Windows Task Manager?
A. rbtsport.exe
B. taskmgr.exe
C. svchost.exe
D. services.exe
E. rivmobile.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
A customer with no Steelhead appliances currently deployed wants to test Steelhead Mobile on a client
that connects to corporate through a VPN over the Internet. The customer has the requirement that there
be no network disruptions during the initial testing phase. Which of the following would work?
A. Place a Steelhead appliance in-path behind the WAN router and have the Steelhead Mobile client use
auto-discovery rules
B. Use server-side out-of-path with a Steelhead and use fixed-target rules on the Steelhead Mobile clients
C. Place a Steelhead in-path directly behind the VPN gateway and use auto-discovery on the Steelhead
Mobile client
D. Use server-side out-of-path with the Steelhead Mobile Controller and use a fixed-target on the
Steelhead Mobile client
E. Place the Steelhead Mobile Controller in-path directly behind the VPN gateway and use auto- discovery
on the Steelhead Mobile client
400-351 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.
What configuration option is most relevant on Steelhead A to enable Steelhead Mobile Client R to set up
the most efficient optimized connection to Server B?
A. Enhanced auto-discovery
B. Simplified Routing
C. no in-path peering manual enable
D. in-path rule pass rulenum start
E. in-path peering rule pass rulenum 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.
What option in the Acceleration policy used on Steelhead Mobile Client A will most likely enhance the
users experience connecting to Server B, if Server B is an Exchange 2003 Server?
A. Enable MAPI NSPI
B. Increase the datastore size
C. Enable latency-based location awareness
D. Enable SSL optimization and import the Exchange certificate for Server B into Steelhead B
E. Peering rule rejecting optimization with Steelhead A
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C

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