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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 408

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QUESTION 56
Which of the following is an example of an involuntary deduction an employer may be required to retain from an employee’s pay?
A. Tax levy
B. Medicare
C. State income tax
D. Federal income tax
400-151 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 57
Which of the following is described in the statement below? “If an employee is called by the employer for work and there is no work available, the employer may be required by state law or employment agreements to pay for a minimum number of hours of work.”
A. Reporting pay
B. Hazard pay
C. Gross pay
D. Base pay
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.If an employee is called by the employer for work and there is no work available, the employer may be required by state law or employment agreements to pay for a minimum number of hours of work. This is known as reporting pay.Answer option B is incorrect. Hazard pay is additional pay for working in dangerous conditions.Answer option C is incorrect. Gross pay is the amount earned by an employee before taxes are not paid.Answer option D is incorrect. Base pay is the foundation
of an employer’s compensation program because it reflects the value placed on individual jobs by the organization.
QUESTION 58
An employee earning $22,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Which of the following describes this employee?
A. Exempt, based on the executive exemption test
B. Exempt, based on the administrative exemption test
C. Nonexempt, based on the salary basis requirement
D. Nonexempt
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option C is correct.Effective in 2004, employees must be paid a minimum of $455 per week to be exempt from FLSA requirements. This employee earns only $432.69 per week. ($22,500/52 weeks = $432.69.) Although D is also correct, the best answer is the one that explains why. See Chapter 6 for more information.
QUESTION 59
Beth is a nonexempt employee and she earns $17.45 per hour in her job. She has worked 40 hours this week, but management has requested that Beth work seven more hours this weekend. What is the total payment, before taxes, that Beth will be due for her work this week?
A. $820.15
B. $698
C. $1,230.22
D. $881.22
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 60
Which of the following are the benefits of gainsharing programs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Aligns employees to organizational goals
B. Helps the organization to achieve improvement in key performance measures
C. Enhances the focus and awareness of employees
D. Employees are paid on the basis of group performance rather than individual performan
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer options A, B, and C are correct.The benefits of gainsharing programs are as follows:
What is gainsharing?
Gainsharing is a system of management used by a business to get higher levels of performance through the involvement and participation of its people. As performance improves, employees share financially in the gain (improvement). Gainsharing is about people working smarter together and not just working harder.
References:
QUESTION 61
As a HR Professional you must understand the laws and regulations, which affect employee compensation. Which of the following was the first to address a minimum wage for employees?
A. Davis-Bacon Act
B. Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. Portal-to-Portal Act
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 62
John earns $45,200 per year as a mechanic in your organization. The $42,500 per year does not include earnings John may have through shift differentials, benefits, overtime, incentives, and bonuses. Which one of the following terms best describes the $45,200 per year that John earns?
A. Variable pay
B. Hygiene factor pay
C. Base pay
D. Market-demand pay
400-151 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 63
What is the compa-ratio for an employee that earns $75,000 per year, but the midpoint for the role is $85,000 per year?
A. 88 percent
B. 113 percent
C. $10,000 difference
D. 1:88
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 64
Which of the following is an example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan?
A. An excess-deferral plan
B. A target-benefit plan
C. A money-purchase plan
D. A cash-balance plan
400-151 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.An excess-deferral plan makes up the difference between what an executive could have contributed to a qualified plan if there had not been a limit on contributions and how much was actually contributed because of the discrimination test required by ERISA. These plans are nonqualified because they are not protected by ERISA; they are limited to a small group of executives or highly compensated employees. A target-benefit plan (B) is a hybrid with elements of defined- benefit and money-purchase plans. A money-purchase plan (C) defers a fixed percentage of employee earnings. A cash-balance plan (D) combines elements of defined-benefit and defined-contribution plans. See Chapter 6 for more information.
QUESTION 65
COBRA, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, requires some organizations to offer continuation of group health care coverage to employees and family members based on certain qualifying events. How many employees must exist within an organization for COBRA requirements to be enforced?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 66
Robert is the HR Professional for his organization and he’s speaking with the federation chairman about the labor and the direction of unions. What is a federation?
A. A federation is the same as a union.
B. A federation is a group of national unions.
C. A federation is a union that has international members.
D. A federation is the governing body of a union.
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION NO: 109
All of the following risk factors for CAD can be modified by a regular and appropriate exercise
training program EXCEPT
A. Advancing age.
B. DM.
C. Hypertension.
D. HDL cholesterol.
210-260 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 110
Emerging risk factors for CAD include
A. Advancing age, family history, and male sex.
B. Impaired fasting glucose, obesity, and hypertension.
C. Lipoprotein(a), advancing age, and male sex.
D. Homocysteine, lipoprotein(a), and fibrinogen.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 111
Theories are used in programs for
A. Giving individuals an exercise prescription.
B. Perceiving rewards of certain behaviors.
C. Self- reevaluation.
D. Providing a conceptual framework for behavioral assessment.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
In which stage of motivational readiness is a person who is an irregular exerciser?
A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 113
Setting several short-term goals to attain a long term goal to increase self-efficacy is an example of
A. An application of cognitive-behavioral principles.
B. An evaluation.
C. A relationship to theory.
D. An explanatory theory.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
A limitation of psychological theories is
A. They do not reinforce behavior.
B. They leave out important elements (e.g.,sociocultural factors).
C. They make too many assumptions.
D. They cannot evaluate programs.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 115
The idea that intention is the most important determinant of behavior is a central component of the
A. Relapse Prevention Model.
B. Social Cognitive Theory.
C. Theory of Planned Behavior.
D. Transtheoretical Model.
210-260 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 116
In the Social Cognitive Theory, which three major dynamic interacting influences are postulated as
determining behavioral change?
A. Personal, behavioral, and environmental.
B. Reinforcement, commitment, and social support.
C. High-risk situations, social support, and perceived control.
D. Stage of readiness, processes of change, and confidence.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 117
A decisional balance sheet is used to
A. Assess barriers and benefits for physical activity or exercise.
B. Determine a person’s self-efficacy.
C. Determine a person’s readiness to change behavior.
D. All of the above.
210-260 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 118
An individual would not increase self-efficacy by
A. Performance accomplishments.
B. Vicarious experience.
C. Verbal persuasion.
D. Using a decisional balance sheet.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 119
People in which stage are at the greatest risk of relapse?
A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which of the following strategies can help a person to maintain his or her physical activity?
A. Schedule check-in appointments.
B. Reduce barriers.
C. Increase benefits.
D. Educate regarding different types of exercise.
E. All of the above.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Referrals to other sources may be required if someone
A. Has health problems.
B. Reports symptoms of depression.
C. Has an eating disorder.
D. All of the above.
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 122
Establishing specific expectations of what you are, willing to do as a counselor and staying
focused on exercise/physical activity issues and behavioral skills related to exercise are strategies
for handling which type of client?
A. Adissatisfied client.
B. A needy client.
C. A hostile client.
D. A shy client.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Encouraging moderate-intensity activity and the accumulation of activity throughout the day are
examples of
A. Relapse prevention counseling.
B. Using the stages of change.
C. Allowing individuality in exercise choices.
D. Addressing the individual’s agenda.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following is an example of a behavioral process in the Transtheoretical Model?
A. Consciousnessraising.
B. Stimulus control
C. Dramatic relief.
D. Environmental reevaluation.
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 125
One mistake that health care providers and exercise promoters make is to
A. Assume that most individuals are ready to change their behavior.
B. Encourage the accumulation of moderate intensity activity throughout the day.
C. Legitimize a client’s concerns.
D. Use the five A’s strategy for counseling.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 126
The concept of shaping refers to
A. Using self-monitoring techniques (e.g., exercise logs).
B. Using visual prompts (e.g., packing a gym bag the night before) as reminders to exercise.
C. The process for establishing self-efficacy.
D. Setting intermediate goals that lead to a long-term goal.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 127
Verbal encouragement, material incentives, self praise, and use of specific contingency contracts
are examples of
A. Shaping.
B. Reinforcement.
C. Antecedent control.
D. Setting goals.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 128
The three functions of the Participant-Centered Education and Counseling Model include
A. Identifying high-risk situations, developing a plan for these situations, and eliminating “all-or
none” thinking.
B. Information gathering, developing a helping relationship, and participant education and
counseling.
C. Exhibiting empathy, legitimizing a client’s concerns, and forming a partnership.
D. Assessing, asking questions, and establishing a supportive relationship.
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 129
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 131
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION 36
For a Steelhead Mobile solution to work properly, what port needs to be allowed by the device that
Steelhead Mobile is installed on?
A. 7800
B. 7810
C. 7801
D. 7830
E. 7840
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What service needs to be allowed if you are enforcing outbound security in the Steelhead Mobile solution?
A. Rbtdebug.exe
B. Rbtmon.exe
C. Shmobile.exe
D. Rbtsport.exe
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 38
On the Steelhead Mobile Controller, what VPNs require the use of Reorder Intermediate Drivers? (Select 2)
A. Nortel VPN
B. Cisco VPN client
C. Check Point
D. OpenVPN
E. Riverbed VPN client
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39
On the Steelhead Mobile Controller, what is the default setting of Reorder Intermediate Drivers?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled
C. Offline
D. Online
E. Checked
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
How can you provide updates to multiple Steelhead Mobile clients at the same time? (Select 2)
A. Using profiles
B. Using multiple Steelhead Mobile Controllers
C. Using Group IDs
D. Using policies
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 41
On the Steelhead Mobile Controller, when should you use the CIFS option ‘Disable Write Optimization’?
A. When the Steelhead Mobile client does frequent writes to large files
B. An application that expects write-through without asking for it explicitly
C. To increase performance during large updates to files
D. To reduce datastore usage on busy Steelhead Mobile clients
E. To increase performance during directory listings
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which authentication methods are available to the Steelhead Mobile Controller?
A. Local and LDAP
B. Local, NIS, and LDAP
C. Local, RADIUS, and TACACS+
D. Local, RADIUS, and Active Directory
E. NTLM and Kerberos
400-351 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
What information is available in the System Snapshot files on the Steelhead Mobile Controller?
A. A copy of all memory
B. A copy of hardware registers
C. Status indicators
D. System configs and tcpdumps
E. A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 44
When using SSL, what is the purpose of peer authentication?
A. Register peers
B. Confirm the identity of the peer
C. Establish sessions
D. Verify the user permissions
E. Authenticate the client to the server
400-351 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
How does the Steelhead Mobile Controller provide Steelhead Mobile clients with the assigned policies and
policy updates?
A. Using the GID
B. Using the SID
C. Policies are pushed to all clients using IPSec
D. The Steelhead Mobile client needs to be re-installed to update the policies
E. Upon connection to the Steelhead appliance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
The Steelhead Mobile client on your laptop is showing a status of “Firewalled”. What is the problem?
A. Port 7800 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile Controller and the Steelhead appliance
B. Port 7810 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile client and the Steelhead appliance
C. Port 7801 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile client and the Windows TCP Stack
D. Port 7850 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile Controller and the Steelhead appliance
E. Port 7801 is being blocked between the Steelhead Mobile Controller and the Steelhead appliance
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
The Group ID (GID) links which two policies? (Select 2)
A. Optimization
B. Acceleration
C. Installation
D. Endpoint
E. Assignment
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 48
You would like your Steelhead Mobile clients to automatically detect when they are in a branch office with
a local Steelhead. You have decided that the Steelhead Mobile Client should only optimize connections if
the Steelhead appliance is more than 10 ms away. What is the name of the feature you need to enable?
A. Adapter location awareness
B. Latency licensing awareness
C. Optimization awareness
D. Branch office self-awareness
E. Latency-based location awareness
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
To verify that the Steelhead Mobile client software is running, what process should you look for in the
Windows Task Manager?
A. rbtsport.exe
B. taskmgr.exe
C. svchost.exe
D. services.exe
E. rivmobile.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
A customer with no Steelhead appliances currently deployed wants to test Steelhead Mobile on a client
that connects to corporate through a VPN over the Internet. The customer has the requirement that there
be no network disruptions during the initial testing phase. Which of the following would work?
A. Place a Steelhead appliance in-path behind the WAN router and have the Steelhead Mobile client use
auto-discovery rules
B. Use server-side out-of-path with a Steelhead and use fixed-target rules on the Steelhead Mobile clients
C. Place a Steelhead in-path directly behind the VPN gateway and use auto-discovery on the Steelhead
Mobile client
D. Use server-side out-of-path with the Steelhead Mobile Controller and use a fixed-target on the
Steelhead Mobile client
E. Place the Steelhead Mobile Controller in-path directly behind the VPN gateway and use auto- discovery
on the Steelhead Mobile client
400-351 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.
What configuration option is most relevant on Steelhead A to enable Steelhead Mobile Client R to set up
the most efficient optimized connection to Server B?
A. Enhanced auto-discovery
B. Simplified Routing
C. no in-path peering manual enable
D. in-path rule pass rulenum start
E. in-path peering rule pass rulenum 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.
What option in the Acceleration policy used on Steelhead Mobile Client A will most likely enhance the
users experience connecting to Server B, if Server B is an Exchange 2003 Server?
A. Enable MAPI NSPI
B. Increase the datastore size
C. Enable latency-based location awareness
D. Enable SSL optimization and import the Exchange certificate for Server B into Steelhead B
E. Peering rule rejecting optimization with Steelhead A
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION: 1
Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing Please read this scenario prior to answering the question Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama,
and Seoul. Each of these plants has been operating its own Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling, and custom developed applications that
drive the automated production equipment at each plant. Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it
was determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff. The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation. The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and production scheduling from a central system
located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed. Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario: You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project. One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Rollins was the definition of a set of IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These now need to be updated to address the concerns raised. You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution. [Note: You should assume that Rollins has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.] Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Interoperability, Control Technical Diversity.
B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Responsive Change Management.
C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications,Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure.
D. Information Management is Everybody’s Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology Independence, Responsive Change Management.
300-135 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 2
Scenario: Global Mobile 1
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions,
and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer. Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average.
The Corporate Marketing group has published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in nearly all
markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers. But, customer satisfaction has remained low. The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board. The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture. The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business
unit, the Corporate Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and expanded telecommuting and desk sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future investments at all company facilities worldwide. Refer to Global Mobile scenario You have been engaged
as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to
choose?)
A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework
difficult to manage and govern. This approach to planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.
B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability- Based Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise
level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.
C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability- Based Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be utilized to develop the Solution
Architecture.
D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense related programs. This approach is not appropriate for a private sector company.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
Scenario: AGEX Inc.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the 300-135 dumps question AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions. Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of
integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share information
across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common
application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone. As a result, AGEX has begun
implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services offered to clients and trading partners. The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process. The CIO
has also formed a cross- functional Architecture Review Board to oversee and govern the architecture. After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise
Architecture program. The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management. Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario
You are serving as the Chief Architect. You have been asked to recommend the approach to take in the Preliminary Phase to
ensure that the Corporate Board’s concern is addressed. Based en TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You evaluate the implications of the Board’s concern in terms of regulatory and security policy requirements. You then update the AGEX security policy to reflect the concern, ensuring that this policy is communicated across the organization. You allocate
a security architecture team to ensure that security considerations are included in ongoing architecture planning. You then assess the security implications and agreements within the AGEX businesses and their suppliers.
B. You evaluate the implications of the Board’s concern in terms of regulatory requirements and their impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will address the Board’s
concern. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the solution in the ERP system that is being developed.
C. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising this concern. This enables you to understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team be allocated to develop comprehensive security architecture.
D. You evaluate the implications of the Board’s concern by examining the potential impacts on business goals and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current AGEX security policy to include an emphasis on the Board’s concern. In
addition, you allocate a security architect to ensure that security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 615

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Question No : 16 – (Topic 1) Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?
A. storage arrays such as those from EMC or NetApp, if applicable
B. configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping
C. step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup
D. server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the part
number level
E. configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
400-051 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
What does a TRC definition include?
Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local
storage) at the orderable part number level.
Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) – including battery backup
cache or SuperCap – when the TRC uses DAS storage
Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup (e.g. click here).
Design, installation and configuration of external hardware is not included in TRC
definition, such as:
Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for
VMware software are not included in TRC definition.
Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may
also be leveraged for configuration details not included in the TRC definition.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  In a Cisco EnergyWise domain, which two terms describe a Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint
B. domain member
C. child domain member
D. EnergyWise agent
E. Cisco power distribution unit
400-051 dumps Answer: A,C

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) Company ABC is planning to migrate from MCS-hosted Cisco Unified Communications
Manager applications to Cisco UC on UCS B-Series servers. Which statement about
installation media support is true for this migration?
A. The install log can be written to a USB flash drive that is attached to the UCS server.
B. The answer file that is generated by the Answer File Generator (platformConfig.xml) can
be read from a USB flash drive to perform an unattended installation on the UCS server.
C. The Cisco Music on Hold USB audio sound card can be mapped to a virtual USB port
on a VMware virtual machine on the UCS server.
D. The answer file that is generated by the Answer File Generator (platformConfig.xml) can
be read from an FLP image that is mounted in a virtual floppy drive.
E. The Cisco Music on Hold USB audio sound card can be mapped to a virtual serial port
on a VMware virtual machine on the UCS server.
400-051 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Using the AFG will allow you to get this license mac before even touching the server. It is
provided after filling in the main form of the AFG but it can also be found by looking at the
last few lines of your platformconfig.xml file.
Once you have the xml files, you will need to map those to the floppy drive of the VM (no
usb support on the VM OVA). There are many ways to do this. I simply use a freeware
virtual floppy app that I drop the platformconfig.xml file on and then copy the*.flp image out
to the datastore. I’ll end up with a directory on my datastore called AFG that has the host
named *.flp images that I will use during install. It also serves as archival of these files in
the event the server needs to be re-imaged. This is important because the license mac will
change if every parameter is not entered exactly as it was prior. If the license mac
changes, you will have to go through the process of requesting new license files to be
generated.

Question No : 19 – (Topic 2)  In a SIP REFER-based call transfer, which SIP message is being used by the recipient to
notify the originator that the final recipient was successfully contacted?
A. 200 OK
B. NOTIFY with a message body of 200 OK
C. 202 Accepted
D. 100 Trying
E. 200 BYE
400-051 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
The Refer method always begins within the context of an existing call and starts with the
originator. The originator sends a Refer request to the recipient (user agent receiving the
Refer request) to initiate a triggered Invite request. The triggered Invite request uses the
SIP URL contained in the Refer-To header as the destination of the Invite request. The
recipient then contacts the resource in the Refer-To header (final-recipient), and returns a
SIP 202 (Accepted) response to the originator. The recipient also must notify the originator
of the outcome of the Refer transaction–whether the final-recipient was successfully or
unsuccessfully contacted. The notification is accomplished using the Notify Method, SIP’s
event notification mechanism. A Notify message with a message body of SIP 200 OK
indicates a successful transfer, while a body of SIP 503 Service Unavailable
indicates an unsuccessful transfer. If the call was successful, a call between the
recipient and the final-recipient results.

Question No : 20 – (Topic 2)  Refer to the exhibit.

During a QSIG tunneling over SIP call establishment, which two types of SIP messages
can the OGW use to tunnel a waiting QSIG message? (Choose two.)
A. SIP re-INVITE
B. SIP NOTIFY
C. SIP INFO
D. SIP OPTIONS
E. SIP UPDATE
F. SIP REFER
400-051 dumps Answer: A,E
Explanation:
The TGW sends and the OGW receives a 200 OK response–the OGW sends an ACK
message to the TGW and all successive messages during the session are encapsulated
into the body of SIP INFO request messages. There are two exceptions:
When a SIP connection requires an extended handshake process, renegotiation, or an
update, the gateway may encapsulate a waiting QSIG message into a SIP re-INVITE or
SIP UPDATE message during QSIG call establishment.
When the session is terminated, gateways send a SIP BYE message. If the session is
terminated by notice of a QSIG RELEASE COMPLETE message, that message can be
encapsulated into the SIP BYE message.

Question No : 21 – (Topic 2) Which element was added to H.225 messages to enable Fast Connect in H.323 version 2?
A. fastStart
B. fastConnect
C. H.245 PDU
D. User-User Information
E. Connection Information
400-051 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Fast start allows for H323 media connections to be started at the beginning of a call. This is
helpful for ringback scenarios, and also reduces the amount of time calls take to establish
media. H245 is still negotiated later, but the actual media can be done earlier through H225
messages.

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1)
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 189

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QUESTION: 1
A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
300-070 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the
fieldwork starts, the comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3
An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results
300-070 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess
compliance to a specific requirement at all locations where that requirement is
applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method
Answer: B
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes
that statistical process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations
are done correctly and are regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available
300-070 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
When is it acceptable to grant an extension of the time frame for a corrective
action?
A. When the auditor cannot perform the follow-up audit as scheduled
B. When the auditee determines that the proposed corrective action is not cost
effective
C. When the corrective action plan requires more time than originally
anticipated
D. When there has been a change in operators who perform the task
Answer: C
QUESTION: 7
The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following
types of control charts?
A. p chart
B. u chart
C. np chart
D. c chart
300-070 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
Auditors can use flowcharts in their work in order to
A. analyze the causal factors of process dispersion
B. understand the overall process or system being audited
C. distinguish variations in a process over time
D. determine process capability and uniformity
Answer: B
QUESTION: 9
An auditee responds to a corrective action request by stating that the problem
has never occurred before and is “not the norm for our operation.” Which of the
following is the most appropriate action for the lead auditor?
A. Note that the deficiency is the result of a random occurrence.
B. Draft a response explicitly requesting a more concise root-cause analysis.
C. Confer with the audit client to assess the appropriateness of the response.
D. Schedule a follow-up audit immediately.
300-070 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following is an audit reporting technique for prioritizing audit
findings?
A. Weibull distribution
B. Risk-benefit ratio
C. Cognitive dissonance
D. Ishikawa diagramAnswer: B
QUESTION: 11
Which of the following is most important for an auditor to convey at an initial
audit interview?
A. A give-and-take atmosphere that focuses on compromise
B. A formal approach that is guided by specific roles for each participant
C. An interest in cooperation and open dialogue
D. A personal approach to information gathering
300-070 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
If the audit escort for one area is repeatedly late or unavailable, what is the best
option open to the auditor?
A. Notify the auditee management of the consequences created by the delays.
B. Narrow the scope of the audit to accommodate the delays.
C. Proceed without the escort.
D. Assess system effectiveness using objective evidence from other areas.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a
sample of data?
A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Range
300-070 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION: 14
During the opening meeting, it is the auditee’s responsibility to
A. prepare the meeting agenda
B. set the audit schedule
C. state the audit purpose and scope
D. identify safety requirements
Answer: D
QUESTION: 15
Auditor independence includes freedom from which of the following?
I. Bias
II. Conflict of interest
III. External influences
IV. Previous exposure to the area
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. II, III and IV only
300-070 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 17
Which three items have a calling search space? (Choose three.)
A. transcoder
B. gateways
C. phone lines
D. phones
E. partitions
F. AAR groups
300-070 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 18
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold.
B. Media Resource Manager.
C. Media Resource Group.
D. Route list.
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List.
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 19
Which mechanism is often configured on the edges of a network to control the maximum rate of traffic that
is sent or received on an interface and to classify the traffic into priority levels or class of service?
A. routing
B. shaping
C. policing
D. access control
E. traffic regulation
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two types of encoding are available to configure a T1 controller for CAS? (Choose two.)
A. B8SF
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. SF
E. AME
F. ESF
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION 16
The goal of creating and using Notify User objects is (Choose all that apply)
(a) to deny access to a URL
(b) to deliver a splash page to the clients
(c) to warn a user before allowing access to a URL
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. All of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What can be concluded about this request processing order?
A. ProxyAV Is accessed in ICAP REQMOD mode
B. ProxyAV is accessed ICAP RESPMOO mode
C. ProxySG with ProxyAV is deployed as a forward proxy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following methods is NOT appropriate for the initial setup for a ProxySG 2010 series?
A. Serial console Cable
B. LCD Panel
C. Web Wizard accessing HTTPS port 8083
D. Blue Coat Director applying a profile
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
The default policy for ProxySG is DENY. Network administrator creates a VPM policy allowing access to
some Web host only for certain users (see picture).
When installing this policy, ProxySG issues a warning that this rule will be ignored. What change can be
applied in order to fix this?

A. Add another rule to the Web Access layer creating an exception for users NOT allowed to access the
host.
B. Add another Web Access layer and set its default action to Allow.
C. Add Web Authentication layer with a rule having Force Authenticate action.
D. Add Web content layer with a rule preventing serving content from ProxySG cache to unauthorized
users.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which Instant Messaging proxies are available on the ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) AIM
(b) Jabber
(c) MSN
(d) Yahoo
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. A. c & d only
D. b. c & d only
E. All of the above
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
In SGOS 5.3, what are the two versions that you can opt for? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Proxy Edition
(b) Full Edition
(c)WAN Opt Edition
(d) MACH5 Edition
A. b&c only
B. a, c & d only
C. c & d only
D. a & d only
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What ProxySG appliance has these default settings?
(a) Default policy is ALLOW
(b) Trust client destination IP is ON
(c) Tolerate HTTP errors is ON;
A. Proxy Edition
B. Reverse Proxy Edition
C. MACH5 Edition
D. Trial Edition
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which software product provides Web content filtering for windows and Mac OS computers, is locally
configurable, and can produce a barking sound, when user violates a filtering policy.
A. ProxyAV
B. Blue coat WebFilter
C. Blue Coat k9
D. Blue Coat Director
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What are “unmanaged endpoints’ which make the Blue Coat RA (Remote Access) appliance useful?
A. TCP connection sources or destinations, which are outside our LAN
B. Workstations, which need to be in a virtual private network, but VPN clients cannot beinstalled on them
C. Mobile user laptops, which are used in places not protected by ProxySG
D. Hosts without installed ProxyClient or with disabled ProxyClient
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
HTTP/1.1 supports pipelining – multiple related requests are written to a single TCP socket without waiting
for the responses to come back — i.e. the requests are done asynchronously in-parallel, instead of doing
them sequentially as usual (see picture). Some Web clients such as Opera and Firefox with FasterFox
plugin use HTTP pipelining. Assume that ProxySG Is deployed as a forward proxy listening on port 8080.
A. If an HTTP client tries to use pipelining, the use of proxy will break the HTTP protocol.
B. For those HTTP clients that use pipelining, the use of forward proxy would ensure faster response time
compared to the clients that do not use pipelining.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
If an error occurs during Proxy AV request or response processing, which of the following will occur?
A. The connection will be allowed
B. The connection will be denied
C. The response is determined by the ICAP object properties in policy
D. The response is determined by the ICAP configuration properties in the management console
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
When the ProxySG 200’s power LED indicator alternates between green and amber, it means that the
system is booting.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A parent exception can provide the default values for a child exception.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What is returned to the HTTP request” GET / HTTP/ 1.1 “?
A. The listing of the webroot directory of the Web server
B. The file index.html
C. A file that is configured as a default/welcome file for that Web server
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
What is true immediately after the initial setup of ProxySG?
A. None of the content filtering databases is set up
B. Only the default Blue Coat WebFilter database is set up and available
C. Blue Coat WebFilter database and 3rd party databases are set up and available
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following policies can be applied to Instant Messaging traffic? (Choose all that apply) (a) A
policy to deny the transfer of specific file types or file sizes (b) A policy to deny a specific IM request
method
(c) A policy to deny a key word or words using a regular expression (d) A policy to deny a specific IM
buddy or IM chat room
A. a, b & c only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. All of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which best describes the role of a proxy server?
A. A device that inspects Layer 2 – Layer 4 traffic running through it and denies or permits based on a set
of policies.
B. An intermediary program, which acts as both a server and a client for the purpose of making requests
on behalf of other clients.
C. An intermediary program that protects the resources of a private network from users on other networks.
D. A device that extracts the destination address of a packet, selects ten best path for the packet and
forwards the packet the next device in the path.
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
After the initial boot-up. Blue Coat SGOS will automatically boot into a trial license. What is the duration of
that period?
A. 30 days – trial can be prolonged by CLI command reset-trial
B. 60 days-trial can be prolonged by CU command reset-trial
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Jul 26, 2017
Q&As: 85

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Question No : 16
 What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
200-155 exam Answer: C
Question No : 17
What does the term “5-nines” availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A
Question No : 18
What would be a comprehensive strategy for protecting the most critical racks of a data
center?
A. Key access to the critical racks
B. Video camera pointed directly at critical racks
C. Iris scanner at the entrance to the data center
D. Nested security perimeters with racks at the innermost level
200-155 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 19
What are three advantages of biometric access control? (Choose three.)
A. Cannot be lost
B. Inexpensive to deploy
C. Difficult to fool the sensor
D. Cannot be shared with others
E. Always correctly identifies the user
Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 20
Requiring frequent password changes can compromise security because _____.
A. Users tend to write down frequently changed passwords
B. It makes the password database an easier target for hackers
C. It makes it harder for legitimate users to access their own data
D. It burdens the IT help desk with requests for forgotten or expired passwords
200-155 pdf Answer: A
Question No : 21
What describes the number of times AC current is switched back and forth over a period of
1 second?
A. Voltage
B. Frequency
C. Amperage
D. Power factor
Answer: B
Question No : 22
What describes the ratio of watts to volt-amps?
A. Frequency
B. Power factor
C. Actual
D. Apparent power
200-155 vce Answer: B
Question No : 23
What is defined as the force of electricity moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: A
Question No : 24
What is the unit of measurement of the electrical current moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
200-155 dumps D. Frequency
Answer: B
Question No : 25
What is the unit of measurement of the electrical resistance of a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. FrequencyAnswer: C
Question No : 26
Which statement correctly defines direct current (DC)?
A. Only high voltage is used.
B. Electricity flows in one direction only.
C. The circuit does not have multiple paths.
D. The circuit is directly attached to the power source.
200-155 exam Answer: B
Question No : 27
What is the purpose of grounding?
A. To protect against electric shock
B. To step down 208 V power to 120 V power
C. To maintain the voltage during neutral wire bonding
D. To provide a path for the Ground Fault Interrupt (GFI) circuit
Answer: A
Question No : 28
What is a difference between Single-phase and three-phase power?
A. Single-phase power is flat but three-phase power is sinusoidal.
B. Single-phase power is dependent on power factor but three-phase power is not.
C. Single-phase power is limited to approximately 120 kW but three-phase power is
unlimited.
D. Single-phase power is more costly for the power company to distribute than three-phase
power.
200-155 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 29
What does GFCI mean?
A. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter
B. General Facilities Cooling Index
C. Gaussian Filter Charge Indicator
D. Grounded Flaw Circuitry Installed
Answer: A
Question No : 30
What are three power distribution components found in data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Ground loop
B. Branch circuit
C. Metered outlet strip
D. Power distribution unit (PDU)
E. Valve regulated lead acid (VRLA) battery
200-155 vce Answer: B,C,D
Question No : 31
How is the problem of Electro-Static Discharge(ESD) in the data center solved?
A. By installing TVSS devices
B. By installing RCD breakers in the PDU
C. By connecting bimetallic strips to all racks
D. By insulating IT equipment with rubber bushings
Answer: A

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