Category: Microsoft

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Q1:

You have a Microsoft Power Bl report. The size of the PBIX file is 550 MB. The report is accessed by using an App workspace in the shared capacity of powerbi.com.

The report uses an imported dataset that contains one fact table. The fact table contains 12 million rows. The dataset is scheduled to refresh twice a day at 08:00 and 17:00.

The report is a single page that contains 15 custom visuals and 10 default visuals.

Users say that the report is slow to load the visuals when they access and interact with the report

You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of the report.

What should you recommend?

A. Replace the default visuals with AppSource visuals.

B. Change any DAX measures to use iterator functions.

C. Remove unused columns from tables in the data model.

D. Increase the number of times that the dataset is refreshed

Correct Answer: C

DirectQuery: No data is imported or copied into Power BI Desktop. Import: The selected tables and columns are imported into Power BI Desktop. As you create or interact with a visualization, Power BI Desktop uses the imported data.

Benefits of using DirectQuery

There are a few benefits to using DirectQuery:

DirectQuery lets you build visualizations over very large datasets, where it would otherwise be unfeasible to first import all the data with pre-aggregation. Underlying data changes can require a refresh of data.

For some reports, the need to display current data can require large data transfers, making reimporting data unfeasible. By contrast, DirectQuery reports always use current data.

The 1-GB dataset limitation doesn’t apply to DirectQuery.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-use-directquery

---

Q2:

DRAG DROP

You are building a dataset from a JSON file that contains an array of documents.

You need to import attributes as columns from all the documents in the JSON file. The solution must ensure that data attributes can be used as date hierarchies in Microsoft Power BI reports.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

1- Convert list to table 2- Expand Column 3- Set Date type

Here is an example: https://youtu.be/B4kzyxnhQfI

The definition of the function which expands columns: https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/powerquery-m/table-expandrecordcolumn

---

Q3:

You have a collection of reports for the HR department of your company. The datasets use row-level security (RLS). The company has multiple sales regions that each have an HR manager. You need to ensure that the HR managers can interact with the data from their region only. The HR managers must be prevented from changing the layout of the reports.

How should you provide access to the reports for the HR managers?

A. Create a new workspace, copy the datasets and reports, and add the HR managers as members of the workspace.

B. Publish the reports to a different workspace other than the one hosting the datasets.

C. Publish the reports in an app and grant the HR managers access permission.

D. Add the HR managers as members of the existing workspace that hosts the reports and the datasets.

Correct Answer: C

Note: Row-level security (RLS) with Power BI can be used to restrict data access for given users. Filters restrict data access at the row level, and you can define filters within roles. In the Power BI service, members of a workspace have

access to datasets in the workspace.

RLS doesn’t restrict this data access.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls

---

Q4:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a Power BI report that imports a data table and a sales table from an Azure SQL database data source.

The sales table has the following date foreign keys:

1. Due Date

2. Order Date

3. Delivery Date

You need to support the analysis of sales over time-based on all the date foreign keys.

Solution: From Power Query Editor, you rename the date query as Due Date. You reference the Due Date query twice to make the queries for Order Date and Delivery Date.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Creating two additional tables in Power Query can be a possible solution:

Remove any inactive relationships.

Consider renaming the role-playing dimension-type table to better describe its role. In the example, the Airport table is related to the ArrivalAirport column of the Flight table, so it\’s renamed as Arrival Airport. Create a copy of the role-playing

table, providing it with a name that reflects its role. If it\’s an Import table, we recommend defining a calculated table. If it\’s a DirectQuery table, you can duplicate the Power Query query.

In the example, the Departure Airport table was created by using the following calculated table definition.

---

Q5:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales has a column named CustomerlD. The Data Type of CustomerlD is Whole Number.

You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain non-numeric values.

You need to ensure that non-numeric values in the CustomerlD column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerlD column and click Remove Errors.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

---

Q6:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You are modeling data by using Microsoft Power Bl. Part of the data model is a large Microsoft SQL Server table named Order that has more than 100 million records.

During the development process, you need to import a sample of the data from the Order table.

Solution: You write a DAX expression that uses the FILTER function.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

The filter is applied after the data is imported. Instead, add a WHERE clause to the SQL statement.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-gateway-sql-tutorial

---

Q7:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a quick measure as shown in the following exhibit.

You need to create a monthly rolling average measure for Sales over time.

How should you configure the quick measure calculation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Total Sales We select the field Total Sales

Box 2: Date Select a date field.

Box 3: Month Monthly periods.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-quick-measures

---

Q8:

HOTSPOT

You have a table that contains a column named Phone. The following is a sample of the data in the Phone column.

You need to add a new column that contains the data in the format of nnn-nnn-nnnn.

How should you complete the Query Editor formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/text-replace https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/text-end

---

Q9:

You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard. The report used to create the dashboard uses an imported dataset from a Microsoft SQL Server data source. The dashboard is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.) What occurred at 12:03:06 PM?

A. A user pressed F5

B. A new transaction was added to the data source.

C. A user added a comment to a tile.

D. The dashboard tile cache was refreshed.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/refresh-data

---

Q10:

DRAG DROP

You have the Power BI data model shown in the following exhibit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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Q11:

HOTSPOT

You need to calculate the last day of the month in the balance sheet data to ensure that you can relate the balance sheet data to the Date table.

Which type of calculation and which formula should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: A DAX Calculated measure

Box 2: Date.EndofQuarter(#date([Year],[Mont],1))

END OF QUARTER returns the last date of the quarter in the current context for the specified column of dates.

The following sample formula creates a measure that returns the end of the quarter, for the current context.

= ENDOFQUARTER(DateTime[DateKey])

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dax/endofquarter-function-dax

---

Q12:

HOTSPOT

You have a column named UnitslnStock as shown in the following exhibit

UnitsInStock has 75 non-null values, of which 51 are unique.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

Box 1: 75 rows

Is nullable allows NULL values in the column.

Box 2: reduce

---

Q13:

You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site that contains several document libraries. One of the document libraries contains manufacturing reports saved as Microsoft Excel files. All the manufacturing reports have the same data structure.

You need to load only the manufacturing reports to a table for analysis.

What should you do in Microsoft Power Bl Desktop?

A. Get data from a SharePoint Online folder, enter the site URL, and then select Combine and Load.

B. Get data from a SharePoint Online list and enter the site URL. Edit the query and filter by the path to the manufacturing reports library.

C. Get data from a SharePoint Online folder and enter the site URL. Edit the query and filter by the path to the manufacturing reports library.

D. Get data from a SharePoint Online list, enter the site URL, and then select Combine and Load.

Correct Answer: B

We have to import Excel files from SharePoint, so we need the connector SharePoint folder which is used to get access to the files stored in the library.

SharePoint list is a collection of content that has rows and columns (like a table) and is used for task lists, calendars, etc. Since we have to filter only on manufacturing reports, we have to select Transform and then filter by the corresponding folder path.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-query/connectors/sharepointlist

---

Q14:

You import two Microsoft Excel tables named Customer and Address into Power Query. The customer contains the following columns:

Customer ID Customer Name Phone Email Address Address ID

The address contains the following columns:

Address ID Address Line 1 Address Line 2 City State/Region Country Postal Code

The Customer ID and Address ID columns represent unique rows.

You need to create a query that has one row per customer. Each row must contain City, State/Region, and Country for each customer.

What should you do?

A. Merge the Customer and Address tables.

B. Transpose the Customer and Address tables.

C. Group the Customer and Address tables by the Address ID column.

D. Append the Customer and Address tables.

Correct Answer: A

There are two primary ways of combining queries: merging and appending. When you have one or more columns that you\’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

When you have additional rows of data that you\’d like to add to an existing query, you append the query.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-shape-and-combine-data

---

Q15:

others might not have a correct solution.

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen,

You create a parameter named DataSourceExcel that holds the file name and location of a Microsoft Excel data source.

You need to update the query to reference the parameter instead of multiple hard-coded copies of the location within each query definition.

Solution: In the Power Query M code, you replace references to the Excel file with DataSourceExcel.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Instead, modify the source step of the queries to use DataSourceExcel as the file path.

Note: Parameterising a Data Source could be used in many different use cases. From connecting to different data sources defined in Query Parameters to load different combinations of columns.

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Best practice MD-101 Managing Modern Desktops exam questions [2023.4]

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have a hybrid Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.

You configure a Windows Autopilot deployment profile as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: import a CSV file into Windows Autopilot

You can perform Windows Autopilot device registration within your organization by manually collecting the hardware identity of devices (hardware hashes) and uploading this information in a comma-separated-values (CSV) file.

Box 2: joined to Azure AD only As per exhibit (Azure AD joined).

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/autopilot/add-devices

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/concept-azure-ad-join-hybrid

---

Question 2:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-insider/business/manage-builds

Your company has a hybrid configuration of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Your company also has a Microsoft 365 subscription.

After creating a conditional access policy for Microsoft Exchange Online, you are tasked with configuring the policy to block access to Exchange Online. However, the policy should allow access for hybrid Azure AD-joined devices

Solution: You should configure the Device platforms settings.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Within a Conditional Access policy, an administrator can make use of signals from conditions like risk, device platform, or location to enhance their policy decisions.

Client apps By default, all newly created Conditional Access policies will apply to all client app types even if the client apps condition isn’t configured.

These conditions are commonly used when requiring a managed device, blocking legacy authentication, and blocking web applications but allowing mobile or desktop apps.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/conditions#device-state

---

Question 3:

You need to meet the requirements of the MKG department users.

What should you do?

A. Assign the MKG department users the Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business

B. Download the APPX file for App1 from Microsoft Store for Business

C. Add App1 to the private store

D. Assign the MKG department users the Basic Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business

E. Acquire App1 from Microsoft Store for Business

Correct Answer: E

Enable the users in the MKG department to use App1.

The private store is a feature in Microsoft Store for Business and Education that organizations receive during the signup process. When admins add apps to the private store, all employees in the organization can view and download the apps.

Your private store is available as a tab in the Microsoft Store app and is usually named for your company or organization. Only apps with online licenses can be added to the private store.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/distribute-apps-from-your-private-store

---

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You upgrade three computers from Windows 8.1 to Windows 10 as shown in the following table.

The in-place upgrade settings used to perform the upgrade are shown in the following table.

After the upgrade, you perform the following actions on each computer:

1. Add a local user account named LocalAdmin1.

2. Install Microsoft Office 2019.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No More than 10 days.

Please take note!

The question states “The in-place upgrade settings used to perform the upgrade are shown in the following table.”

On Computer 2 the setting is None – i.e. Nothing: Everything will be deleted, including files, app, and Settings. This is equal to a clean install…

The Windows. old folder will always be created during an upgrade install, even if you choose the “Nothing” option. “If you choose to “Keep nothing” when you upgrade to Windows 8.1, or if you reset, refresh, or reinstall Windows, your personal

files are temporarily saved to the Windows. old” with a 10-day limit to do so…

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/retrieve-files-from-the-windows-old-folder-f668ada4-701b-204a-73c3-952bc5ceb1c8

https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/all/how-to-recover-restore-your-previous-version-of/94368560-9c64-4387-92b9-82a9234216ad

Reference:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/go-back-to-windows-8-1-40e2d7dc-f640-b0e5-56e1-b41a27e28533

---

Question 5:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a user named User1 and the devices shown in the following table.

User1 can access her Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox from both Device 1 and Device 2.

You plan to create a Conditional Access policy named CAPolicy1 that will have the following settings:

1. Assignments

2. Users or workload identities: User1

3. Cloud apps or actions: Office 365 Exchange Online

4. Access controls

5. Grant: Block access

You need to configure CAPolicy1 to allow mailbox access from Device 1 but block mailbox access from Device 2.

Solution: You add a condition that specifies a trusted location.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead, use solution: You add a condition to filter for devices.

Note: Conditional Access: Filter for devices

When creating Conditional Access policies, administrators have asked for the ability to target or exclude specific devices in their environment. The conditioning filter for devices gives administrators this capability.

Now you can target specific devices using supported operators and properties for device filters and the other available assignment conditions in your Conditional Access policies.

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-condition-filters-for-devices

---

Question 6:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains the devices shown in the following table.

You need to assign app protection settings to the devices.

What is the minimum number of app protection policies required?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Correct Answer: D

One for Windows 10 with enrollment

One for Windows 10 without enrollment

One for Android (you can\’t set with or without enrollment)

One for iOS/iPadOS (you can\’t set it with or without enrollment)

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/app-protection-policies

---

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You need to meet the technical requirements for Windows Autopilot.

Which two settings should you configure from the Azure Active Directory blade?

To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Devices Note: Deploy Windows 10 Enterprise to the computers of the Phoenix office users by using Windows Autopilot.

Configure device settings If you want to manage device identities by using the Azure portal, the devices need to be either registered or joined to Azure AD. As an administrator, you can control the process of registering and joining devices by configuring device settings.

Box 2: Mobility (MDM and MAM)

Windows Autopilot Deployment for existing devices.

Configure the Enrollment Status Page.

If you want, you can set up an enrollment status page for Autopilot using Intune.

To enable and configure the enrollment and status page:

1) Open Intune in the Azure portal.

2) Access Intune > Device enrollment > Windows enrollment and Set up an enrollment status page.

3) Access Azure Active Directory > Mobility (MDM and MAM) > Microsoft Intune and Configure automatic MDM enrollment and configure the MDM user scope for some or all users.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/device-management-azure-portal#configure-device-settings https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/autopilot/existing-devices

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Question 8:

You manage a Microsoft 365 environment that has co-management enabled.

All computers run Windows 10 and are deployed by using the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT).

You need to recommend a solution to deploy Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus to new computers. The latest version must always be installed. The solution must minimize administrative effort.

What is the best tool to use for the deployment? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A. Microsoft Intune

B. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit

C. Office Deployment Tool (ODT)

D. a Group Policy object (GPO)

E. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager

Correct Answer: A

Intune –> Create device group –> Select o365 app –> deploy to group

ODT –> Download files -> Create XML –> How to trigger install (manual install/MDT Task seq/PowerShell script/logon script etc)

SCCM –> create new package via ODT or via wizard –> select DPs to distribute –>deploy to collection

MDT –> requires ODT to have the latest version but is fastest with installation as O365 is installed during TS, so in the end I would use this in production, but is not what MS asks.

In the question, it states the machines are in co-management, which indicates the presence of ConfigMgr and Intune otherwise machines cannot be co-managed. In ConfigMgr, there is a co-management workload you can move to Intune

specifically for Office 365 management. Office deployment and management from Intune is by far the most simple way to deploy Office apps (MS 365 Apps for business).

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/comanage/workloads#office-click-to-run-apps

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/apps-add-office365#select-microsoft-365-apps

---

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains the users shown in the following table.

You have a server named Server that runs Windows Server 2019 and has the Windows Deployment Services role installed. Server1 contains an x86 boot image and three Windows 10 install images. The install images are shown in the following table.

You purchase a computer named Computer1 that is compatible with the 64-bit version of Windows 10.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

User1 is a member of Group1. User1 does not have any permission to Image1.

Box 2: Yes

User1 has read permissions to Image2 through Group1.

Box 3: Yes

User2 has read permissions to Image3 through Group2.

---

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft Intune subscription that has the following device compliance policy settings:

1. Mark devices with no compliance policy assigned as Compliant

2. Compliance status validity period (days): 14

On January 1, you enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune as shown in the following table.

On January 4, you create the following two device compliance policies:

1. Name: Policy1

2. Platform: Windows 10 and later

3. Require BitLocker: Require

4. Mark device noncompliant: 5 days after non-compliance

5. Scope (Tags): Tag1

6. Name: Policy2

7. Platform: Windows 10 and later

8. Firewall: Require

9. Mark the device noncompliant: Immediately 10.Scope (Tags): Tag2 On January 5, you assign Policy1 and Policy2 to Group1.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

Policy1 and Policy2 apply to Group1 which Device1 is a member of. Device 1 does not meet the firewall requirement in Policy2 so the device will immediately be marked as non-compliant.

Box 2: No

For the same reason as Box1.

Box 3: Yes

Policy1 and Policy2 apply to Group1. Device2 is not a member of Group1 so the policies don’t apply.

The Scope (tags) have nothing to do with whether the policy is applied or not. The tags are used in RBAC.

---

Question 11:

You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.

You have a workgroup computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.

You need to add Computer1 to contoso.com.

What should you use?

A. the Settings app

B. Computer Management

C. netdom.exe

D. dsregcmd.exe

Correct Answer: D

If you want to manually join the computer to Azure AD, you can execute the disregard/join command. This command should be run in the SYSTEM context (using psexec for example) and will force an attempt to Azure AD.

Reference: https://365bythijs.be/2019/11/02/troubleshooting-hybrid-azure-ad-join/

---

Question 12:

You have a Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) deployment share named DS1.

In the Out-of-Box Drivers node, you create folders that contain drivers for different hardware models.

You need to configure the Inject Drivers MDT task to use PnP detection to install the drivers for one of the hardware models.

What should you do first?

A. Create a selection profile

B. Import an OS package

C. Add a Validate task to the task sequence

D. Add a Gather task to the task sequence

Correct Answer: A

By default, MDT adds any storage and network drivers that you import to the boot images. However, you should add only the drivers that are necessary to the boot image. You can control which drivers are added by using selection profiles.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-mdt/deploy-a-windows-10-image-using-mdt

---

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

A company named A. Datum Corporation uses Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager, Microsoft Intune, and Desktop Analytics.

A.Datum purchases a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has devices that run the following operating systems:

1. Windows 8.1

2. Windows 10

3. Android

4. iOS

A.Datum plans to use Desktop Analytics to monitor the Contoso devices.

You need to identify which devices can be monitored by using Desktop Analytics and how to add the devices to Desktop Analytics.

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Windows 8.1 and Windows 10 only

Windows 7, Windows 8.1, and Windows 10 are supported.

Box 2: Install the Endpoint Configuration Manager agent.

Need to for the Windows 8.1 client.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/desktop-analytics/enroll-devices https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/configmgr/desktop-analytics/overview

---

Question 14:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Your company has Windows 10 computers are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You make use of Intune to manage the servicing channel settings of all company computers.

You receive an inquiry regarding the servicing status of a specific computer.

You need to review the necessary policy report.

Solution: You navigate to the Per update ring deployment state via Software updates.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/windows-update-compliance-reports

---

Question 15:

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.

A new user named Admin1 is responsible for deploying Windows 10 to computers and joining the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

Admin1 successfully joins computers to Azure AD.

Several days later, Admin1 receives the following error message: “This user is not authorized to enroll. You can try to do this again or contact your system administrator with the error code (0x801c0003).”

You need to ensure that Admin1 can join computers to Azure AD and follow the principle of least privilege.

What should you do?

A. Assign the Global administrator role to Admin1.

B. Modify the Device settings in Azure AD.

C. Assign the Cloud device administrator role to Admin1.

D. Modify the User settings in Azure AD.

Correct Answer: B

If you have rights to manage devices in Intune, you can manage devices for which mobile device management is listed as Microsoft Intune. If the device isn’t enrolled with Microsoft Intune, the Manage option won\’t be available.

Note: Enable or disable an Azure AD device

There are two ways to enable or disable devices:

The toolbar on the All Devices page, after you select one or more devices.

The toolbar, after you drill down for a specific device.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/device-management-azure-portal

---

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Microsoft Azure Fundamentals (AZ-900 dumps) free questions

New Q1:

You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You need to customize a usage report for Microsoft Yammer. Which two tools can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services

B. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services

C. Microsoft Power BI in a browser

D. Microsoft Power BI Desktop

E. Microsoft Visual Studio

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/usage-analytics/customize-reports?view=o365-worldwide

---

New Q2:

Your company plans to migrate to Azure. The company has several departments. All the Azure resources used by each department will be managed by a department administrator.

You need to recommend an Azure deployment that provides the ability to segment Azure for the departments.

What are two possible techniques to segment Azure for the departments? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. multiple subscriptions

B. multiple Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directories

C. multiple regions

D. multiple resource groups

Correct Answer: AD

An Azure subscription is a container for Azure resources. It is also a boundary for permissions to resources and for billing. You are charged monthly for all resources in a subscription. A single Azure tenant (Azure Active Directory) can contain multiple Azure subscriptions.

A resource group is a container that holds related resources for an Azure solution. The resource group can include all the resources for the solution, or only those resources that you want to manage as a group.

To enable each department administrator to manage the Azure resources used by that department, you will need to create a separate subscription per department.

You can then assign each department administrator as an administrator for the subscription to enable them to manage all resources in that subscription.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/create-subscription https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/add-change-subscription-administrator

---

New Q3:

Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a Canadian government contractor

B. a European government contractor

C. a United States government entity

D. a United States government contractor

E. a European government entity

Correct Answer: CD

Azure Government is a cloud environment specifically built to meet compliance and security requirements for the US government. This mission-critical cloud delivers breakthrough innovation to U.S. government customers and their partners.

Azure Government applies to government at any level — from state and local governments to federal agencies including Department of Defense agencies.

The key difference between Microsoft Azure and Microsoft Azure Government is that Azure Government is a sovereign cloud. It\’s a physically separated instance of Azure, dedicated to U.S. government workloads only. It\’s built exclusively for government agencies and their solution providers.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government

---

New Q4:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

---

New Q5:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

New Q6:

Your developers have created 10 web applications that must be hosted on Azure. You need to determine which Azure web tier plan to host the web apps. The web tier plan must meet the following requirements:

1. The web apps will use custom domains.

2. The web apps each require 10 GB of storage.

3. The web apps must each run in dedicated compute instances.

4. Load balancing between instances must be included.

5. Costs must be minimized. Which web tier plan should you use?

A. Standard

B. Basic

C. Free

D. Shared

Correct Answer: B

Standard offers 50 GB of storage space, while Basic only gives 10 GB.

References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/websites/

---

New Q7:

Your company plans to deploy several million sensors that will upload data to Azure. You need to identify which Azure resources must be created to support the planned solution.

Which two Azure resources should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Data Lake

B. Azure Queue storage

C. Azure File Storage

D. Azure IoT Hub

E. Azure Notification Hubs

Correct Answer: AD

IoT Hub (Internet of things Hub) provides data from millions of sensors. IoT Hub is a managed service, hosted in the cloud, that acts as a central message hub for bi-directional communication between your IoT application and the devices it manages.

You can use Azure IoT Hub to build IoT solutions with reliable and secure communications between millions of IoT devices and a cloud-hosted solution backend. You can connect virtually any device to IoT Hub.

There are two storage services IoT Hub can route messages to — Azure Blob Storage and Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 (ADLS Gen2) accounts. Azure Data Lake Storage accounts are hierarchical namespace-enabled storage accounts built on top of blob storage. Both of these use blobs for their storage.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/about-iot-hub https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-messages-d2c

---

New Q8:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs macOS and has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

A PowerShell script is a file that contains PowerShell cmdlets and code. A PowerShell script needs to be run in PowerShell.

In this question, the computer has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed. Therefore, this solution does meet the goal.

Note: To create Azure resources using PowerShell, you would need to import the Azure PowerShell module which includes the PowerShell cmdlets required to create the resources.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/scripting/components/ise/how-to-write-and-run-scripts-in-the-windows-powershell-ise?view=powershell-6

New Q9:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

From Access Control (IAM), you can view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. Azure Event Hubs

C. Azure Activity Log

D. Azure Service Health

Correct Answer: C

You would use the Azure Activity Log, not Access Control to view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days.

Activity logs are kept for 90 days. You can query for any range of dates, as long as the starting date isn’t more than 90 days in the past.

In this question, we would create a filter to display shut down operations on the virtual machine in the last 14 days.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit

---

New Q10:

HOTSPOT

You need to identify which blades in the Azure portal must be used to perform the following tasks:

1. View security recommendations.

2. Monitor the health of Azure services.

3. Browse available virtual machine images.

Which blade should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1:

Azure Monitor is used to monitoring the health of Azure services.

Azure Monitor maximizes the availability and performance of your applications and services by delivering a comprehensive solution for collecting, analyzing, and acting on telemetry from your cloud and on-premises environments.

It helps you understand how your applications are performing and proactively identify issues affecting them and the resources they depend on.

Box 2:

You can browse available virtual machine images in the Azure Marketplace.

Azure Marketplace provides access and information on solutions and services available from Microsoft and its partners. Customers can discover, try, or buy cloud software solutions built on or for Azure.

The catalog of 8,000+ listings provides Azure building blocks, such as Virtual Machines (VMs), APIs, Azure apps, Solution Templates and managed applications, SaaS apps, containers, and consulting services.

Box 3.

Azure Advisor displays security recommendations.

Azure Advisor provides you with a consistent, consolidated view of recommendations for all your Azure resources. It integrates with Azure Security Center to bring you security recommendations. You can get security recommendations from the Security tab on the Advisor dashboard.

Security Center helps you prevent, detect, and respond to threats with increased visibility into and control over the security of your Azure resources. It periodically analyzes the security state of your Azure resources.

When Security Center identifies potential security vulnerabilities, it creates recommendations. The recommendations guide you through the process of configuring the controls you need.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/marketplace/marketplace-faq-publisher-guide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/advisor/advisor-security-recommendations

---

New Q11:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

A resource can interact with resources in other resource groups.

Box 2: Yes

Deleting the resource group will remove the resource group as well as all the resources in that resource group. This can be useful for the management of resources. For example, a virtual machine has several components (the VM itself,

virtual disks, network adapter, etc.). By placing the VM in its own resource group, you can delete the VM along with all its associated components by deleting the resource group.

Another example is when creating a test environment. You could place the entire test environment (Network components, virtual machines, etc.) in one resource group. You can then delete the entire test environment by deleting the resource group.

Box 3: Yes

Resources from multiple different regions can be placed in a resource group. The resource group only contains metadata about the resources it contains.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-overview

https://www.codeisahighway.com/effective-ways-to-delete-resources-in-a-resource-group-on-azure/

---

New Q12:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-iaas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-saas/

---

New Q13:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/

---

New Q14:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

A PaaS solution does not provide access to the operating system. The Azure Web Apps service provides an environment for you to host your web applications. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS.

However, you have no direct access to the virtual machine, the operating system, or IIS.

Box 2: Yes

A PaaS solution that hosts web apps in Azure does provide the ability to scale the platform automatically. This is known as autoscaling. Behind the scenes, the web apps are hosted on virtual machines running IIS. Autoscaling means adding more load-balanced virtual machines to host web apps.

Box 3: Yes

PaaS provides a framework that developers can build upon to develop or customize cloud-based applications.

PaaS development tools can cut the time it takes to code new apps with pre-coded application components built into the platform, such as workflow, directory services, security features, search, and so on.

References:

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/overview/what-is-paas/

---

New Q15:

You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You save VM1 as a template named Template1 to the Azure Resource Manager library. You plan to deploy a virtual machine named VM2 from Template1.

What can you configure during the deployment of VM2?

A. operating system

B. administrator username

C. virtual machine size

D. resource group

Correct Answer: B

When deploying a virtual machine from a template, you must specify:

1. the Resource Group name and location for the VM

2. the administrator username and password

3. a unique DNS name for the public IP

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/ps-template

---

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QUESTION 1
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1.
The network interface for VM1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

You deploy a web server on VM1, and then create a secure website that is accessible by using the HTTPS protocol.
VM1 is used as a web server only.
You need to ensure that users can connect to the website from the internet. What should you do?
A. Create a new inbound rule that allows TCP protocol 443 and configure the protocol to have a priority of 501.
B. For Rule5, change the Action to Allow and change the priority to 401.
C. Delete Rule1.
D. Modify the protocol of Rule4.
Correct Answer: B
Rule 2 is blocking HTTPS access (port 443) and has a priority of 500. Changing Rule 5 (ports 50-5000) and giving it a
lower priority number will allow access on port 443. Note: Rules are processed in priority order, with lower numbers
processed before higher numbers, because lower numbers have higher priority. Once traffic matches a rule, processing
stops.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named Adatum and an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Adam contains a group named Developers.
Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Dev, you assign the Logic App Contributor role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The Logic App Contributor role lets you manage the logic app, but not access them. It provides access to view, edit, and
update a logic app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You are configuring serverless computing in Azure.
You need to receive an email message whenever a resource is created in or deleted from a resource group.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app
Action 1: Create an Azure Logic App

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app

QUESTION 4
You have an Azure resource manager template that will be used to deploy 10 Azure Web Apps. You have to ensure to
deploy the pre-requisites before the deployment of the template. You have to minimize the costs associated with the
implementation. Which of the following would you deploy as pre-requisites?
A. An Azure Load Balancer
B. An Application Gateway
C. 10 Azure App Service Plans
D. One App Service Plan
Correct Answer: D
In-App Service (Web Apps, API Apps, or Mobile Apps), an app always runs in an App Service plan. An App Service plan
defines a set of computing resources for a web app to run.
One App Service Plan: Correct Choice
For an Azure Web App, you need to have an Azure App Service Plan in place. You can associate multiple Azure Web
Apps with the same App Service Plan. Hence to save on costs, you can just have one Azure App Service Plan in place.
An Azure Load Balancer: Incorrect Choice
An Azure load balancer is a Layer-4 (TCP, UDP) load balancer that provides high availability by distributing incoming
traffic among healthy VMs. A load balancer health probe monitors a given port on each VM and only distributes traffic to
an
operational VM An Application Gateway: Incorrect Choice
Azure Application Gateway is a web traffic load balancer that enables you to manage traffic to your web applications.
Traditional load balancers operate at the transport layer (OSI layer 4 – TCP and UDP) and route traffic based on source
IP
address and port, to a destination IP address and port.
10 Azure App Service Plans: Incorrect Choice
For an Azure Web App, you need to have an Azure App Service Plan in place. You can associate multiple Azure Web
Apps with the same App Service Plan. Hence to save on costs, you can just have one Azure App Service Plan in place.
So
there is no need for 10 App Service Plans.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/overview-hosting-plans https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/virtual-machines/windows/tutorial-load-balancer https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/applicationgateway/overview

QUESTION 5
You need to use Azure Automation State Configuration to manage the ongoing consistency of a virtual machine
configurations.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate action from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You
will
receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

Step 1: Upload a configuration to the Azure Automation State Configuration. Import the configuration into the Automation
account. Step 2: Compile a configuration into a node configuration. A DSC configuration defining that state must be
compiled into one or more node configurations (MOF document), and placed on the Automation DSC Pull Server. Step
3: Onboard the virtual machines to Azure Automation State Configuration. Onboard the Azure VM for management with
Azure Automation State Configuration Step 4: Assign the node configuration Step 5: Check the compliance status of the
node Each time Azure Automation State Configuration performs a consistency check on a managed node, the node
sends a status report back to the pull server. You can view these reports on the
page for that node.
On the blade for an individual report, you can see the following status information for the corresponding consistency
check:
The report states – whether the node is “Compliant”, the configuration “Failed”, or the node is “Not Compliant”
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/automation/automation-dsc-getting-started

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource
groups.
Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription. You need to ensure
that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You create a resource lock, and then you assign the lock to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
How can I freeze or lock my production/critical Azure resources from accidental deletion? There is a way to do this with
both ASM and ARM resources using Azure resource lock.
References:
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2016/04/27/using-azure-resource-manager-policy-and-azure-lock-to-controlyour-azure-resources/

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You deploy an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named AKS1.
You need to deploy a YAML file to AKS1.
Solution: From Azure Cloud Shell, you run az aks.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Installing Azure CLI doesn\\’t mean that Azure Kubernates client is installed. So before running kubectl client command,
you have install kubectl, the Kubernetes command-line client. First need to run az aks install-cli to install Kubernetes
CLI,
which is kubectl Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/aks?view=azure-cli-latest

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure subscription that includes data in following locations:

You plan to export data by using Azure import/export job named Export1. You need to identify the data that can be
exported by using Export1. Which data should you identify?
A. DB1
B. Table1
C. container1
D. Share1
Correct Answer: C
Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage. Only the Blob
service is supported with the Export job feature

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-requirements

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure App Service plan named AdatumASP1 that uses the P2v2 pricing tier. AdatumASP1 hosts Ml Azure
web app named adatumwebapp1. You need to delegate the management of adatumwebapp1 to a group named Devs.
Devs must be able to perform the following tasks:
1.
Add deployment slots.
2.
View the configuration of AdatumASP1.
3.
Modify the role assignment for adatumwebapp1. Which role should you assign to the Devs group?
A. Owner
B. Contributor
C. Web Plan Contributor
D. Website Contributor
Correct Answer: A
Owner : Correct Choice
The Owner role lets you manage everything, including access to resources.
Contributor : Incorrect Choice
With contributor role you can Add deployment slots and View the configuration of App service plan but you can\\’t Modify
the role assignment. For this you need User Access Administrator or Owner role. So this is incorrect.
Web Plan Contributor : Incorrect Choice
The Web Plan Contributor role lets you manage the web plans for websites, but not access to them.
So this option is incorrect.
Website Contributor : Incorrect Choice
The Website Contributor role lets you manage websites (not web plans), but not access to them. So this is incorrect
option.
Note:
As per least privilege principle it is not advisable to provide owner role to any group, rather you should create custom
RBAC role with custom policy and use that role for this operation. However as this option is not available here so only
option
to go with owner role.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/role-assignments-portal
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to create a conditional access policy that requires all
users to use multi-factor authentication when they access the Azure portal.
Which three settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer

Box 1: Assignments, Users and Groups
When you configure the sign-in risk policy, you need to set:
The users and groups the policy applies to: Select Individuals and Groups

Box 3:
When you configure the sign-in risk policy, you need to set:
The type of access you want to be enforced when your sign-in risk level has been met:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-user-risk-policy

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1
was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template named ARM1.json.
You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance.
You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: Solution: From the Overview blade, you move the virtual machine to a different subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/redeploy-to-new-node

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Storage account named storage1 that uses Azure Blob storage and Azure File storage.
You need to use AzCopy to copy data to the blob storage and file storage in storage1.
Which authentication method should you use for each type of storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

You can provide authorization credentials by using Azure Active Directory (AD), or by using a Shared Access Signature
(SAS) token.
Box 1:
Both Azure Active Directory (AD) and Shared Access Signature (SAS) token are supported for Blob storage.
Box 2:
Only Shared Access Signature (SAS) token is supported for File storage.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy-v10

QUESTION 13
You have a hybrid infrastructure that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant contains the users shown in the following table.

You plan to share a cloud resource to the All Users group. You need to ensure that User1, User2, User3, and User4 can
connect successfully to the cloud resource.
What should you do first?
A. Create a user account of the member type for User4.
B. Create a user account of the member type for User3.
C. Modify the Directory-wide Groups settings.
D. Modify the External collaboration settings.
Correct Answer: C
Ensure that “Enable an \\’All Users\\’ group in the directory” policy is set to “Yes” in your Azure Active Directory (AD)
settings in order to enable the “All Users” group for centralized access administration. This group represents the entire
collection of Active Directory users, including guests and external users, that you can use to make the access
permissions easier to manage within your directory.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: User3 and User4 are guests already.
Note: By default, all users and guests in your directory can invite guests even if they\\’re not assigned to an admin role.
External collaboration settings let you turn guest invitations on or off for different types of users in your organization.
You
can also delegate invitations to individual users by assigning roles that allow them to invite guests.
References: https://www.cloudconformity.com/knowledge-base/azure/ActiveDirectory/enable-all-users-group.html

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QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named Contoso. The organization is configured to apply a disclaimer to all email messages sent to external recipients. Your company works with a partner company named A. Datum Corporation. A. Datum has an SMTP domain named adatum.com. You need to ensure that email messages sent to adatum.com meet the following compliance requirements: Messages sent to adatum.com must NOT include the disclaimer. Messages that contain credit card numbers must NOT be sent to adatum.com. If a user writes a message that contains a credit card number and the message is addressed to a recipient at adatum.com, the user must receive a notification before the message is sent. What should you configure for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration to the correct requirement in the answer area. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains three servers named EX1, EX2, and EX3. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. A mailbox database named DB1 is replicated to all the members of DAG1.
EX3 experiences a complete hardware failure. You need to restore EX3 on a new server. You reset the computer account for EX3.
Which three actions should you perform next? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains five servers. Several employees plan to use Microsoft Outlook to collaborate on some projects. You need to configure access to Outlook to meet the following requirements: Several employees must be able to open only the Inbox of a user named User1. Several employees must be able to copy email messages from any folder in the mailbox of a user named User2. Several employees must be able to create only contacts in the mailbox of a user named User3. Which cmdlets should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlet to the correct requirement in the answer area. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Select and Place:


QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following tabl

You need to create a new database availability group (DAG) that contains EX1 and EX2. Which three actions should you perform?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 5
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The company hires 200 temporary employees. You create a mailbox for each temporary employee. You create a new management role named CustomBaseOptions that uses MyBaseOptions as a parent. You create a new management role named CustomContactInfo that uses MyContactInfo as a parent. You plan to apply the new management roles to the temporary employees. You need to identify which management roles must be modified to prevent the temporary employees from performing the following task: Adding a user photo
Viewing delivery reports
Viewing the Install Apps feature
Changing the value of the office location
Which management roles should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate management role for each task in the answer area.
Hot Area:


070-341 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
Your company has two offices. The offices are configured as shown in the following table.

The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link that has a latency of more than 700 ms. You plan to deploy an Exchange Server 2013 organization to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if the WAN link fails.
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if a single server fails.
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if a single database fails. You recommend deploying one or more database availability groups (DAGs) and mailbox database copies. You need to identify which design meets the requirements for the planned deployment.
Which design should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate design in the answer area.
Hot Area:


Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
Your company plans to deploy an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com. The forest contains one Active Directory site.
To contoso.com, you plan to deploy two servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. To child.contoso.com, you plan to deploy two servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
To the contoso.com domain, you deploy a new member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. You need to prepare the forest for the planned deployment of Exchange Server 2013. Which three commands should you run from Server1?
To answer, move the three appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:


070-341 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
Your network contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You create a new user account for a temporary user named User1.
You plan to create a new mailbox for User1. You need to recommend which actions must be performed to ensure that User1 can modify only the values of his home phone number attribute and his office location attribute. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:


Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains an Edge Transport server named EX3. You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2013. You plan to replace EX3 and its functionalities with a new server named EX6 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. EX6 will be used to send all email messages to and receive all email messages from the Internet and to filter spam. You need to recommend which steps are required to install EX6. EX6 must have the least number of Exchange Server roles installed. Which three actions should you recommend performing on EX6 in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:


070-341 pdf Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

All of the servers are part of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. The databases are configured as shown in the following table.

All of the databases replicate between all the members of DAG1.
You plan to move all mailboxes from DB1 to DB2. You need to ensure that the passive copies of DB1 are in a healthy state before you move the mailboxes. Which command should you run? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
Hot Area:

QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains several custom RBAC management roles. You need to identify which RBAC scopes must be used to meet the following requirements:
Manage only the mailboxes of the users in the sales department.
Manage the properties of all the mailbox databases. Which RBAC scopes should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate RBAC scopes to the correct requirements. Each RBAC scope may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

070-341 vce Correct Answer:

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Q&As: 220

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QUESTION 1
Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command-line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two types of virtual storage provide data redundancy? (Select two.)
A. concatenate
B. RAID-5
C. stripe
D. mirror
E. RAID-0
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX? (Select two.)
A. improved deduplication for data backup
B. ability to resize storage across physical devices
C. improved disaster recovery by mirroring between arrays
D. enhanced file sharing
E. increased virtual memory
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
A system administrator has a large amount of inactive data on the company’s storage devices. The excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. The administrator needs to set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires based on age. How can the administrator set the threshold for automatic relocation of data?
A. use SmartMove
B. use SmartTier
C. use Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS)
D. use Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which benefit is provided when Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) uses the SmartMove feature?
A. optimized Data Deduplication process
B. optimized SmartTier storage allocation process
C. optimized mirror synchronization process
D. optimized File Replication process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two benefits of using Storage Checkpoints within Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX instead of file system snapshots? (Select two.)
A. transient
B. read-only
C. uses free space from parent file system
D. persistent
E. uses separate volume
070-489 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?
A. mydg01
B. c2t0d0
C. mydg
D. c1t0d0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. optimized SmartMove
C. optimized replication of volume data
D. optimized file compression
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)
A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file
B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume
C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system
D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk
E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the layout of the volume described in the vxprint output provided in the exhibit?
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of layouts? (Select two.)
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
E. stripe with parity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-0+1
D. RAID-1+0
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What are two advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Select two.)
A. provides hot-relocation
B. provides load balancing
C. improves performance
D. provides data redundancy
E. improves reliability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
Where do the private and public regions of Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS) formatted disks reside?
A. on separate disk slices
B. on a single disk slice
C. on reserved slices
D. on a boot slice
070-489 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two items are checked on existing Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX systems by the Installation and Upgrade service from Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT)? (Select two.)
A. existing Symantec packages and patches
B. disk group version
C. file system free space
D. volume manager disk group free space
E. disk drive information
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
What is the minimum Storage Foundation release supported to upgrade directly to Veritas Storage
Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. 5.0
B. 5.0MP1
C. 5.0MP3
D. 5.1
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
How many days can a customer run Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX without entering a valid license key during installation without receiving warning messages?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which two operations can be performed with a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) Management Server (MS) with all add-ons installed? (Select two.)
A. manage host deployment across the enterprise
B. discover the secure Oracle databases running on the managed host
C. manage user privileges in VEA on the managed host
D. discover Solaris Zones and Solaris LDOMs running on a managed host
E. manage Business Entities
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which command is used to manually configure the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) product?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxinstall
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdctl enable
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which display command consolidates information from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) and Veritas File System (VxFS)?
A. vxprint
B. vxadm
C. vxsfadm
D. vxlist
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX commands are used to prevent and allow multi pathing of Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) devices? (Select two.)
A. vxdiskadm
B. vxddladm
C. fsvoladm
D. vxdmpadm
E. vxsfadm
070-489 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. based on configured policies, it performs the required actions on the message
B. based on configured policies, it scans the message for attributes and violations
C. based on default policies, it stores spam and virus messages
D. based on default policies, it provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX user interface provides a menu-driven, text- based interface for performing some disk and disk group administration?
A. Veritas Enterprise Administrator (VEA)
B. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
C. vxedit
D. vxdiskadm
070-489 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which command can be run from the command line interface of a Scanner appliance to list, backup or restore the current message audit logging logs?
A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. malquery
D. mallog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding the encrypted attachment disposition in the Virus policy settings?
A. it is a subset of the ‘unscannable’ disposition
B. it leverages TLS or gateway to gateway encryption
C. the default action is to delete
D. it also includes password protected files
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A server with one disk group is running Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX and suffers a system board failure. An administrator moves the disks in that disk group to a new server. When the administrator tries to import the disk group, the import fails. Which command should the administrator use to successfully import the disk group?
A. vxdg -C import
B. vxdg -f import
C. vxdg -n newname import
D. vxdg -t import
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which command can an administrator run to display all of the imported and deported disk groups for a system?
A. vxdg
B. vxlist
C. vxddladm
D. vxconfig
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group. Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which component do you configure to enable the Instant Messaging security proxy?
A. Premium Content Control
B. Control Center
C. Conduit
D. Scanner
070-489 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A volume manager disk, EMC_10, in diskgroup appdg is used for a 30G simple volume and it is mounted. An administrator needs to relocate the disk EMC_10 and its associated volume from diskgroup appdg to webdg while preserving the user data. Which command(s) should the administrator use after unmounting the file system?
A. vxdisk reclaim EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg adddisk EMC_10
B. vxdg -g appdg rmdisk EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg addisk EMC_10
C. vxdg move appdg webdg EMC_10
D. vxdg migrate appdg webdg EMC_10
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg. There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 17 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.

You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time. What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013
When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer. What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently migrated to Office 365 and is planning to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers in the main office and all branch offices. Due to limited bandwidth at the branch offices, the company decides to have users install Office 365 ProPlus from a network share by using the Click-to-Run deployment method. You need to install Office 365 ProPlus on a client computer. How should you complete the relevant command? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user has a desktop computer and has been assigned an E3 license. The user plans to travel to multiple branch offices and will use a shared desktop computer at each branch office. The user will not have administrative privileges on the branch office computers. You
need to ensure that the user has access to all features of Microsoft Word 2013 and Excel 2013 at the branch offices. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.


QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees have archive mailboxes that have the default retention policy applied. A new company policy requires some existing mailboxes to have a retention policy that deletes only email messages in the Deleted Items folder after 90 days. Deleted messages must be recoverable. None of the existing retention tags meet the new requirement. You create an empty retention policy named Policy-90. You need to configure the retention policy and apply it to the mailboxes. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

QUESTION 23 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. The company is currently migrating from a hosted POP3 email solution to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company maintains extensive lists of external contacts in several Microsoft Excel workbooks. You plan to import all the external contact information from the workbooks into the Exchange Online Global Address List (GAL).The external contacts must not be able to sign in to your company’s Windows Azure Active Directory service. You consolidate all the external contact information into a file named External Contacts. You need to import the file into the GAL. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

QUESTION 24 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for customers that complete the ‘contact me’ field on his website to track return on investment for the marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the ‘metric goal’ field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose “dollars” in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the ‘goal value’ field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he has created for the ‘contact me’ form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the “goal completion” field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you’re interested in seeing your most popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the quality score?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The lower a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
C. It is used to measure performance of schedule
D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
A. Information about the propriety of cutoff
B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?
A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes.
C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project’s planning orexecution (“impact”).
D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
A. Identification of assets
B. Identification of threats
C. Identification of threat sources
D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
A. Risk indicator matrix
B. Impact matrix
C. Risk scenario matrix
D. Probability matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
B. Alignment with risk-culture
C. Risk-aware decisions
D. The capacity of the enterprise’s objective to absorb loss.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
A. Risk planning
B. Risk monitoring and controlling
C. Risk identification
D. Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.  You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013. You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio Team System project file. Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated content databases for the storage of personal site collections. You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites. What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm. You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site collection. What permission level should you configure?
A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index. Users report that search results are too broad. You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results. Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the application server. You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message attachments in libraries. You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
70-331 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 18
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 19
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.
D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 21
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255. 255. 255. 0. Now create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA. Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
70-331 exam  Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 23
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 25
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP
D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 26
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
70-331 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C

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Question: 5
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains multiple servers that have Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. A DPM server named Server1 is running out of hard disk space. You add additional physical hard disks to Server1. You verify that the additional disks are available from the local Disk Management console. You need to ensure that the additional disk space can be used to store DPM backups. What should you do?
A. From the DPM Administrator console, click Refresh.
B. From the DPM Administrator console, click Disk Allocation.
C. From the DPM Administrator console, click Add.
D. From the DPM Administrator console, click Rescan.
70-246 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
To add disks to the storage pool In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar, click Management, and then click the Disks tab. In the Actions pane, click Add. The Add Disks to Storage Pool dialog box appears. The Available disks section lists the disks that you can add to the storage pool. Select one or more disks, click Add, and then click OK. Adding Disks to the Storage Pool
Question: 6
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy Data Protection Manager (DPM) to the private cloud. You configured DPM to back up the following information on 20 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2:
Data volumes
System state data
Volume mount points
You discover that the system state backup fails on all of the servers. You can verify that all other data is backed up successfully.
You need to ensure that the system state backup completes successfully on all of the servers. What should you do?
A. Install Windows Server Backup on each server.
B. Connect each server to a dedicated LUN.
C. Reinstall the DPM agent on each server.
D. Add each server to a dedicated protection group.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A system state backup uses the Windows Server Backup feature to take a snapshot of the system state and saves it locally to the server before moving it to the DPM server storage pool. Troubleshooting Data Protection Manager System State and Bare Metal Backup
Question: 7
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. An administrator installs a new tape drive on a server that has Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. You discover that the tape drive is unavailable from the DPM Administrator console. You verify that the tape drive is installed correctly on the DPM server. You need to ensure that the tape drive is available from the DPM Administrator console. What should you do from the DPM Administrator console?
A. From the Agents view, click Install.
B. From the Disks tab, click Add.
C. From the Protection view, click Tape.
D. From the Libraries view, click Rescan.
70-246 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
To configure tape libraries In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar click Management, and then click the Libraries tab. In the Actions pane, click Rescan. The Rescan operation might take several minutes to complete. DPM will add any library jobs to the queue that began during the Rescan operation. If a library job is already in progress when the Rescan operation begins, the Rescan operation will fail. Configuring Tape Libraries
Question: 8
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You install the servers shown in the following table.

The company’s compliance department identifies the following tasks that must be performed:
Back up individual files from VM1.
Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
The compliance department administrators recommend installing the DPM agent on Server1, and then performing a full backup. You need to identify which task is NOT met by the recommended solution. Which task should you identify?
A. Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
B. Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
C. Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
D. Back up individual files from VM1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the event of disaster recovery, System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM) 2010 allows you to recover virtual machines as files to a network folder. You can then copy those files to an alternate Hyper-V host server. However, to start a virtual machine on an alternate Hyper-V host server, you have to manually create and configure the virtual machine using the recovered files. DPM 2010 supports alternate location recovery (ALR), which allows you to recover a Hyper-V virtual machine to an alternate stand-alone Hyper-V host or to a cluster. The recovered virtual machine is already registered and configured on an alternate Hyper-V host server. In a virtualized environment the issue is whether to backup from inside the guest or from the host. The latter provides “bare metal restore” of an entire VM where something’s gone catastrophically wrong with a VM (or the host) but in general it doesn’t provide granular restore of files / folders. DPM 2010 added Item Level Restore (ILR), allowing you to restore individual files or folders within a VM even though it had only been backed up from the host. But this capability was only available when DPM 2010 ran on physical hardware, if the DPM server itself was in a VM this capability was not available. DPM 2012 fixes this glitch and can now do ILR even when the DPM server is a VM
Question: 9
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains two management servers and 10 Hyper-V hosts. You configure VMM to use an update server and to synchronize the updates by using a windows Server Update Services (WSUS)  server named WSUS1. You attempt to verify compliance with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts. What should you modify?
A. the update classifications of the update server
B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline
C. the default configuration provider
D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group
70-246 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
In the VMM console, open the Fabric workspace. On the Home tab, in the Add group, click Add Resources, and then click Update Server. The Add Windows Server Update Services Server dialog box
opens. In Computer name, enter the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the WSUS server (for example, VMMServer01.contoso.com). Specify which TCP/IP port that the WSUS website listens on for connections (for example, port 8530). Enter credentials for connecting to the WSUS server. The account must have administrator rights on the WSUS server. If necessary, select the Use Secure Socket Layer (SSL) to communicate with the WSUS server and clients check box. Click Add. The WSUS server will be added to VMM, followed by initial synchronization of the updates catalog. Depending on how many update classifications and products you chose when you installed the WSUS server, this operation can take a long time, depending on such factors as network traffic and  the load on the WSUS server. To find out the status of the operation, monitor the status of the Add Update Server and Synchronize Update Server jobs in the Jobs window or in the Jobs workspace. Note After you enable update management in VMM, you should manage the WSUS server only through VMM, unless you are using a WSUS server in a Configuration Manager environment. To verify that the WSUS server was added to VMM successfully: In the Fabric workspace, on the Fabric pane, expand Servers, and click Update Server. The results pane should display the WSUS server. In the Library workspace, on the Library pane, expand Update Catalog and Baselines, and then click Update Catalog. The results pane should display the updates that were downloaded during WSUS synchronization.
Question: 10
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains seven servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a solution to apply Windows updates to the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the following requirements: Approve Windows updates from the VMM Administrator Console. Store information about Windows update installations in Configuration Manager Reports. What should you do first?
A. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as a host server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
B. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Servers as an update server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
C. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
D. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A configuration manager agent is required to store information about Windows update installation in the Configuration Manager reports.
Step 1: Install and Configure a Software Update Point  The software update point is required on the central administration site and primary sites to enable software updates compliance assessment and to deploy software updates to clients. The software update point is optional on secondary sites. The software update point site system role must be created on a server that has WSUS installed. The software update point interacts with the WSUS services to configure software update settings and request synchronization of software updates metadata. When you have a Configuration Manager hierarchy, install and configure the software update point on the central administration site first, then on child primary sites, and then optionally on secondary sites. When you have a stand-alone primary site (no central administration site), install and configure the software update point on the primary site first, and then optionally on secondary
sites. Some settings are only available when you configure the software update point on a central administration site, or stand-alone primary site, and there are different options that you must
consider depending on where the software update point is installed.
Question: 11
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. You plan to create a distributed application named Appl. You need to ensure that a folder for App1 is available from the Monitoring workspace in the Operations Manager console. What should you do?
A. Run the Protect-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
B. Save App1 in the Default Management Pack.
C. Run the Import-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
D. Save App1 as a new management pack.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Default Management Pack file contains common elements such as views at the top level of the Monitoring workspace. This is an unsealed management pack file so that you can create views and folders at this level. It should not be used for any other purpose. For creating elements such as monitors and rules, create a new management pack file. Selecting a Management Pack File
The Default management pack that ships with OpsMgr 2007 is used to store very specific information for the management group. It is a widely known best practice to NOT write any custom rules, monitors, groups, views, or overrides to this MP. Even customers who know this – and try to enforce this across their organizations…. will still inadvertently get junk in their default MP…. they will save things here by accident, or by granting access to advanced operators who aren’t educated on this topic. The main problem with doing so…. is that we will build a dependency for this MP on any MP it references…. and therefore we wont ever be able to delete those management packs, until we clean this Default MP up, and start enforcing best practices.

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QUESTION 114
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to __________.
A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates
B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
D. Al1 of the above
70-357 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments.
QUESTION 115
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.
A. Progressive elaboration
B. Stake holder’s review
C. p’an project life cycle
D. Fast backing
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is called Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.
QUESTION 116
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 117
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Develop the project charter
C. Develop the project statement of work
D. Develop project closing document
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur during project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is the best option.
QUESTION 118
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have you left out?
A. Control Schedule
B. Create WBS
C. Sequence Activities
D. Operations
70-357 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources.
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A. Earn Value Analysis
B. Scope Baseline
C. P’sk Register
D. Human Resource Plan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versus planned
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?
A. Project Charter
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Pis’* Management Plan
D. Activity Cost Estimates
70-357 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks.
QUESTION 121
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 122
If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical information
B. WBS
C. Business plans
D. RBS
70-357 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the WBS has not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans are not a likely input to the initiation process
QUESTION 123
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?
A. Monitor implementation of approved changes
B. Validate deliverables
C. Staff, train, and manage the project team
D. Manage cisks and implement risk responses
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented but monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work.
QUESTION 124
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have ________.
A. Offer and consideration
B. Start date and acceptance of start date
C. Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
D. Signatures of all stakeholders
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and notary public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the start date is not needed for all contracts.
QUESTION 125
If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less money; so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)

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