[2018 Certification Dumps] The Most Effective Microsoft 070-341 Dumps PDF Is What You Need To Take 220Q&As [1 to 11]

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QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named Contoso. The organization is configured to apply a disclaimer to all email messages sent to external recipients. Your company works with a partner company named A. Datum Corporation. A. Datum has an SMTP domain named adatum.com. You need to ensure that email messages sent to adatum.com meet the following compliance requirements: Messages sent to adatum.com must NOT include the disclaimer. Messages that contain credit card numbers must NOT be sent to adatum.com. If a user writes a message that contains a credit card number and the message is addressed to a recipient at adatum.com, the user must receive a notification before the message is sent. What should you configure for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration to the correct requirement in the answer area. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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070-341 dumps

QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains three servers named EX1, EX2, and EX3. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. A mailbox database named DB1 is replicated to all the members of DAG1.
EX3 experiences a complete hardware failure. You need to restore EX3 on a new server. You reset the computer account for EX3.
Which three actions should you perform next? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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070-341 dumps

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains five servers. Several employees plan to use Microsoft Outlook to collaborate on some projects. You need to configure access to Outlook to meet the following requirements: Several employees must be able to open only the Inbox of a user named User1. Several employees must be able to copy email messages from any folder in the mailbox of a user named User2. Several employees must be able to create only contacts in the mailbox of a user named User3. Which cmdlets should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlet to the correct requirement in the answer area. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Select and Place:
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070-341 dumps
QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following tabl
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You need to create a new database availability group (DAG) that contains EX1 and EX2. Which three actions should you perform?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-341 dumps
070-341 dumps
070-341 dumps

QUESTION 5
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The company hires 200 temporary employees. You create a mailbox for each temporary employee. You create a new management role named CustomBaseOptions that uses MyBaseOptions as a parent. You create a new management role named CustomContactInfo that uses MyContactInfo as a parent. You plan to apply the new management roles to the temporary employees. You need to identify which management roles must be modified to prevent the temporary employees from performing the following task: Adding a user photo
Viewing delivery reports
Viewing the Install Apps feature
Changing the value of the office location
Which management roles should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate management role for each task in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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070-341 exam Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
Your company has two offices. The offices are configured as shown in the following table.
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The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link that has a latency of more than 700 ms. You plan to deploy an Exchange Server 2013 organization to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if the WAN link fails.
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if a single server fails.
Ensure that users can access their mailbox if a single database fails. You recommend deploying one or more database availability groups (DAGs) and mailbox database copies. You need to identify which design meets the requirements for the planned deployment.
Which design should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate design in the answer area.
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QUESTION 7
Your company plans to deploy an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com. The forest contains one Active Directory site.
To contoso.com, you plan to deploy two servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. To child.contoso.com, you plan to deploy two servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
To the contoso.com domain, you deploy a new member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. You need to prepare the forest for the planned deployment of Exchange Server 2013. Which three commands should you run from Server1?
To answer, move the three appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 8
Your network contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You create a new user account for a temporary user named User1.
You plan to create a new mailbox for User1. You need to recommend which actions must be performed to ensure that User1 can modify only the values of his home phone number attribute and his office location attribute. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains an Edge Transport server named EX3. You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2013. You plan to replace EX3 and its functionalities with a new server named EX6 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. EX6 will be used to send all email messages to and receive all email messages from the Internet and to filter spam. You need to recommend which steps are required to install EX6. EX6 must have the least number of Exchange Server roles installed. Which three actions should you recommend performing on EX6 in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
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070-341 dumps
070-341 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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All of the servers are part of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. The databases are configured as shown in the following table.
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All of the databases replicate between all the members of DAG1.
You plan to move all mailboxes from DB1 to DB2. You need to ensure that the passive copies of DB1 are in a healthy state before you move the mailboxes. Which command should you run? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains several custom RBAC management roles. You need to identify which RBAC scopes must be used to meet the following requirements:
Manage only the mailboxes of the users in the sales department.
Manage the properties of all the mailbox databases. Which RBAC scopes should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate RBAC scopes to the correct requirements. Each RBAC scope may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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070-341 vce Correct Answer:
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Exam Code: 070-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Q&As: 220

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QUESTION 1
Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two types of virtual storage provide data redundancy? (Select two.)
A. concatenate
B. RAID-5
C. stripe
D. mirror
E. RAID-0
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX? (Select two.)
A. improved deduplication for data backup
B. ability to resize storage across physical devices
C. improved disaster recovery by mirroring between arrays
D. enhanced file sharing
E. increased virtual memory
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
A system administrator has a large amount of inactive data on the company’s storage devices. The excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. The administrator needs to set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires based on age. How can the administrator set the threshold for automatic relocation of data?
A. use SmartMove
B. use SmartTier
C. use Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS)
D. use Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which benefit is provided when Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) uses the SmartMove feature?
A. optimized Data Deduplication process
B. optimized SmartTier storage allocation process
C. optimized mirror synchronization process
D. optimized File Replication process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two benefits of using Storage Checkpoints within Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX instead of file system snapshots? (Select two.)
A. transient
B. read-only
C. uses free space from parent file system
D. persistent
E. uses separate volume
070-489 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?
A. mydg01
B. c2t0d0
C. mydg
D. c1t0d0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. optimized SmartMove
C. optimized replication of volume data
D. optimized file compression
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)
A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file
B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume
C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system
D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk
E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the layout of the volume described in the vxprint output provided in the exhibit?
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of layouts? (Select two.)
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
E. stripe with parity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-0+1
D. RAID-1+0
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What are two advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Select two.)
A. provides hot-relocation
B. provides load balancing
C. improves performance
D. provides data redundancy
E. improves reliability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
Where do the private and public regions of Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS) formatted disks reside?
A. on separate disk slices
B. on a single disk slice
C. on reserved slices
D. on a boot slice
070-489 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two items are checked on existing Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX systems by the Installation and Upgrade service from Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT)? (Select two.)
A. existing Symantec packages and patches
B. disk group version
C. file system free space
D. volume manager disk group free space
E. disk drive information
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
What is the minimum Storage Foundation release supported to upgrade directly to Veritas Storage
Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. 5.0
B. 5.0MP1
C. 5.0MP3
D. 5.1
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 18
How many days can a customer run Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX without entering a valid license key during installation without receiving warning messages?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which two operations can be performed with a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) Management Server (MS) with all add-ons installed? (Select two.)
A. manage host deployment across the enterprise
B. discover the secure Oracle databases running on the managed host
C. manage user privileges in VEA on the managed host
D. discover Solaris Zones and Solaris LDOMs running on a managed host
E. manage Business Entities
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which command is used to manually configure the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) product?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxinstall
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdctl enable
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which display command consolidates information from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) and Veritas File System (VxFS)?
A. vxprint
B. vxadm
C. vxsfadm
D. vxlist
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX commands are used to prevent and allow multi pathing of Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) devices? (Select two.)
A. vxdiskadm
B. vxddladm
C. fsvoladm
D. vxdmpadm
E. vxsfadm
070-489 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. based on configured policies, it performs the required actions on the message
B. based on configured policies, it scans the message for attributes and violations
C. based on default policies, it stores spam and virus messages
D. based on default policies, it provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX user interface provides a menu-driven, text- based interface for performing some disk and disk group administration?
A. Veritas Enterprise Administrator (VEA)
B. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
C. vxedit
D. vxdiskadm
070-489 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which command can be run from the command line interface of a Scanner appliance to list, backup or restore the current message audit logging logs?
A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. malquery
D. mallog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding the encrypted attachment disposition in the Virus policy settings?
A. it is a subset of the ‘unscannable’ disposition
B. it leverages TLS or gateway to gateway encryption
C. the default action is to delete
D. it also includes password protected files
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A server with one disk group is running Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX and suffers a system board failure. An administrator moves the disks in that disk group to a new server. When the administrator tries to import the disk group, the import fails. Which command should the administrator use to successfully import the disk group?
A. vxdg -C import
B. vxdg -f import
C. vxdg -n newname import
D. vxdg -t import
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which command can an administrator run to display all of the imported and deported disk groups for a system?
A. vxdg
B. vxlist
C. vxddladm
D. vxconfig
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group. Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which component do you configure to enable the Instant Messaging security proxy?
A. Premium Content Control
B. Control Center
C. Conduit
D. Scanner
070-489 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A volume manager disk, EMC_10, in diskgroup appdg is used for a 30G simple volume and it is mounted. An administrator needs to relocate the disk EMC_10 and its associated volume from diskgroup appdg to webdg while preserving the user data. Which command(s) should the administrator use after unmounting the file system?
A. vxdisk reclaim EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg adddisk EMC_10
B. vxdg -g appdg rmdisk EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg addisk EMC_10
C. vxdg move appdg webdg EMC_10
D. vxdg migrate appdg webdg EMC_10
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg. There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Correct Answer: D
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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.  You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013. You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio Team System project file. Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated content databases for the storage of personal site collections. You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites. What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm. You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site collection. What permission level should you configure?
A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index. Users report that search results are too broad. You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results. Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the application server. You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message attachments in libraries. You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
70-331 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 18
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 19
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.

D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 21
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255. 255. 255. 0. Now create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA. Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
70-331 exam  Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 23
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 25
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP

D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 26
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
70-331 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C

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Question: 5
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains multiple servers that have Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. A DPM server named Server1 is running out of hard disk space. You add additional physical hard disks to Server1. You verify that the additional disks are available from the local Disk Management console. You need to ensure that the additional disk space can be used to store DPM backups. What should you do?
A. From the DPM Administrator console, click Refresh.
B. From the DPM Administrator console, click Disk Allocation.
C. From the DPM Administrator console, click Add.
D. From the DPM Administrator console, click Rescan.
70-246 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
To add disks to the storage pool In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar, click Management, and then click the Disks tab. In the Actions pane, click Add. The Add Disks to Storage Pool dialog box appears. The Available disks section lists the disks that you can add to the storage pool. Select one or more disks, click Add, and then click OK. Adding Disks to the Storage Pool

Question: 6
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy Data Protection Manager (DPM) to the private cloud. You configured DPM to back up the following information on 20 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2:
Data volumes
System state data
Volume mount points
You discover that the system state backup fails on all of the servers. You can verify that all other data is backed up successfully.
You need to ensure that the system state backup completes successfully on all of the servers. What should you do?
A. Install Windows Server Backup on each server.
B. Connect each server to a dedicated LUN.
C. Reinstall the DPM agent on each server.

D. Add each server to a dedicated protection group.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A system state backup uses the Windows Server Backup feature to take a snapshot of the system state and saves it locally to the server before moving it to the DPM server storage pool. Troubleshooting Data Protection Manager System State and Bare Metal Backup

Question: 7
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. An administrator installs a new tape drive on a server that has Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. You discover that the tape drive is unavailable from the DPM Administrator console. You verify that the tape drive is installed correctly on the DPM server. You need to ensure that the tape drive is available from the DPM Administrator console. What should you do from the DPM Administrator console?
A. From the Agents view, click Install.
B. From the Disks tab, click Add.
C. From the Protection view, click Tape.
D. From the Libraries view, click Rescan.
70-246 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
To configure tape libraries In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar click Management, and then click the Libraries tab. In the Actions pane, click Rescan. The Rescan operation might take several minutes to complete. DPM will add any library jobs to the queue that began during the Rescan operation. If a library job is already in progress when the Rescan operation begins, the Rescan operation will fail. Configuring Tape Libraries

Question: 8
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You install the servers shown in the following table.
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The company’s compliance department identifies the following tasks that must be performed:
Back up individual files from VM1.
Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
The compliance department administrators recommend installing the DPM agent on Server1, and then performing a full backup. You need to identify which task is NOT met by the recommended solution. Which task should you identify?
A. Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
B. Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
C. Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
D. Back up individual files from VM1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the event of disaster recovery, System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM) 2010 allows you to recover virtual machines as files to a network folder. You can then copy those files to an alternate Hyper-V host server. However, to start a virtual machine on an alternate Hyper-V host server, you have to manually create and configure the virtual machine using the recovered files. DPM 2010 supports alternate location recovery (ALR), which allows you to recover a Hyper-V virtual machine to an alternate stand-alone Hyper-V host or to a cluster. The recovered virtual machine is already registered and configured on an alternate Hyper-V host server. In a virtualized environment the issue is whether to backup from inside the guest or from the host. The latter provides “bare metal restore” of an entire VM where something’s gone catastrophically wrong with a VM (or the host) but in general it doesn’t provide granular restore of files / folders. DPM 2010 added Item Level Restore (ILR), allowing you to restore individual files or folders within a VM even though it had only been backed up from the host. But this capability was only available when DPM 2010 ran on physical hardware, if the DPM server itself was in a VM this capability was not available. DPM 2012 fixes this glitch and can now do ILR even when the DPM server is a VM

Question: 9
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains two management servers and 10 Hyper-V hosts. You configure VMM to use an update server and to synchronize the updates by using a windows Server Update Services (WSUS)  server named WSUS1. You attempt to verify compliance with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts. What should you modify?
A. the update classifications of the update server
B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline
C. the default configuration provider
D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

70-246 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
In the VMM console, open the Fabric workspace. On the Home tab, in the Add group, click Add Resources, and then click Update Server. The Add Windows Server Update Services Server dialog box
opens. In Computer name, enter the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the WSUS server (for example, VMMServer01.contoso.com). Specify which TCP/IP port that the WSUS website listens on for connections (for example, port 8530). Enter credentials for connecting to the WSUS server. The account must have administrator rights on the WSUS server. If necessary, select the Use Secure Socket Layer (SSL) to communicate with the WSUS server and clients check box. Click Add. The WSUS server will be added to VMM, followed by initial synchronization of the updates catalog. Depending on how many update classifications and products you chose when you installed the WSUS server, this operation can take a long time, depending on such factors as network traffic and
  the load on the WSUS server. To find out the status of the operation, monitor the status of the Add Update Server and Synchronize Update Server jobs in the Jobs window or in the Jobs workspace. Note After you enable update management in VMM, you should manage the WSUS server only through VMM, unless you are using a WSUS server in a Configuration Manager environment. To verify that the WSUS server was added to VMM successfully: In the Fabric workspace, on the Fabric pane, expand Servers, and click Update Server. The results pane should display the WSUS server. In the Library workspace, on the Library pane, expand Update Catalog and Baselines, and then click Update Catalog. The results pane should display the updates that were downloaded during WSUS synchronization.
Question: 10
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains seven servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a solution to apply Windows updates to the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the following requirements: Approve Windows updates from the VMM Administrator Console. Store information about Windows update installations in Configuration Manager Reports. What should you do first?
A. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as a host server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
B. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Servers as an update server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
C. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
D. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A configuration manager agent is required to store information about Windows update installation in the Configuration Manager reports.

Step 1: Install and Configure a Software Update Point  The software update point is required on the central administration site and primary sites to enable software updates compliance assessment and to deploy software updates to clients. The software update point is optional on secondary sites. The software update point site system role must be created on a server that has WSUS installed. The software update point interacts with the WSUS services to configure software update settings and request synchronization of software updates metadata. When you have a Configuration Manager hierarchy, install and configure the software update point on the central administration site first, then on child primary sites, and then optionally on secondary sites. When you have a stand-alone primary site (no central administration site), install and configure the software update point on the primary site first, and then optionally on secondary
sites. Some settings are only available when you configure the software update point on a central administration site, or stand-alone primary site, and there are different options that you must
consider depending on where the software update point is installed.

Question: 11
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. You plan to create a distributed application named Appl. You need to ensure that a folder for App1 is available from the Monitoring workspace in the Operations Manager console. What should you do?
A. Run the Protect-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
B. Save App1 in the Default Management Pack.
C. Run the Import-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
D. Save App1 as a new management pack.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Default Management Pack file contains common elements such as views at the top level of the Monitoring workspace. This is an unsealed management pack file so that you can create views and folders at this level. It should not be used for any other purpose. For creating elements such as monitors and rules, create a new management pack file. Selecting a Management Pack File
The Default management pack that ships with OpsMgr 2007 is used to store very specific information for the management group. It is a widely known best practice to NOT write any custom rules, monitors, groups, views, or overrides to this MP. Even customers who know this – and try to enforce this across their organizations…. will still inadvertently get junk in their default MP…. they will save things here by accident, or by granting access to advanced operators who aren’t educated on this topic. The main problem with doing so…. is that we will build a dependency for this MP on any MP it references…. and therefore we wont ever be able to delete those management packs, until we clean this Default MP up, and start enforcing best practices.

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QUESTION 17 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
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You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time. What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013

When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer. What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently migrated to Office 365 and is planning to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers in the main office and all branch offices. Due to limited bandwidth at the branch offices, the company decides to have users install Office 365 ProPlus from a network share by using the Click-to-Run deployment method. You need to install Office 365 ProPlus on a client computer. How should you complete the relevant command? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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070-347 dumps

QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user has a desktop computer and has been assigned an E3 license. The user plans to travel to multiple branch offices and will use a shared desktop computer at each branch office. The user will not have administrative privileges on the branch office computers. You
need to ensure that the user has access to all features of Microsoft Word 2013 and Excel 2013 at the branch offices. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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070-347 dumps
QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees have archive mailboxes that have the default retention policy applied. A new company policy requires some existing mailboxes to have a retention policy that deletes only email messages in the Deleted Items folder after 90 days. Deleted messages must be recoverable. None of the existing retention tags meet the new requirement. You create an empty retention policy named Policy-90. You need to configure the retention policy and apply it to the mailboxes. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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070-347 dumps

QUESTION 23 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. The company is currently migrating from a hosted POP3 email solution to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company maintains extensive lists of external contacts in several Microsoft Excel workbooks. You plan to import all the external contact information from the workbooks into the Exchange Online Global Address List (GAL).The external contacts must not be able to sign in to your company’s Windows Azure Active Directory service. You consolidate all the external contact information into a file named External Contacts. You need to import the file into the GAL. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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QUESTION 24 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for customers that complete the ‘contact me’ field on his website to track return on investment for the marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the ‘metric goal’ field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose “dollars” in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the ‘goal value’ field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he has created for the ‘contact me’ form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the “goal 
completion” field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you’re interested in seeing your most popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the quality score?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The lower a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
C. It is used to measure performance of schedule
D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
A. Information about the propriety of cutoff
B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?
A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes.
C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project’s planning orexecution (“impact”).
D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
A. Identification of assets
B. Identification of threats
C. Identification of threat sources
D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
A. Risk indicator matrix
B. Impact matrix
C. Risk scenario matrix
D. Probability matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
B. Alignment with risk-culture
C. Risk-aware decisions
D. The capacity of the enterprise’s objective to absorb loss.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
A. Risk planning
B. Risk monitoring and controlling
C. Risk identification
D. Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 114
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to __________.
A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates
B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
D. Al1 of the above
70-357 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments.
QUESTION 115
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.
A. Progressive elaboration
B. Stake holder’s review
C. p’an project life cycle
D. Fast backing
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is called Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.
QUESTION 116
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 117
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Develop the project charter

C. Develop the project statement of work
D. Develop project closing document
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur during project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is the best option.
QUESTION 118
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have you left out?
A. Control Schedule
B. Create WBS
C. Sequence Activities
D. Operations
70-357 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources.
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A. Earn Value Analysis
B. Scope Baseline
C. P’sk Register
D. Human Resource Plan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versus planned
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?
A. Project Charter
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Pis’* Management Plan
D. Activity Cost Estimates
70-357 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks.

QUESTION 121
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 122
If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical information
B. WBS
C. Business plans
D. RBS
70-357 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the WBS has not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans are not a likely input to the initiation process
QUESTION 123
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?
A. Monitor implementation of approved changes
B. Validate deliverables
C. Staff, train, and manage the project team
D. Manage cisks and implement risk responses
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented but monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work.
QUESTION 124
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have ________.
A. Offer and consideration

B. Start date and acceptance of start date
C. Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
D. Signatures of all stakeholders
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and notary public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the start date is not needed for all contracts.
QUESTION 125
If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less money; so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)

 

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QUESTION 1
You are developing an application that includes a class named Order. The application will store a collection of Order objects.The collection must meet the following requirements: Use strongly typed members. Process Order objects in first-in-first-out order.
Store values for each Order object. Use zero-based indices. You need to use a collection type that meets the requirements. Which collection type should you use?
A. Queue<T>
B. SortedList
C. LinkedList<T>
D. HashTable
E. Array<T>
70-483 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queues are useful for storing messages in the order they were received for sequential processing. Objects stored in a Queue<T> are inserted at one end and removed from the other.
QUESTION 2
You are developing an application. The application calls a method that returns an array of integers named employeeIds. You define an integer variable named employeeIdToRemove and assign a value to it. You declare an array named filteredEmployeeIds.
You have the following requirements:
Remove duplicate integers from the employeeIds array. Sort the array in order from the highest value to the lowest value.
Remove the integer value stored in the employeeId ToRemove variable from the employeeIds array. You need to create a LINQ query to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you use?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are developing an application that includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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The GetAnimals() method must meet the following requirements:
Connect to a Microsoft SQL Server database. Create Animal objects and populate them with data from the database. Return a sequence of populated Animal objects. You need to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Insert the following code segment at line 16: while(sqlDataReader.NextResult())
B. Insert the following code segment at line 13:
sqlConnection.Open();
C. Insert the following code segment at line 13:
sqlConnection.BeginTransaction();
D. Insert the following code segment at line 16:
while(sqlDataReader.Read())
E. Insert the following code segment at line 16:
while(sqlDataReader.GetValues())
70-483 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SqlConnection.Open – Opens a database connection with the property settings specified by the ConnectionString. SqlDataReader.Read – Advances the SqlDataReader to the next record.
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing a custom collection named LoanCollection for a class named Loan class. You need to ensure that you can process each Loan object in the LoanCollection collection by using a foreach loop. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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70-483 dumps

QUESTION 5
You are developing an application that uses the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework to retrieve order information from a Microsoft SQL Server database. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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The application must meet the following requirements:
Return only orders that have an OrderDate value other than null.
Return only orders that were placed in the year specified in the OrderDate property or in a later year. You need to ensure that the application meets the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 08?
A. Where order.OrderDate.Value != null && order.OrderDate.Value.Year > = year
B. Where order.OrderDate.Value = = null && order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year
C. Where order.OrderDate.HasValue && order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year
D. Where order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year

70-483 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*For the requirement to use an OrderDate value other than null use:
OrderDate.Value != null
*For the requirement to use an OrderDate value for this year or a later year use:
OrderDate.Value>= year
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes an array of decimal values named loanAmounts. You are developing a LINQ query to return the values from the array. The query must return decimal values that are evenly divisible by two. The values must be sorted from the lowest value to the highest value. You need to ensure that the query correctly returns the decimal values. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: In a query expression, the orderby clause causes the returned sequence or subsequence (group) to be sorted in either ascending or descending order.
Examples:
// Query for ascending sort.
IEnumerable<string> sortAscendingQuery =
from fruit in fruits
orderby fruit //”ascending” is default
select fruit;
// Query for descending sort.
IEnumerable<string> sortDescendingQuery =
from w in fruits
orderby w descending
select w;
QUESTION 7
You are developing an application. The application includes a method named ReadFile that reads data from a file. The ReadFile() method must meet the following requirements:
It must not make changes to the data file.
It must allow other processes to access the data file.
It must not throw an exception if the application attempts to open a data file that does not exist. You need to implement the ReadFile() method. Which code segment should you use?
A. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite);
B. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite);
C. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Write);
D. var fs = File.ReadAllLines(Filename);
E. var fs = File.ReadAllBytes(Filename);
70-483 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FileMode.OpenOrCreate – Specifies that the operating system should open a file if it exists; otherwise, a new file should be created. If the file is opened with FileAccess.Read, FileIOPermissionAccess.Read permission is required. If the file access is FileAccess.Write, FileIOPermissionAccess.Write permission is required. If the file is opened with FileAccess.ReadWrite, both FileIOPermissionAccess.Read and FileIOPermissionAccess.Write permissions are required.
FileShare.ReadWrite – Allows subsequent opening of the file for reading or writing.If this flag is not specified, any request to open the file for reading or writing (by this process or another process) will fail until the file is closed.However, even if this flag is specified, additional permissions might still be needed to access the file.

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Question No : 17 – (Topic 1) You are developing a web form that includes the following code.70-480 dumps
When a user selects the check box, an input text box must be added to the page dynamically. You need to ensure that the text box is added. Which function should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-480 exam Answer: B
Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) An HTML page has a canvas element. You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle should resemble the following graphic.
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How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

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Answer:
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Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page includes the following HTML.
<div>
Logo:<br>
<div id=”logo”>
</div>
</div>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels. Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById(“logo”) .style.position = “relative”;
B. document.getElementByld(“logo”).Style.top = “5px”;
C. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.top = “-5px”;
D. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.position = “absolute”;
70-480 dumps Answer: A,B
Reference:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag with the ID set to validate. When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from the content above and below it. The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
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The page must be rendered so that the <div> tag is not forced to be separate from the other content. The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.
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You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement. Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Answer: A
Reference:
Question No : 21 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are creating a web worker for an HTML5 application. The following tasks must be performed from within the web worker: Register an event listener for the web worker Start and stop the web worker You need to define a function that performs the required tasks. Which code segment should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the drop-down list in the answer area.)
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70-480 dumps

70-480 pdf Answer:
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Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)You are creating a JavaScript function that displays the name of a web application. You declare the following button element. <input type=”button” id= “About” value=”About” />  When a user clicks the button, a JavaScript function named About must be called. You need to create an event handler that calls the About function when the button is
clicked. Which two code segments can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C,D
Reference:
Question No : 23. Now that the network is moving towards a trusted network, you are preparing for the specific new implementations in Certkiller . Just as you wrap up some paperwork for the morning, Blue calls you and lets you know that you are going to be needed in a meeting this afternoon. You get to Blue’s office and sit down at the desk. Blue begins the conversation, “You know we have some solid fundamental issues addressed in our new trusted network, but I have yet to feel that we have addressed any serious concerns.” “I’ve been thinking about some similar issues,” you reply. “Good, then I’m sure you have been thinking about our email. Right now, I cannot guarantee the integrity of any email, and I cannot guarantee the confidentiality of any email. We have reasonable controls towards guaranteeing the availability of our email, but what’s the point if there is no confidentiality or integrity?” “I agree. I think that addressing this issue should be an immediate priority.” “One concern is that whatever the system is that we put in place, it must be very user-friendly. As we roll out these new systems, anything that will significantly increase the calls into the help desk is something we need to minimize. A second concern is that it not be too costly. We already have this new investment in the trusted network, we need to be sure that we utilize what are building to the fullest extent possible.” “I think we should be able to do that without much difficulty. I already have some solid ideas,” you reply. “OK, take a few days on this. For the moment, just concern yourself with the executive building; the others can follow the plan in their own buildings. Let’s meet again this coming Monday and you can describe your suggestion then.” Based on this conversation, and your knowledge of Certkiller , select the best solution to the email problems in the network.}
A. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using PGP. You will use a full licensed version of PGP. You will go to each computer and you will install the full PGP on each system. Once installed, you will show each user how to create a PGP certificate by requesting the certificate from the CATool CA server you installed specifically for secure email. After the user has received a certificate, you associate that PGP certificate with their Windows domain user account. With the PGP certificate associated with the user account, you show each user how to manage their key ring. You show them how to generate their key, and you configure all user’s key strength to be 2048 bits. Now that the user has a strong key and a PGP certificate, you configure the email client of each user. You explain that each user will have to install the public key of each other user in the network. You test this by sending an email from your laptop with your PGP certificate attached, and you have the user save the attachment to their Outlook folder. With the certificate saved, you show them how to send secure email to you. You receive the email
on your laptop, and double-click the lock to show the user that the secure email message was successfully sent and received.
B. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using X.509v3 digital certificates. You choose this since every user received their certificate during an earlier phase, and those certificates included the ability to be used
for secure email. Using the X.509v3 certificates, you will configure each machine to use S\MIME. You go to each computer and open Outlook Express, which is the default client email program in
the test group. You go to the Tools and Account option, selecting the Mail tab, and the properties for the email account. You select he Security Tab and in the submenu for the Signing Certificate you configure the certificate for the user’s account. You select 3DES as the algorithm to use. You then check the Encrypt Contents And Attachments For All Outgoing Messages check box and the Digitally Sign All Outgoing Messages check box. You accept the default of including the digital id when sending signed messages and the default to add sender’s certificates to the user’s address book, and close the properties the email account. You show the user how to send and receive email, showing the red ribbon that indicates a signed message and the blue lock that indicates an encrypted message.
C. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using GPG. You have decided to use GPG to avoid any licensing conflicts that might occur if any user requires secure email exchange with another individual that is in
a country with different cryptography laws. You will go to each computer and you will install GPG on each system. Once installed, you will show each user how to create the required directory structure, by typing the command: gpg –gen-key Once the directory structure is created, you will
 show each user how to generate the required files, by typing the command: gpg –gen-key
Since you want very secure email, you configure each system to use 2048 bit key strength and you select DSA and ElGamal encryption. With GPG installed and configured, you show each user how to use their new secure email. You have them open Outlook and create a new message to you. Once the message is created, you have them select the Security drop-down list and choose both GPG Sign and GPG Encrypt, and then press send.
You show them on your laptop that you receive the message. You press Reply, and on your laptop also select the Security drop-down menu, where you choose both GPG Sign and GPG Encrypt. The user receives the message, and you show that secure email was
successfully sent and received.
D. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using PGP. You will use a full licensed version of PGP. You will go to each computer and you will install the full PGP on each system. Once installed, you will show each user how to create a PGP certificate by requesting the certificate from the MS Enterprise Root CA server you installed, and configured specifically for secure email certificates. After the user has received a certificate, you associate that PGP certificate with their Windows domain user account. With the PGP certificate associated with the user account, you show each user how to manage their key ring. You show them how to generate their key, and you configure all user’s key strength to be 2048 bits. Now that the user has a strong key and a PGP certificate, you configure the email client of each user. You explain that each user will have to install the public key of each other user in the network. You test this by sending an email from your laptop with your PGP certificate attached, and you have the user save the attachment to their Outlook folder. With the certificate saved, you show them how to send secure email to you. You receive the email on your laptop, and double-click the lock to show the user that the secure email message was successfully sent and received.
E. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using X.509v3 digital certificates. You choose this since every user received their certificate during an earlier phase, and those certificates included the ability to be used
for secure email. You will configure each machine to use PGP, with the X.509v3 certificates option. You go to each computer and open Outlook Express, which is the default client email program in the test group. You go to the Tools and Account option, selecting the Mail tab, and the properties for the email account. You select he Security Tab and in the submenu for the Signing Certificate you configure the certificate for the user’s account. You select DSA and ElGamal as the cryptosystem to use. You then check the Encrypt Contents And Attachments For All Outgoing Messages check box and the Digitally Sign All Outgoing Messages check box. You accept the default of including the digital id when sending signed messages and the default to add sender’s certificates to the user’s address book, and close the properties the email account. You show the user how to send and receive email, showing the red ribbon that indicates a signed message and the blue lock that indicates an encrypted message.

70-480 vce Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-697
Exam Name: Configuring Windows Devices
Q&As: 186

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QUESTION 1
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers. Your company has started testi g App1ication Virtualization (App-V) App1ications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V App1ications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. You need to ensure that the App-V App1ications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network. What should you do?
A. Change user permissions to the App-V App1ications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You administer a Windows 10 Enterprise computer that runs Hyper-V. The computer hosts a virtual machine with multiplesnapshots.ThevirtualmachineusesonevirtualCPUand5l2MBofRAM. You discover that the virtual machine pauses automatically and diSP1ays the state as paused-critical. You need to identify the component that is causing the error. Which component should you identify?
A. no virtual switch defined
B. insufficientmemory
C. insufficient hard disk space
D. insufficient number of virtual processors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business. One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementinganychanges,theclientwantstoensurethatthelaptops ndtabletssupportVirtualSmartCards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. EnsurethatthelaptopsandtabletsarerunningWindows 10Enterpriseedition.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
A company has l00 clientcomputers thatrun Windows 10 Enterprise. A new company policy requires that all client computers have static lPv6 addresses. You need to assign static lPv6 addresses to the client computers. Which Network Shell (netsh) command should you run?
A. add address
B. set interface
C. set global
D. set address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
YouadministerWindows 10EnterprisedesktopcomputersthataremembersofanActiveDirectorydomain. You want to create an archived copy of user profiles that are stored on the desktops. You create a standard domain user account to run a backup task. You need to grant the backup task user account access to the user profiles. What should you do?
A. Add the backup task account to the Remote Management Users group on a domain controller.
B. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on every computer.
C. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on a domain controller.
D. Set the backup task account as NTFS owner on all the profiles.
70-697 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You support desktop computers and tablets that run Windows 8 Enterprise. All of the computers are able to connect to your company network from the lnternet by using DirectAccess. Your company wants to deploy a new App1ication to the tablets. The deployment solution must meet the following requirements: The App1ication is able to access files stored on an internal solid-state drive (SSD) on the tablets. The App1ication is isolated from other App1ications. The App1ication uses the least amount of disk space on the tablet. You need to deploy the new App1ication to the tablets. What should you do?
A. Deploy the App1ication as an App1ication Virtualization (App-V) package. lnstall the App-V 4.6 client on the tablets.
B. Deploy the App1ication as a published App1ication on the Remote Desktop server. Create a Remote Desktop connection on the tablets.
C. lnstall the App1ication on a local drive on the tablets.
D. lnstall the App1ication in a Windows To Go workspace.
E. lnstall Hyper-V on tablets. lnstall the App1ication on a virtual machine.
F. Publish the App1ication to Windows Store.
G. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a virtual hard disk (VHD) file.
Configure the tablets with dual boot.
H. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a VHDX file. Configure tablets with dual boot.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You use a Windows 8.l tablet. The tablet receives Windows Update updates automatically from the lnternet. The tablet has Wi-Fi and is connected to a 3G mobile broadband Wi-Fi hot spot. You need to minimize data usage while connected to this hot spot. What should you do?
A. Turn on AirpLANe Mode.
B. Disable File and Print Sharing for mobile broadband connections.
C. ConfiguretheinterfacemetricoflPsettingsforWi-Ficonnectionasl.
D. Edit the lnbound Rule of Windows Firewall, and then disable lnternet Control Message Protocol (lCMP) traffic.
E. Configure the broadband connection as a metered network.
70-697 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
You are the network administrator for Contoso, ltd. Many users have Windows 10 Enterprise laptops, and your lT departmentconfiguresallofthetouseBitlockeronallfixeddrives.
Many users carry sensitive corporate data on their USB drives.
You need to enable Bitlocker for these USB drives.

Which key protector option should you use?
A. a smartcard
B. a startup key
C. TPM+PlN
D. TPM+Password
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and is used by l0 users. The computer is joined to an Active Directory domain.AlloftheusersaremembersoftheAdministratorsgroup.Each userhasanActiveDirectoryaccount. You have a Microsoft Word document that contains confidential information. You need to ensure that you are the only user who can open the document.
What should you configure?
A. account policies
B. App1ication control polices
C. HomeGroupsettings
D. software restriction policies
E. NTFS permissions
F. MicrosoftOneDrive
G. share permissions
H. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Q&As: 47

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QUESTION NO: 38
_________ are preferred if the culture in the organization may hinder open, candid discussions in
workshop settings or of management desires to minimize the time spent and cost incurred in
gathering the information.
A. Interviews
B. Surveys
C. Dialogues
D. Conferences
70-473 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 39
What is commonly used to produce a quick answer to a specific question or concern about a
particular process, activity or procedure?
A. Rapid flow analysis
B. Immediate respondents
C. Management-produces analysis
D. Supervision board
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 40
An efficient and economical method of storing data so it can be accessed quickly for management
decisions using access tools like searches and records is known as:
A. Database
B. Data dictionary
C. Data repository
D. Catalog
70-473 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Good team communication, leadership, environment of trust and respect, good management are
all factors of:
A. Managerial acts
B. Ethical conducts
C. Enhanced operational conducts
D. Open voting
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following is correct?
A. Workshops can be very useful when a number of employees are away from work for a limited
period time.
B. Workshops can be very expensive when a number of employees are away from work for an
extended period time.
C. Workshops can be very expensive when there is a good management support among
employees.
D. Workshops can be very least costly when a number of employees are away from work for an
extended period time.

70-473 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 43
Votes are cast anonymously and all responses are confidential is one of the advantages of:
A. Classified voting
B. Electronic mailing
C. Electronic voting
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which following is a classification of Control self-assessment workshop?
A. Presentation software
B. Electronic mailing
C. Project management software
D. None of the above
70-473 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 45
__________ can be used in control self-assessment workshops in conjunction with other
interactive programs such as OptionFinder to allow participants to anonymously express their
opinions on the information presented.
A. Presentation devices
B. Seminar software
C. Occupational software
D. Presentation software
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 46
A successful Project has following phases:
A. Planning, Execution, Controlling
B. Initiation, Planning, Execution, Controlling
C. Initiation, Planning, Execution, Testing
D. Planning, Execution, Controlling, Testing
70-473 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following is NOT the potential benefit of the CSA to the organization?
A. Better risk assessment
B. Improved employee morale
C. Improved ability to test
D. Efficient business processes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 48
Which of the following is NOT the potential benefit of the CSA to the internal auditing?
A. Improved employee morale
B. Improved ability to test informal controls
C. More efficient use of audit resources
D. Better ability to focus on high-risk areas
70-473 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
The purpose of developing and organizational structure is:
A. To establish individual responsibilities to handle complexity of the organization’s processes.
B. To establish individual responsibilities as a means of control and to ensure the organization
achieves its goals.
C. To establish individual responsibilities, their number and type.
D. To establish individual responsibilities to formalize the organization’s processes.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following is NOT the type of organizational structures?
A. Flat vs. tall organizational structures
B. Centralized vs. decentralized organizations
C. Productive vs. unproductive structures
D. Mechanistic vs. organic structures
70-473 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which structures characterized by fast information flow between levels of the organization and
high employee satisfaction?
A. Complex
B. Centralized
C. Productive
D. Flat
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 52
Tall organization structures have a large number of levels between the top of the organization and
the bottom.
A. True
B. False
70-473 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
Which of the following is Correct?
A. more highly centralized organizations tend to push responsibility for making important decisions
to lower levels of management.
B. more highly decentralized organizations tend to push responsibility for making important
decisions to lower levels of management.
C. more highly productive organizations tend to push responsibility for making important decisions
to upper levels of management.
D. more highly flat organizations tend to push responsibility for making important decisions to
upper levels of management.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
_________ structures tend to evolve in highly formal, centralized organizations where employees
are subject to strict controls and little flexibility in decision making.
A. Simple
B. Professional
C. Mechanistic
D. Organic
70-473 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 55
Organic structures are:
A. Common to Formal, decentralized organizations that tend to be more participative, open and
fixed.
B. Common to Formal, centralized organizations that tend to be more participative, open and
fixed.
C. Common to informal, centralized organizations that tend to be more participative, open and
flexible.
D. Common to informal, decentralized organizations that tend to be more participative, open and
flexible.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
Organizations with centralized structures with a strict chain of command and typically perform
highly repetitive tasks grouped within their functional areas, have:
A. Machine bureaucracy
B. Performance bureaucracy
C. Functional bureaucracy
D. Organizational bureaucracy
70-473 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 57
In organizational with decentralized structures where employees within highly trained specialties
are granted decision-making authority within their functional area is called:
A. Machine bureaucracy
B. Professional bureaucracy
C. Functional bureaucracy
D. Decisional bureaucracy
Answer: B

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