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An administrator wants to ensure end-users have a seamless cross-device authentication experience while leveraging Single Sign-On (SSO) and meeting security compliance requirements.
Which VMware solutions can be integrated to achieve this use-case?
A. Workspace ONE Access + Workspace ONE UEM
B. Workspace ONE Intelligence + Workspace ONE Access
C. Workspace ONE Assist + Workspace ONE Intelligence
D. Workspace ONE UEM + Workspace ONE Assist
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
Which feature limits the number of changes that can be made to Users and Groups when updating directories in VMware Workspace ONE Access?
A. UEM Security PIN
B. Default Action For Inactive Users
C. Conditional Group Sync
D. Directory Sync Safeguard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
Which statement about VMware Workspace ONE Access with other VMware Workspace ONE product integrations is accurate?
A. VMware Workspace ONE Trust Network includes several security solutions that can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Access, which can provide a consolidated view of all threats reported by the various security solutions
B. VMware Workspace ONE Assist can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Access to provide administrators the ability to seamlessly launch remote management sessions for eligible devices from the VMware Workspace ONE Access console
C. AirWatch Cloud connector can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Access to act as a proxy for users to access internal resources
D. VMware Workspace ONE Access can be integrated with VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence to provide insights on user logins and application launches
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5:
Which two actions are valid based on identified risk behaviors in VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence Risk Analytics? (Choose two.)
A. Add authentication methods to the user or device with VMware Workspace ONE Access integration
B. Delete all previous risk scoring for the user
C. Move the user to the “very high” risk category
D. Monitor the device or user
E. Add authentication methods to the user or device with VMware Workspace ONE UEM integration
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 6:
An organization wants to prevent users from connecting to VMware Horizon desktop or application pools from a Horizon Pod deployed on their internal network unless the user selects the Horizon pool from the Unified Catalog of their Workspace ONE Access shared SaaS tenant.
Which additional setting must the organization administrator configure?
A. Enable the Virtual App Service on all Unified Access Gateway systems that allow users to connect to Horizon pools from the Horizon Pod
B. Configure the Workspace ONE Access tenant as a SAML 2.0 authenticator on all Horizon Connection Servers in the Horizon Pod
C. Enable the VMware Tunnel on all Unified Access Gateway systems that allow users to connect to Horizon pools from the Horizon Pod
D. Set “Delegation of authentication to VMware Horizon (SAML 2.0 Authenticator)” to “Allowed” on all Horizon Connection Servers in the Horizon Pod
An administrator has enabled and configured Kerberos in the VMware Workspace ONE Access console, but the connection test fails. What is one reason this connection failed to authenticate?
A. The Linux machine on which the Kerberos Auth service is installed was not joined to the domain
B. The certificate was not enabled on the VMware Workspace ONE UEM console
C. The Kerberos Auth service is incorrectly configured on the AirWatch Cloud Connector
D. The certificate is unsigned by a trusted SSL or public or internal certificate authority
An administrator has been tasked with building and enabling Secure Email Gateway (SEG) V2 n the Unified Access Gateway (UAG). How should the SSL certificate be added to the UAG?
A. From the UAG console: Import-Certificate-FilePath “C:\CA-PublicKey.Cer”-CertStoreLocation Cert:\LocalMachine\Root
B. Upload the SSL certificate to the Workspace ONE UEM console, or upload it locally to the UAG when confirming the SEG Edge service on the UAG.
C. From the UAG console: sudo security add-trusted-cert-d-r trust root-k /Library/Keychains/System.keychain ~/new-root-certificate. crt.
D. Upload the SSL certificate to the Workspace ONE UEM console, or add it when the SSL is configuring the SEG Edge service on the UAG.
Which two methods may administrators use to provision users from Okta to VMware Workspace ONE Access? (Choose two.)
A. System for Cross-domain Identity Management (SCIM) API
B. Workspace ONE UEM REST API
C. Active Directory Sync
D. Just-in-time (JIT) Provisioning
E. AirWatch Cloud Connector
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13:
A customer has asked for recommendations around a disaster recovery architecture design for VMware Workspace ONE Access. The customer has an extremely aggressive recovery point objective and recovery time objective.
Which HA/DR design should be recommended, given the supported options?
A. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters, One 3-node cluster Datacenter 1 and the other 3-node cluster m Datacenter 2. The two 3-node clusters are set up in an active/passive configuration.
B. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters. One 3-node cluster Datacenter 1 and the other 3-node cluster m Datacenter 2. The two 3-node clusters are set up in an active/active configuration.
C. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters, Both 3-node clusters are spanned across both datacenters, two nodes in one datacenter and one in the other, respectively. The two 3-node clusters are setup in an active/active configuration.
D. Multi-datacenter design with two 3-node clusters, Both 3-node clusters are spanned across both datacenters, two nodes in one datacenter and one in the other, respectively. The two 3-node clusters are setup in an active/passive configuration.
Correct Answer: C
…
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Q1 -New
Scenario 2: After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed. The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing.
Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources. The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible. Exhibit.
Users at the London site are complaining of various intermittent issues around websites not loading, or applications being remotely accessed disconnecting sporadically and reconnecting after a few minutes. The network administrator does not see anything strange on the Edge overview page and decides to check if the CPU or memory has been hitting close to 100. Where should the administrator verify this information?
A. In the VCO > Test 8c Troubleshoot > Remote Diagnostics > System Status B. In the VCO > Monitor > Click London_Site01 > Click the System Tab C. In the VCO > Remote Troubleshooting > Remote Actions > System Status D. In the VCO > Monitor > Alerts
Correct Answer: B
Q2 – New
Scenario 2: After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.
Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications. Exhibit.
A network administrator has configured a Business Policy to send a specific application directly out of an underlay interface. Users have complained of slow responses for that application. While troubleshooting, the network administrator finds the traffic is actually taking an overlay path to another SD-WAN Edge. What is causing this behavior?
A. The other Edge location is advertising a secure route for the application\\’s subnet. B. uI has been configured forcing traffic into the underlay towards the hub. C. Configuring Business Policy Direct settings have no effect on traffic flows. D. Internet Back. E. The underlay path is not available forcing traffic into the overlay.
Correct Answer: E
Q3 – New
Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.
Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications. Exhibit.
A network administrator decides to deploy a local Checkpoint VNF appliance on the Edge in London to cut back on unnecessary traffic towards the NY hub location.
The Checkpoint VNF and associated security services were successfully deployed at the London Branch. Users are now complaining that Webpages are extremely slow to load, just like before. What should the administrator do?
A. Reboot the Edge, as this is a requirement in the deployment of a Security VNF. B. Disable and redeploy the VNF with lower memory requirements. C. Verify to see if a firewall rule in the Edge is set to allow traffic to the Checkpoint VNF. D. Check the flow records in Remote Diagnostics.
Correct Answer: B
Q4 – New
Scenario 2: After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.
The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.
The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible. Exhibit.
The tunnel from the spoke to the hub is not coming up. What are the two possible reasons? (Choose two.)
A. Spoke Edge and hub Edge are two different Edge models. B. Spoke Edge and hub Edge have a mismatched certificate authentication mode. C. Hub WAN Interface might be behind the NAT Device or firewall. D. Dynamic Branch to Branch is not enabled.
Correct Answer: BC
Q5 – New
Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.
Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications. Exhibit.
Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already verified the configuration is correct. Which two parameters should the administrator review to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss) B. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings C. Check the flows to verify which Business Policy the traffic of interest is matching D. Look under Monitor, check the Business priority tab
Correct Answer: AD
Q6 – New
Scenario 2: After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and blanches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.
The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.
The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible. Exhibit.
After deploying the Edge, the security team has determined that traffic from Guest wireless traffic is able to reach resources in the Production network. There should be absolutely no interaction. How can this be prevented?
A. Create an additional segment for Guest wireless traffic and leave the Production traffic in the default global segment. B. Segmentation is currently not supported on VeloCloud Edge. C. Create two subnets, one for Guest wireless traffic and another one for Production traffic. D. Have Guest wireless and Production traffic in the same segment but different VLANs.
Correct Answer: A
Q7 – New
Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.
Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Users at multiple branches complain that a highly performant SQL Database cluster residing at the New York Data Center is not responding to database queries or inserts as expected. It is affecting the order management site. A network administrator investigates and finds that traffic from the branches is going through Seattle to reach the SQL Cluster in New York. The design for this SD-WAN network does not call for routing security.
The SQL Cluster is reachable through either Data Center, but for performance reasons, must flow through the New York DC. The network administrator has verified that the routes are not present in the OFC and the BGP neighborship is down in Network Services.
Refer to the Exhibit(s). Exhibit.
What should the administrator verify?
A. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in New York. B. The BGP Authentication matches on both sides. C. The BGP configuration has a filter in place to deny the prefix in Seattle. D. Backhauling through Seattle DC is disabled.
Correct Answer: D
Q8 – New
Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present- The network administrator is informed (that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.
Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications. Exhibit.
Which metrics can a network administrator verify in the QoE screen to determine the overall health of Underlay and Overlay?
A. Jitter Packet Loss, Speed. B. Jitter, Packet Loss, Latency. C. Jitter, Speed, Latency. D. Packet Loss, Latency, Speed.
Correct Answer: B
Q9 – New
Scenario 2: After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been completed.
The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources.
The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and that all resources are accessible. Exhibit.
A network administrator is investigating connectivity issues between Chicago and San Jose. The administrator browses the Overlay Flow Control (OFC) window and notices that the screen is blank with no routes shown in the OFC. What is a possible reason for this?
A. Cloud VPN for the Edges / Profiles is not enabled. B. There is an invalid MTU configuration in Chicago. C. OSPF or BGP is not enabled. D. The routing table on the Edges has not been initialized.
Correct Answer: A
Q10 – New
Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected lo.
Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications. Exhibit.
Users are complaining that web pages to certain websites are very slow to load and at times unresponsive. The network administrator has verified that the traffic is going correctly out of the underlay. What should the administrator check next?
A. Verify if Path-MTU Discovery is disabled. B. Verify if there is latency, loss, or jitter on the underlay. C. Verify the Business Policy flows are matching. D. Verify if routes to Gateways are present in the Overlay Flow Control (OFC).
Correct Answer: A
Q11 – New
Scenario 1: A network administrator is tasked with enabling SD-WAN at three branch locations. Topology has been provided for reference. For each site, the administrator is having issues bringing edges online, as another administrator has gone ahead and created a configuration ahead of time. The organization has several branch sites.
One is an Internet-only site and two are Hybrid locations with both internet and MPLS. The last location is MPLS only. There are hub data center locations in this environment as well. Please refer to the topology. Exhibit.
The network administrator determines the issue preventing the Dallas Branch from coming online. Refer to the Exhibit(s). What must the administrator do for the Edge to communicate with the Orchestrator and other branches?
A. Reverse the WAN Overlay configurations B. Update the Orchestrator to the latest version as it enables “Auto WAN Swapping” C. Delete the User-Defined WAN Overlays as the Orchestrator will discover these automatically on MPLS and Internet D. Create a User-defined WAN Overlay to bond both interfaces
Correct Answer: A
Q12 – New
Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up.
Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications. Exhibit.
Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already configured Business Policies based on these requirements. What is the sequence of parameters that the administrator can check to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings. B. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss). C. Under Monitor, check the Routing tab. D. Review Business Policies configuration and match them against the business requirements.
Correct Answer: BD
Q13 – New
Scenario 3: After resolving numerous connectivity issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to.
Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expected. A group of users from a few sites has reported slowness in accessing; internal and external applications. Exhibit.
A network administrator is configuring several branches to prefer a single prefix, 10.20.11.0/24, from the Seattle hub over the New York hub for various application performance reasons. What are two effective ways the administrator can accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Modify the AS Path in New York to be shorter for 10.20.11.0/24. B. In the hub preferred order in the profile, set the Seattle hub to be preferred over New York. C. Modify the AS Path in New York to be longer for 10.20.11.0/24. D. In the OFC 10.20.11.0/24, modify the preferred exit point to Seattle and pin the route.
Correct Answer: BD
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VMware 5V0-23.20 free dumps questions to help you pass:
Q1 – New
How do Tanzu Kubemetes clusters communicate with Storage Policy Based Management to request PersistentVolumes?
A. Through a proxy VM B. Directly with vCenter Server and the underlying ESXi hosts C. Through the Supervisor Cluster D. Directlywith the vCenter Server
Correct Answer: A
Q2 – New
A developer is connecting to a Tanzu Kubernetes Cluster using the kubectl sphere login command Which information must be specified, in addition to both the name of the cluster and the Supervisor Cluster Control Wane IP?
A. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the SSO Username B. The path to the existing kubeconfig file and the Token D for the SSO credentials C. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the Token ID for the SSO credentials D. The name of the Supervisor Namespace and the SSO Username
Correct Answer: B
Q3 – New
The network topology for a Supervisor Cluster deployed using the vSphere networking stack, and an HAProxy load balancer is being planned. In addition to the control plane management IP range and services P range, how many nonoverlapping P address ranges are needed?
A. 3 B. 1 C. 4 D. 2
Correct Answer: B
Q4 – New
Which value must be increased or decreased to horizontally scale a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster?
A. Namespaces B. etc instance C. Worker node count D. ReplicaSets
Correct Answer: C
Q5 – New
On which cluster can a Supervisor Namespace be created? A. A Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Integrated cluster B. A vSphere 7 clusters enabled with Workload Management C. A Tanzu Kubernetes cluster D. A vSphere 6.7 clusters enabled with Workload Management
Correct Answer: C
Q6 – New
A company needs to provide global visibility and consistent policy management across multiple Tanzu Kubernetes Clusters, namespaces, and clouds Which VMware solution will meet these requirements\’?
A. vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster B. vCenter Server C. Tanzu Mission Control D. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service
Correct Answer: A
Q7 – New
The application development team is pushing a Kubernetes application into production. It consists of an application server and a database. The team wants to ensure that only the production application server can access the production database.
Can the development team meet this requirement using Kubernetes Network Policy?
A. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a Network Policy that only allows pods on the same network segment to talk to each other. B. Yes. by logging in to NSX Manager and creating firewall rules to only allow the production application server pod to talk to the database C. Yes, by using kubect1 to create a policy that disables pod-to-pod communication in the Namespace D. No, Kubernetes Network Policy does not support this action.
Correct Answer: A
Q8 – New
Which command should be used by a developer to log in to the vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster? A. vmwarectl login –server- –vsphere-username B. kubectl vsphere login –server= –vsphereusername C. vmwarectl vsphere login –server– –vsphereusername D. kubectl login –server= –vsphere-username
Correct Answer: B
Q9 – New
Which requirement is valid for vSphere with Tanzu on the vSphere Distributed Switch Network?
A. Workload networks that are routable to the primary workload network B. HAProxy Virtual Server IP range that is allocated to NSX-T edge router external interface C. Network Interface Cards with Single Root IO Visualization Support (SR-IOV) D. HAProxy Frontend interface that has a common subnet and bridged interface to workload networks
Correct Answer: B
Q10 – New
Which two considerations need to be made when deciding on a virtual machine class type during the process of creating a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two )
A. Whether the resources provided by the virtual machine class type should be reserved on the host B. The configuration parameters that need to be edited in the cluster C. The amount of CPU. memory, and storage the virtual machine should have D. Connectivity between the Tanzu Kubernetes cluster and the Subscribed Content Library E. The storage classes which need to be made available to the cluster
Correct Answer: CD
Q11 – New
Which step in vSphere with Tanzu enablement using the vSphere Distributed Switch process is done prior to using the Workload Management Enablement Wizard?
A. Deploy the load balancer B. Choose the Kubernetes content library that should be used in the Supervisor Cluster C. Define the Primary workload network P range D. Define the Management network interfaces for the Supervisor Cluster
Correct Answer: D
Q12 – New
Which two capabilities are associated with vSphere Pod? (Choose two.)
A. Compatibility with vSphere vMotion B. Compatibility with vSphere performance charts C. Compatibility with NSX-V Datacenter D. Compatibility with vSphere HA and DRS E. Compatibility with Windows and Linux kernels
Correct Answer: CD
Q13 – New
How does Kubernetes implement the vSphere storage policy in vSphere with Tanzi?
A. Storage class B. Paravirtual CSl C. Static Persistent Volume D. Persistent Volume
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The error in the exhibit was received while an administrator was trying to connect to a Horizon ADSI database from a Connection Server. What change does the administrator need to make in the UI to connect to the ADSI database?
A. Change the Computer field to localhost: 369 B. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vdi, dc-int, dc-vmware C. Change the Connection Point held to dc-vmware,dc-vdi, dc-int D. Change the Computer field to localhost:3268
Correct Answer: B
Q2 – New
After a disaster recovery failure which left the data center unavailable, a company\’s Horizon Administrator team has dedicated to increase the capacity of their Horizon desktop pools and their resiliency. Which two deployment options would support the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Horizon Desktop deployed as a Service on vCloud Air. B. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on AWS. C. Horizon deployed m the same Local Data Center. D. Horizon deployed on VMware Cloud on VMware. E. Horizon deployed in a Remote Data Center
Correct Answer: AC
Q3 -New
An administrator has added a support PCI graphics accelerator to a virtual machine configuration. Which the administrator tries to power on the virtual machine, an error is displayed and the virtual machine remains powered off.
Which of the following virtual machine configuration settings needs to be applied to enable the virtual machine to power on?
A. Reserve all guest memory. B. Set Memory Shares to High C. Enable Video Card 3D Graphics. D. Disable CPU Hot Plug.
Correct Answer: B
Q4 – New
An administrator needs to change the message a user receives when using an old Horizon client. Where can this be accomplished?
A. Settings > Global Settings > Client Restriction Settings B. Client settings in VMware Dynamic Environment Manager C. Client Restrictions under Desktop Pool settings D. Settings > Global Policies > Client Restriction Settings
Correct Answer: D
Q5 – New
Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?
A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine. B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation. C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine. D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.
What must be implemented on all Connection Servers for logon segment information to be populated in the Horizon Helpdesk Tool?
A. Vdmadmin -1timingProfiler -Enable B. Vdmadmin -A -d dtpool2 -m machine1 -getstatus C. Blast Secure Gateway D. Horizon Helpdesk Agent
Correct Answer: B
Q7 – New
An administrator is leveraging PCoIP protocol in their Horizon environment and wants to distribute clients to end users that have the smallest footprint possible with no local operating system. Which client type satisfies these requirements?
A. Teradici based zero clients B. Windows embedded thin client C. MacOS Client D. Android based thin client
Correct Answer: A
Q8 – New
An administrator wants to leverage Horizon Cloud Service to manage their Horizon on-premises deployment. What does the administrator need to install to achieve this?
A. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector using DHCP B. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway with a static IP C. Deploy a Unified Access Gateway using DHCP. D. Deploy the Horizon Cloud Connector with a static IP.
Correct Answer: D
Q9 – New
Which two capabilities are supported by VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Application Profiler? (Choose two.)
A. It allows individual user personalization of applications. B. It allows creation of computer templates. C. It allows third-party user personalization of applications. D. It allows creation of application-specific predefined settings. E. It analyzes registry and file system location settings for an application.
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the TLS Configuration steps on the left into the correct sequential order on the right. Select and Place:
Q11 – New
An administrator used the Horizon Console to specify the Active Directory account for joining instant-clone VMs to the Active Directory domain. What two permissions must be granted to the Active Directory account to perform this task? (Choose two.)
A. Grant Inventory Administrator role. B. Write properties in the domain or in the organization units. C. Create and delete computer objects. D. Grant the Global Domain Administrator role. E. Grant the Horizon Domain Admin role.
A new Horizon environment has gone into production. External sessions are being disconnected after a random period of time. The following information has been documented by the administrator:
1. Internal and external users are able to connect to their desktops. 2. External sessions connect via a Unified Access Gateway. 3. Users are immediately able to reconnect but will be disconnected again in a few minutes. 4. Internal sessions, connected directly to the desktops, are not impacted. 5. While the session remains connected, all expected functionality works properly. What could be a cause of this issue?
A. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances. B. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Connection Servers. C. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Connection Servers. D. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.
Correct Answer: C
Q13 – New
After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database: Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine
Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)
A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted. B. Desktops can only be customized after the end user logs into the virtual machine. C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory. D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification. E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.
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Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization 1V0-21.20 Real Questions and Answers Share 1-13
NEW QUESTION 1
Which event type indicates a Fatal problem has occurred in the system, and the process or operation will be terminated?
A. Information B. Audit C. Error D. Warning
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 2
A VMware administrator monitoring a project has been advised to run the compute health check using the vSphere 7 clients to monitor the ESXi host’s health. How should the administrator approach this task?
A. Menu > Administrator > Deployment > System Configuration B. Host > Monitor > Skyline Health > Expand Online Health Connectivity > Compute Health Checks > Reset C. Host > Monitor > Events D. Host > Monitor > Issues and Alarms
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 3
An operator must deploy three virtual machines from a template named Win10-Template, and all three VMs must be configured with unique computer names. Which action must the operator take to achieve this goal?
A. Clone Win10-Template three times, and then change the computer name in each clone. B. Export Win10-Template to the local filesystem, and then change the computer name. C. Use a Windows 10 customization specification when deploying the virtual machines. D. Create the virtual machines using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 4
This feature allows an administrator to implement master copies of virtual machines to create ready-for-use virtual machines.
A. Templates B. Resource Pools C. Snapshots D. Custom Attributes
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 5
Which feature must be enabled to use vSphere Fault Tolerance?
A. vSphere DRS B. vSphere Replication C. vSphere HA D. vSAN
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 6
Which two improvements to the management of a VM are gained when VMware Tools are used? (Choose two.)
A. Performs a clone of the VM B. Adds VM alarms to the inventory C. Makes a graceful shutdown of the VM possible D. Allows a snapshot before the guest OS is upgraded E. Synchronizes time between the guest and the host
Correct Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 7
Which vSphere component provides continuous availability for mission-critical virtual machines so users experience no loss of data and no interruption in service during a host failure?
A. vSphere Fault Tolerance B. vSphere Replication C. vSphere HA D. vSphere vmotion
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit:
Which statement Is true about the access privileges of User 2?
A. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to Prod04-3. B. User 2 has no access to all objects in the Production folder and Test and Dev folder. C. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to all VMs In the Production folder. D. User 2 has access to all objects in the Production folder and no access to Dev01, Dev02, and Dev03.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 9
An administrator has noticed an increase in network latency when powered-off virtual machines are migrated. Which VMkernel adapter can the administrator use to reduce this latency?
A. vSAN B. vSphere Replication C. Provisioning D. vMotion
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 10
What is the default encrypted vSphere vMotion state for virtual machines that are not encrypted?
A. Disabled B. Required C. Opportunistic D. Enabled
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 11
Which hypervisor is a type-1 hypervisor?
A. Oracle VM VirtualBox B. VMware ESXi C. VMware Fusion D. VMware Workstation
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 12
A vSphere administrator sees the alarm: vSphere HA virtual machine failed to failover This occurred for virtual machines (VMs) in a cluster with vSphere High Availability (HA) enabled. The guest operating system on the VMs did not report a power failure. What is a possible cause of this event?
A. The host is still running but has disconnected from the network. B. The VMs cloning operations did not complete. C. A reboot of the vCenter Server impacted vSphere HA. D. The VMs encountered an error during migration using vSphere vMotion.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 13
Which DRS score indicates that the virtual machine (VM) is experiencing severe resource contention?
A. 50% B. 95% C. 70% D. 15%
Correct Answer: D
……
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Associated Certification: Master Specialist – VMware Cloud on AWS 2022
All conditions for obtaining this certification:
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1. A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?
A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console. B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window. C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window. D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.
Correct Answer: A
2. Which VMware solution provides customers with the ability to query and graphically display activities for audits, events and custom real-time alerts for the VMware NSX-T firewall running in VMware Cloud on AWS?
A. VMware vRealize Network Insight Cloud B. VMware vRealize Log Insight Cloud C. VMware vRealize Operations Cloud D. CloudHealth by VMware
Correct Answer: C
3. A virtual machine in VMware Cloud on AWS sends a packet to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Linux instance in the associated AWS account. Which device is the next hop for the packet?
A. Edge Virtual Machine B. AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) on the VMware ESXI host C. Tier-0 (T0) Router D. Tier-1 (T1) Router
Correct Answer: B
4. To assist with seasonal workload demands over the next two months, a group of interns are hired to assist with day 2 virtual machine operations in VMware Cloud on AWS. Which method should be used for creating these temporary user accounts and assigning the appropriate permissions to them?
A. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vmc.local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts.
B. Log into on-premises VMware vCenter. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts. Ensure that Hybrid Linked Mode is enabled to allow account propagation to the VMware Cloud on AWS SSO domain.
C. Create the required user accounts within Active Directory and assign them to the required group. With Hybrid Linked Mode enabled, assign the correct role in VMware Cloud on AWS to the Active Directory group that contains the user accounts.
D. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts in Active Directory.
Correct Answer: B
5. What is a key functionality of the vRealize Automation Cloud Service Broker?
A. Provides a common catalog for easy consumption on VMware Cloud. B. Manages blueprints as a code in a YAML format. C. Automates the DevOps release lifecycle. D. Creates and deploys virtual machines, applications, and services to multiple clouds.
Correct Answer: A
6. A customer is deploying a new solution based on VMware Cloud on AWS. The customer is already running several native AWS services and would like the new workloads deployed into VMware Cloud on AWS to consume these services without incurring additional traffic charges. During the initial deployment of the VMware Cloud on AWS softwaredefined data center (SDDC), which option must the customer choose to meet the requirement?
A. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same region as the native AWSservices to be consumed. B. Any availability zone within the same AWS region can be selected. After the SDDC deployment, deploy a services gateway and connect it to the target availability zone. C. Choose a subnet from the connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed. D. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed.
Correct Answer: A
7. What are three benefits of using VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose three.)
A. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their VMware Cloud on AWS resources with familiar VMware tools. B. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their native AWS resources with familiar VMware tools. C. VMware Cloud on AWS supports optimized virtual AWS Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances. D. Native VMware workloads can be migrated back and forth between on-premises VMware vSphere environments and VMware Cloud on AWS. E. With VMware Cloud on AWS, VMware and AWS administrators will manage, maintain and update all virtual machines. F. Native AWS services can be consumed over the global AWS backbone with high bandwidth and low latency.
Correct Answer: ACE
8. An environment is running a cluster with six i3.metal hosts in the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC). If one host fails, what happens after a new host is automatically added to the cluster?
A. The SDDC and NVMe drives backing VMware vSAN capacity are unmounted from the failed host and attached to the new host. There is no VMware vSAN rebuild required. B. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 0. C. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 1. D. A notification is received from VMware Support to start the VMware vSAN rebuild. Performance might be degraded during rebuild.
Correct Answer: C
9. What are three valid migration modes in VMware HCX? (Choose three.)
A. Planned Failover B. Hybrid Linked Mode C. Bulk Migration D. Replication Assisted vMotion (RAV) E. HCX vMotion F. Cross vCenter vMotion
Correct Answer: CDE
10. Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator builds a software-defined data center (SDDC) group to enable connectivity to native Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs). Which connectivity option is needed to enable connectivity across environments?
A. Tier-0 (T0) Router B. Transit Gateway C. Virtual Private Network D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.
Correct Answer: A
11. An administrator deploys a VMware Cloud on AWS environment and configures an IPsec virtual private network (VPN) tunnel to their data center. Hybrid Linked Mode connectivity, however, does NOT appear to be working. Before contacting VMware Support, what could the administrator do to narrow down the possible issue?
A. Fill in the relevant IP information for the on-premises infrastructure and run the desired troubleshooting connectivity test. B. Download and review the Tier-0 (TO) gateway firewall logs. C. Configure a packet capture device in the on-premises data center to capture packets from the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) to determine which packets are being dropped. D. Configure a packet capture appliance on a local segment within VMware Cloud on AWS to capture and analyze traffic across a specific NSX-T gateway interface.
Correct Answer: A
12. A company is operating a main data center and two smaller data centers in branch offices. The main data center is being replicated to a disaster recovery site at a co-located data center with a recovery point objective (RPO) of five minutes and a recovery time objective (RTO) of two hours. The branch data centers are shipping backup tapes to the main data center on a weekly basis.
What would be a cost-efficient VMware solution that would improve RTO and RPO for the branch office data centers while maintaining the recovery time for the main data center?
A. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Create a shared content librand let the branch offices subscribe to it. Export the virtual machines in the branch offices to OVF files on the shared content library on a weekly basis.
B. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Migrate the disaster recovery solution from the co-located data center to the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC. Create regular copies of the virtual machines at the branch offices and use AWS Snowball to directly ship the copies to an AWS data center and store them on AWS S3 buckets.
C. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Activate VMware Site Recovery. Replace the co-located disaster recovery (DR) site for the main data center with VMware Site Recovery. For the branch offices, implement VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).
D. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Replace the co-located site for the main data center and the backup tape shipping for the branch offices with VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).
Correct Answer: A
13. Which three statements are true about the Elastic DRS Optimize for Rapid Scale-Out policy? (Choose three.)
A. Hosts are added incrementally when needed for storage. B. Hosts will NOT be removed automatically when they are no longer needed. C. Multiple hosts are added at a time when needed for memory or CPU. D. After a storage scale-out event is triggered, single hosts are added every 30 minutes. E. High threshold for storage, like the other policies, is set at 75%. F. To resolve constraints related to CPU and memory, hosts are added two at a time.
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1. Which two statements describe Spring JdbcTemplate? (Choose two.)
A. All JdbcTemplate methods throw SQLException which you are required to handle. B. The JdbcTemplate provides the ability to work with result sets. C. The JdbcTemplate can only perform updates but not insert them into the database. D. The JdbcTemplate provides methods for query execution. E. The JdbcTemplate generates SQL statements.
2. What are the two reasons Spring is used to build a Java application? (Choose two.)
A. Spring automates a Java application build. B. Spring provides a Dependency Injection container. C. Spring automates the deployment of Java applications to all of the major cloud providers. D. Spring provides comprehensive Java IDE support. E. Spring provides abstractions over infrastructure such as persistence and messaging.
4. Which two statements are true about @Controller annotated classes? (Choose two.)
A. The @Controller annotated classes can only render views. B. The classes are eligible for handling requests in Spring MVC. C. The classes must be annotated together with @EnableMvcMappings to be discovered via component scanning. D. @Controller is interchangeable with @RestController with no extra code changes for the methods inside the class. E. The @Controller annotation is a stereotype annotation like @Component.
Which option is a valid way to retrieve the account id? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Add @PathVariable(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method. B. Add @PathVariable long accounted argument to the update() handler method. C. Add @RequestParam long accounted argument to the update() handler method. D. Add @RequestParam(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.
6. Which two statements are correct regarding the Actuator info endpoint? (Choose two.)
A. It provides configuration options through which only an authenticated user can display application information. B. It is not enabled by default. C. It can be used to display arbitrary application information. D. It can be used to change a property value on a running application. E. Typically it is used to display build or source control information.
7. Which two statements about pointcut expressions are true? (Choose two.)
A. A pointcut expression cannot specify the type of parameters. B. A pointcut expression will throw an exception if no methods are matched. C. A pointcut expression cannot have a wildcard for a method name. D. A pointcut expression can include operators such as the following: andand (and), || (or),! (not). E. A pointcut expression can be used to select join points that have been annotated with a specific annotation.
8. Which two statements are true concerning the BeanPostProcessor extension point? (Choose two.)
A. BeanPostProcessors are called before the dependencies have been injected. B. Custom BeanPostProcessors can be implemented for Spring applications. C. BeanPostProcessors are called before the BeanFactoryPostProcessors. D. BeanPostProcessors are called during the initialization phase of a bean life cycle. E. BeanPostProcessors cannot be ordered in a Spring Boot application.
Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)
A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface. B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC. C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA. D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean. Correct Answer: C
10. Refer to the exhibit.
The above code shows a conditional @Bean method for the creation of a JdbcTemplate bean. Which two statements correctly describe the code behavior? (Choose two.)
A. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnBean (DataSource.class) for greater flexibility. B. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnMissingBean (DataSource.class) for greater flexibility. C. The @Bean annotation should be removed. D. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when the DataSource class is in the classpath but there is no DataSource bean. E. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when a bean named dataSource has already been created.
Correct Answer: AD
11. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)
A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test. B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default. C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing. D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext. E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with @SpringBootConfiguration in the application.
Correct Answer: CD
12. Which two statements are true regarding Spring and Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)
A. EasyMock is supported out of the box. B. @SpringBootTest or @SpringJUnitConfig can be used for creating an ApplicationContext. C. Mockito spy is not supported in Spring Boot testing by default. D. The spring-test dependency provides annotations such as @Mock and @MockBean. E. Integration and slice testing are both supported.
13. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Security? (Choose two.)
A. Access control can be configured at the method level. B. A special Java Authentication and Authorization Service (JAAS) policy file need to be configured. C. Authentication data can be accessed using a variety of different mechanisms, including databases and LDAP. D. In the authorization configuration, the usage of permit () allows bypassing Spring security completely. E. It provides a strict implementation of the Java EE Security specification.
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A new vSAN Cluster with four hosts has to be designed for a single site architecture. Which design decision is correct?
A. All the data must remain accessible even with two host failures. B. Configure the storage controllers to use RAID. C. Use block-based storage for the new vSAN cluster. D. Only hardware listed on the VMware Compatibility Guide will be deployed.
q2.
A vSAN administrator was examining the status of Virtual Objects and found inaccessible objects that are occupying significant storage capacity.
Refer to the exhibit: Which action is needed to restore the storage capacity?
A. Evacuate data on an affected node by using the Full Data Migration mode. B. Identify and remove the obsolete object. C. Restart the host, and obsolete objects will be removed on their own. D. Trigger a manual resync, and allow vSAN to heal the object.
q3.
Skyline Health vSAN HCL DB up-to-date health check is alerting in red in a newly deployed vCenter Server.
Which two options are the possible solutions for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Obtain the HCL DB offline bundle from vmware.com, and manually update it. B. Upgrade to the latest version of vCenter. C. Upgrade the HCL DB from the hardware vendor website. D. Obtain the HCL DB from the hardware vendor, and manually update it. E. Update the HCL DB online from vmware.com.
q4.
In vSAN 7.0 U1, when a host enters into maintenance mode (EMM) using the “Ensure Accessibility” option, it will allow vSAN to write to another host in addition to the host holding the object replica. What does vSAN write to that additional host?
A. A full replica and all incremental updates that happened once the host entered maintenance mode B. A full replica C. The stripe from the host entering maintenance mode D. All incremental updates that happened once the host entered maintenance mode
q5.
What is the maximum number of 2-node clusters that can share a vSAN Shared Witness host in vSAN 7.0 U1?
A. 64 B. 1 C. 128 D. 32
q6.
An administrator is tasked with configuring vSAN Cloud-Native Storage. Which two requirements must be met for a successful configuration? (Choose two.)
A. vSAN iSCSI service enabled B. Minimum of vSphere 6.7 Update 3 or later C. Tanzu Enterprise License required D. Minimum of vSphere 7.0 Update 2 or later E. Compatible version of Kubernetes
q7.
A vSAN administrator has three available racks and six vSAN hosts and needs to protect against a rack failure while maximizing resources.
Which two strategies should the vSAN administrator use to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)
A. RAID-5/FTT=1 B. vSAN stretched cluster C. Specify fault domains D. RAID-6/FTT=2 E. 2-node configuration
q8.
After a recent data loss event, the IT department plans to deploy a DR site using vSphere Replication with vSAN providing the storage backend.
The architect would like to know how many components will be created based on the following configuration:
2x 100 GB VMDK RAID 1 vSAN Storage Policy 4x Point in Time snapshots How many components will be created?
A. 32 B. 24 C. 16 D. 8
q9.
In a 2-node vSAN cluster, one node has recovered from failure with FTT=1 and RAID-1 storage policy. Refer to the exhibit:
What is the total VMDK storage consumed?
A. 150 GB B. 100GB C. 133GB D. 200GB
q10.
What are two purposes of a vSAN storage policy (Choose two.)
A. To determine vSAN encryption level B. To enable TRIM/UNMAP C. To define how the VM storage objects are provisioned D. To guarantee the required level of service E. To enable deduplication and compression
q11.
An administrator must choose between deploying a virtual witness or physical witness for a vSAN Stretched Cluster.
The administrator eventually decides to use a virtual witness. What is a benefit of selecting this approach?
A. Reduced vSphere licensing B. Additional compute capacity for running VMs C. Shared metadata between separate clusters D. Increased vSAN datastore capacity
q12.
A site administrator has determined that the site needs to upgrade all vSAN clusters to 7.0 U1. The vSAN administrator wishes to complete the update in the shortest amount of time possible.
All virtual machines are assigned a storage policy where the “Failures to tolerate” is set to one or higher. Which strategy should be used to achieve this goal?
A. Disable de-duplication and compression prior to the upgrade. B. Perform a complete update, omitting the on-disk format update. C. Select the “No data migration” maintenance mode option. D. Update only select, mission-critical clusters.
Post the correct answer
q1
q2
q3
q4
q5
q6
q7
q8
q9
q10
q11
q12
B
D
AB
A
A
BE
CD
B
B
CD
A
D
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[Free Test] New VMware 3V0-32.21 Practice Test
1#
An architect is designing a greenfield VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop with the customer, the future Service Owner made the following comment: The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) for the Cloud Management solution is 1 hour.
When creating the design documentation, which design quality should be used to classify the requirements?
A. Manageability B. Availability C. Recoverability D. Performance
2#
An architect designed a vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) cluster for an organization with the following details: The cluster has 3-nodes with 2 event forwarders sending logs to this cluster. The vRLI cluster is part of the disaster recovery protection process.
What should be the proper sequence of steps in the Disaster Recovery (DR) protection runbook for recovering vRLI cluster?
A. 1. Restore the forwarders 2. Restore worker nodes in any order 3. Restore the master node 4. Restore any recovered agents
B. 1. Restore the master node 2. Restore worker nodes in any order 3. Restore the forwarders 4. Restore any recovered agents
C. 1. Restore the worker nodes 2. Restore master node 3. Restore the forwarders 4. Restore any recovered agents
D. 1. Restore the master node 2. Restore worker nodes in a specific defined order 3. The forwarders 4. Restore any recovered agents
3#
A customer wants to deploy Workspace ONE Access for vRealize Suite users. The customer wants to achieve the following requirements:
Availability SLA 95% uptime per month, calculated Monday-Friday, 24 hours per day. The deployment footprint must be minimal.
Which design decision should the architect choose?
A. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access cluster and protect it with vSphere HA. B. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access node and protect it with vSphere HA. C. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access cluster and protect it with Fault Tolerance. D. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access node and protect it with Fault Tolerance.
4#
An architect is responsible for creating a new design to centralize the logging infrastructure for an existing vSphere environment. The key stakeholder in the project has provided the following list of requirements:
The management solution must forward all logs to the existing centralized Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) solution.
The management solution must be a minimum of N + 1 resilient. The management solution must provide the ability to view at least 2 months of live data. The management solution must meet a monthly uptime SLA of 99.9%.
The management solution must support the collection of logs from ten geographically separated data center locations.
The management solution must support the collection of a minimum of 10,000 events per second. Given the information from the stakeholder, which two statements would be considered functional requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The management solution must be a minimum of N + 1 resilient. B. The management solution must meet a monthly uptime SLA of 99.9%. C. The management solution must provide the ability to view at least 2 months of live data. D. The management solution must forward all logs to the existing centralized Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) solution. E. The management solution must support the collection of a minimum of 10,000 events per second.
5#
Which recommendation should an architect make when designing a highly available vRealize Operation (vROps) cluster?
A. Deploy analytics nodes with the same disk size on storage of the same type. B. Depending on the size and performance requirements for analytics nodes, apply Storage DRS Affinity rules to ensure that nodes are on the same datastores. C. If the sizing guideline provides several configurations for the same number of objects, use the configuration which has the greatest number of nodes. D. Set Storage DRS to Fully Automated for all vRealize Operations Manager analytics nodes.
6#
An organization wants to implement a network topology to provide users with one-way upstream access to the external network.
Which two statements are true for implementing such a network profile type using NSX-T Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. The external network specified in the “Network Policies” tab will be used to assign an external IP to the VM B. A DNAT rule is created o the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally C. The cloud template must use the “private” network profile type D. The external network should be left blank in the “Network Policies” tab E. An SNAT rule is created on the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally
7#
Which design decision should an architect make to support continuous availability in vRealize Operations?
A. Each Fault Domain should contain only remote collector nodes. B. The vROps cluster should be separated into three Fault Domains. C. Each Fault Domain should consist of primary, witness, and remote collector nodes. D. The vROps cluster should be separated into two Fault Domains.
8#
An architect is designing a new VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop, the customer made the following comments:
The monthly uptime target of the cloud management solution must be 99.9%. All components of the cloud management solution must be deployed with an N + 1 redundancy. When creating the design documentation, how should these requirements be classified?
A. Recoverability B. Manageability C. Availability D. Performance
9#
As a Service Broker administrator, you have been asked to meet these requirements: All released cloud templates must be imported to Service Broker.
Newly released cloud templates must be automatically synchronized with Service Broker. All cloud templates must be automatically published to the service catalog.
Which two options must be configured to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Configure content sharing using the Content Sources option B. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option but do not configure content sharing C. Create content source using CloudFormation Template option D. Configure content sharing using the All Content option E. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option
10#
A healthcare company has mandated that all IP and DNS entries be allocated from an existing third-party IPAM solution.
Also, for auditing purposes, all systems must handle user authentication via the existing open-source LDAP directory.
When considering a logical design for this scenario, which is true about the dependency relationships of these systems?
A. The IPAM system is an upstream dependency and the LDAP system is a downstream dependency of vRealize Automation. B. Both the IPAM and LDAP systems are external, upstream dependencies of vRealize Automation. C. Both the IPAM and LDAP systems are external, downstream dependencies of vRealize Automation. D. The LDAP system is an upstream dependency and the IPAM system is a downstream dependency of vRealize Automation.
11#
An architect has designed a vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) cluster for an organization. Details of the cluster are provided below:
3-node vRealize Log Insight cluster to collect logs for an organization NFS storage is enabled for archival data Once the NFS storage is full, which will be the resulting scenario?
A. vRLI will stop ingesting new data and unless free space is available, loss of data will occur. B. vRLI will automatically delete the oldest archived logs, resulting in archived data loss. C. vRLI will further compress the active logs to make more space available in NFS storage. D. vRLI will send a notification and automatically disable log archiving.
12#
An architect is designing the deployment of vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) in their data center. The customer has the following requirements:
vRLI cluster responds to multiple Virtual IP Addresses (VIPs) Each event message received from a VIP is associated with a tag
Which two design decisions would the architect make to achieve the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a CSV file to use with VIP tags. B. Configure a list of static tags (key=value) for an integrated load balancer VIP, so that each event message received from a VIP is annotated with a tag. C. Each node should have at least one network interface on the same subnet as that of a VIP. D. Configure a list of dynamic tags (key=value) for an integrated load balancer VIP, so that each event message received from a VIP is annotated with a tag. E. Each node should have at least one network interface on a different subnet as that of a VIP.
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1. Which two capabilities are supported by VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Application Profiler? (Choose two.)
A. It allows individual user personalization of applications. B. It allows creation of computer templates. C. It allows third-party user personalization of applications. D. It allows creation of application-specific predefined settings. E. It analyzes registry and file system location settings for an application.
2. Which storage product allows the pooling of resources to create datastores in a Software Defined Datacenter?
A. VMware VMFS B. VMware vSAN C. VMware Storage I/O Control D. VMware HCI Mesh
3. To reduce the risk of users downloading malware to the corporate network, an administrator wants to allow end users to open only intranet websites inside their virtual desktop.
Additionally, the administrator wants to configure all other URLs to automatically open in a browser on the end-user\\’s client machine. Which steps should the administrator take to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the URL Content Redirection feature on the desktop pool settings. B. Enable the URL Content Redirection feature in Horizon Agent. C. Configure group policy settings to indicate how Horizon Agent redirects the URL. D. Enable secure website settings in the Global Settings Security menu. E. Disable the Allow External Website feature in Horizon Agent.
4. What are three valid options to store Horizon events? (Choose three.)
A. flat files B. MS SQL C. D82 D. MYSQL E. syslog
5. An administrator recently deployed a Horizon pod with external access using Unified Access Gateway (UAG). While trying to launch VDI form an External network, VDI launched with a black screen and then disconnects.
The administrator has validated the port requirement and all other required ports are open. Users are able to connect internally using the connection server URL. While reviewing the UAG logs, the administrator found that the Blast connection is hitting the Connection Server instead of VDI IP.
What should the administrator do to resolve the issue?
A. Disable the Tunnel and Gateways in Connection Server. B. Enable Tunnel in UAG. C. Update the Blast External URL in UAG with port number. D. Upload the Blast Proxy Certificate in Horizon Edge Settings.
6. An administrator configured a virtual machine to use an NVIDIA card but the virtual machine is not starting up. What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)
A. No suitable host could be found. B. Not all memory has been reserved on the VM. C. Not all CPU has been reserved on the VM. D. The Desktop Pool doesn\\’t support 3D cards. E. 3D graphics cannot be used with local storage.
7. An administrator wants to ensure users can access an application that uses .NET 3.0 for desktops available on Horizon On-premises and on Horizon Cloud Service on Microsoft Azure.
Which two options would achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Create a ThinApp package and provision it with App Volumes. B. Install the application on the primary image. C. Copy the vmdk and .json file to the Azure storage. D. Capture the application in App Volumes. E. Copy the vhd and .json file to the Azure storage.
8. A Horizon administrator does not see the health status for the Unified Access Gateways (UAG) they configured in the Horizon Console. What two options could be causing the issue? (Choose two.)
A. The firewall hasn\\’t has been configured properly to allow traffic on port 443. B. The pod needs to be added to the Cloud Pod Federation. C. The Connection Server needs to be rebooted. D. Another license is needed for the UAG health overview. E. The name entered in the Horizon console doesn\\’t match up with the system name in UAG.
9. An administrator sees a lot of instant-clone template VM\\’s that are not in use anymore in Center. What tool needs to be used to clean up old templates?
A. iccleanup.cmd B. icunprotect.cmd C. vdmadmin.exe D. icmaint.cmd
10. After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)
A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted. B. Desktops can only be customized after the end-user logs into the virtual machine. C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory. D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification. E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.
11.DRAG DROP Drag and drop the codecs supported by Blast on the left to the appropriate use case on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
12. Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?
A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine. B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation. C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine. D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.
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