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QUESTION 1
Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command-line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two types of virtual storage provide data redundancy? (Select two.)
A. concatenate
B. RAID-5
C. stripe
D. mirror
E. RAID-0
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX? (Select two.)
A. improved deduplication for data backup
B. ability to resize storage across physical devices
C. improved disaster recovery by mirroring between arrays
D. enhanced file sharing
E. increased virtual memory
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
A system administrator has a large amount of inactive data on the company’s storage devices. The excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. The administrator needs to set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires based on age. How can the administrator set the threshold for automatic relocation of data?
A. use SmartMove
B. use SmartTier
C. use Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS)
D. use Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which benefit is provided when Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) uses the SmartMove feature?
A. optimized Data Deduplication process
B. optimized SmartTier storage allocation process
C. optimized mirror synchronization process
D. optimized File Replication process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two benefits of using Storage Checkpoints within Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX instead of file system snapshots? (Select two.)
A. transient
B. read-only
C. uses free space from parent file system
D. persistent
E. uses separate volume
070-489 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?
A. mydg01
B. c2t0d0
C. mydg
D. c1t0d0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. optimized SmartMove
C. optimized replication of volume data
D. optimized file compression
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)
A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file
B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume
C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system
D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk
E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the layout of the volume described in the vxprint output provided in the exhibit?
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of layouts? (Select two.)
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
E. stripe with parity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-0+1
D. RAID-1+0
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What are two advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Select two.)
A. provides hot-relocation
B. provides load balancing
C. improves performance
D. provides data redundancy
E. improves reliability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
Where do the private and public regions of Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS) formatted disks reside?
A. on separate disk slices
B. on a single disk slice
C. on reserved slices
D. on a boot slice
070-489 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two items are checked on existing Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX systems by the Installation and Upgrade service from Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT)? (Select two.)
A. existing Symantec packages and patches
B. disk group version
C. file system free space
D. volume manager disk group free space
E. disk drive information
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
What is the minimum Storage Foundation release supported to upgrade directly to Veritas Storage
Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. 5.0
B. 5.0MP1
C. 5.0MP3
D. 5.1
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 18
How many days can a customer run Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX without entering a valid license key during installation without receiving warning messages?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which two operations can be performed with a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) Management Server (MS) with all add-ons installed? (Select two.)
A. manage host deployment across the enterprise
B. discover the secure Oracle databases running on the managed host
C. manage user privileges in VEA on the managed host
D. discover Solaris Zones and Solaris LDOMs running on a managed host
E. manage Business Entities
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which command is used to manually configure the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) product?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxinstall
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdctl enable
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which display command consolidates information from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) and Veritas File System (VxFS)?
A. vxprint
B. vxadm
C. vxsfadm
D. vxlist
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX commands are used to prevent and allow multi pathing of Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) devices? (Select two.)
A. vxdiskadm
B. vxddladm
C. fsvoladm
D. vxdmpadm
E. vxsfadm
070-489 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. based on configured policies, it performs the required actions on the message
B. based on configured policies, it scans the message for attributes and violations
C. based on default policies, it stores spam and virus messages
D. based on default policies, it provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX user interface provides a menu-driven, text- based interface for performing some disk and disk group administration?
A. Veritas Enterprise Administrator (VEA)
B. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
C. vxedit
D. vxdiskadm
070-489 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which command can be run from the command line interface of a Scanner appliance to list, backup or restore the current message audit logging logs?
A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. malquery
D. mallog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding the encrypted attachment disposition in the Virus policy settings?
A. it is a subset of the ‘unscannable’ disposition
B. it leverages TLS or gateway to gateway encryption
C. the default action is to delete
D. it also includes password protected files
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A server with one disk group is running Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX and suffers a system board failure. An administrator moves the disks in that disk group to a new server. When the administrator tries to import the disk group, the import fails. Which command should the administrator use to successfully import the disk group?
A. vxdg -C import
B. vxdg -f import
C. vxdg -n newname import
D. vxdg -t import
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which command can an administrator run to display all of the imported and deported disk groups for a system?
A. vxdg
B. vxlist
C. vxddladm
D. vxconfig
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group. Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which component do you configure to enable the Instant Messaging security proxy?
A. Premium Content Control
B. Control Center
C. Conduit
D. Scanner
070-489 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A volume manager disk, EMC_10, in diskgroup appdg is used for a 30G simple volume and it is mounted. An administrator needs to relocate the disk EMC_10 and its associated volume from diskgroup appdg to webdg while preserving the user data. Which command(s) should the administrator use after unmounting the file system?
A. vxdisk reclaim EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg adddisk EMC_10
B. vxdg -g appdg rmdisk EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg addisk EMC_10
C. vxdg move appdg webdg EMC_10
D. vxdg migrate appdg webdg EMC_10
070-489 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg. There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Correct Answer: D
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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 17 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
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You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time. What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013

When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer. What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently migrated to Office 365 and is planning to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers in the main office and all branch offices. Due to limited bandwidth at the branch offices, the company decides to have users install Office 365 ProPlus from a network share by using the Click-to-Run deployment method. You need to install Office 365 ProPlus on a client computer. How should you complete the relevant command? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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070-347 dumps

QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user has a desktop computer and has been assigned an E3 license. The user plans to travel to multiple branch offices and will use a shared desktop computer at each branch office. The user will not have administrative privileges on the branch office computers. You
need to ensure that the user has access to all features of Microsoft Word 2013 and Excel 2013 at the branch offices. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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070-347 dumps
QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees have archive mailboxes that have the default retention policy applied. A new company policy requires some existing mailboxes to have a retention policy that deletes only email messages in the Deleted Items folder after 90 days. Deleted messages must be recoverable. None of the existing retention tags meet the new requirement. You create an empty retention policy named Policy-90. You need to configure the retention policy and apply it to the mailboxes. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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070-347 dumps

QUESTION 23 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. The company is currently migrating from a hosted POP3 email solution to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company maintains extensive lists of external contacts in several Microsoft Excel workbooks. You plan to import all the external contact information from the workbooks into the Exchange Online Global Address List (GAL).The external contacts must not be able to sign in to your company’s Windows Azure Active Directory service. You consolidate all the external contact information into a file named External Contacts. You need to import the file into the GAL. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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QUESTION 24 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for customers that complete the ‘contact me’ field on his website to track return on investment for the marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the ‘metric goal’ field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose “dollars” in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the ‘goal value’ field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he has created for the ‘contact me’ form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the “goal 
completion” field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you’re interested in seeing your most popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the quality score?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The lower a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
C. It is used to measure performance of schedule
D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
A. Information about the propriety of cutoff
B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?
A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes.
C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project’s planning orexecution (“impact”).
D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
A. Identification of assets
B. Identification of threats
C. Identification of threat sources
D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
A. Risk indicator matrix
B. Impact matrix
C. Risk scenario matrix
D. Probability matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
B. Alignment with risk-culture
C. Risk-aware decisions
D. The capacity of the enterprise’s objective to absorb loss.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
A. Risk planning
B. Risk monitoring and controlling
C. Risk identification
D. Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: Citrix Other Certification
Exam Code: 1Y0-440
Exam Name: Architecting a Citrix Networking Solution
Updated: Apr 20, 2020
Q&As: 63

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QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported on LbaaSV1? (Choose two.)
A. Cookie Insertion
B. Layer 7 Load Balancing
C. Certificate Bundle
D. Layer 4 Load balancing
E. Server name Indicator
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new multi-datacenter NetScaler deployment. The customer wants
NetScaler to provide access to various backend resources by using Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) in an ActiveActive deployment.
Click the Exhibit button to view additional requirements identified by the architect.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q2

Which GSLB algorithm or method should the architect use for the deployment, based on the stated requirements?
A. Dynamic round trip time (RTT)
B. Least response time
C. Static proximity D. least connection
E. Least packets
F. Source IP hash
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler/12/global-server-load-balancing/methods/configuring-algorithm-basedmethods.html

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to configure a full VPN session profile to meet the following requirements:
1.
Users should be able to send the traffic only for the allowed networks through the VPN tunnel.
2.
Only the DNS requests ending with the configured DNS suffix workspacelab.com must be sent to NetScaler Gateway.
3.
If the DNS query does NOT contain a domain name, then DNS requests must be sent to NetScaler gateway. Which
settings will meet these requirements?
A. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Both
B. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Local
C. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Remote
D. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Remote
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has met with a team of Workspacelab members for a design discussion. They have captured
the following requirements for NetScaler design project:
1.
The authentication must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains.
2.
The workspacelab users connecting from the internal (workspacelab) network should be authenticated using LDAP.
3.
The workspacelab users connecting from the external network should be authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS.
4.
The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service.
5.
The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab.
6.
Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway.
7.
A domain drop down list must be provided if the used connects to the NetScaler gateway virtual server externally.
Which method must the architect utilize for user management between the two domains?
A. Create shadow accounts for the users of the Workspacelab domain in the Vendorlab domain.
B. Create a global catalog containing the objects of Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains.
C. Create shadow accounts for the Vendorlab domain in the Workspacelab domain.
D. Create a two-way trust between the Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new NetScaler Gateway deployment for a customer. During the design
discussions, the architect learns that the customer would like to allow external RDP connections to internal Windows
machines but does NOT want client drive redirection enabled on these connections.
Where should the architect enable the options to allow the customer to complete their requirement?
A. NetScaler Gateway global settings
B. RDP bookmark
C. Session policy
D. RDP server profile
E. Session profile
F. RDP client profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has configured NetScaler Gateway integration with a XenApp environment to provide access
to users from two domains: vendorlab.com and workslab.com. The Authentication method used is LDAP. Which two
steps are required to achieve Single Sign-on StoreFront using a single store? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Single sign-on domain in Session profile `userPrincipalName\\’.
B. Do NOT configure SSO Name attribute in LDAP Profile.
C. Do NOT configure sign-on domain in Session Profile.
D. Configure SSO Name attribute to `userPrincipalName\\’ in LDAP Profile.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/storefront/3-12/plan/user-authentication.html

QUESTION 7
Scenario: More than 10,000 users will access a customer\\’s environment. The current networking infrastructure is
capable of supporting the entire workforce of users. However, the number of support staff is limited, and management
needs to ensure that they are capable of supporting the full user base.
Which business driver is prioritized, based on the customer\\’s requirements?
A. Simplify Management
B. Increase Scalability
C. Increase Flexibility
D. Reduce Costs
E. Enable Mobile Work Styles
F. Increase Security
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler multi-site deployment. The deployment is using
Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured in a parent-child configuration.
Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram of the current GSLB configuration and parent-child relationships, as well as
the status of the sites and the connectivity between them.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q8

Based on the displayed configuration and status, Chil_site1_______ a connection from _______. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
A. rejects; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
B. rejects; SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
C. accepts; SiteP3; becomes its child site
D. accepts; SiteP2; becomes its child site
E. does NOT receive; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
F. rejects; SiteP2; remains a child site of SiteP1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new NetScaler Gateway deployment to provide secure RDP access to
backend Windows machines. Click the Exhibit button to view additional requirements collected by the architect during
the design discussions.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q9

To meet the customer requirements, the architect should deploy the RDP proxy through _______, using a _________
solution. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. ICAProxy, stateless gateway
B. CVPN; single gateway
C. CVPN; stateless gateway
D. ICAProxy; single gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which parameter indicates the number of current users logged on to the NetScaler gateway?
A. ICA connections
B. Total Connected Users
C. Active user session
D. Maximum User session
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess a NetScaler Gateway deployment that was recently completed by a
customer and is currently in pre-production testing. The NetScaler Gateway needs to use ICA proxy to provide access
to a XenApp and XenDesktop environment. During the assessment, the customer informs the architect that users are
NOT able to launch published resources using the Gateway virtual server.
Click the Exhibit button to view the troubleshooting details collected by the customer.

Certificationpdf 1Y0-440 exam questions-q11

What is the cause of this issue?
A. The required ports have NOT been opened on the firewall between the NetScaler gateway and the Virtual Delivery
Agent (VDA) machines.
B. The StoreFront URL configured in the NetScaler gateway session profile is incorrect.
C. The Citrix License Server is NOT reachable.
D. The Secure Ticket Authority (STA) servers are load balanced on the NetScaler.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to deploy a NetScaler appliance for Workspacelab, which will provide application load
balancing services to Partnerlab and Vendorlab.
The setup requirements are as follows:
1.
A pair of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network.
2.
High availability will be accessible on the NetScaler MPX in the DMZ Network.
3.
Load balancing should be performed for the mail servers for Partnerlab and Vendorlab.
4.
The traffic for both of the organizations must be isolated.
5.
Separate Management accounts must be available for each client.
6.
The load-balancing IP addresses must be identical.
7.
A separate VLAN must be utilized for communication for each client.
Which solution can the architect utilize to meet the requirements?
A. Traffic Domain
B. Admin Partition
C. VLAN Filtering
D. VPX or MPX
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
For which three reasons should a Citrix Architect perform a capabilities assessment when designing and deploying a
new NetScaler in an existing environment? (Choose three.)
A. Understand the skill set of the company.
B. Assess and identify potential risks for the design and build phase.
C. Establish and prioritize the key drivers behind a project.
D. Determine operating systems and application usage.
E. Identify other planned projects and initiatives that must be integrated with the design and build phase.
Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that uses a namespace of mail.contoso.com.
You are migrating the email infrastructure to Exchange Server 2016.
You need to minimize the number of changes that end users must make to their Microsoft Outlook client as a result of
the migration.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Enable Outlook Anywhere on all the Exchange Server 2010 Client Access servers.
B. Move the existing mail.contoso.com namespace to point to the Exchange Server 2016 servers.
C. Create a new namespace named legacy.contoso.com and point the namespace to the Exchange Server 2010
servers.
D. Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
E. Create a new namespace named migration.contoso.com and point the namespace to the Exchange Server 2016
servers.
Correct Answer: AD
A: Outlook clients use Outlook Anywhere or MAPIHttp for internal connectivity to Exchange 2016 instead of MAPI/RPC.
D: The Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet creates the global settings for the Autodiscover service. It sets the
AutoDiscoverConfig object under the Global Settings object in Active Directory and sets the attributes specified in the
parameters listed in the Parameters section.
References: https://practical365.com/exchange-server/exchange-server-2016-migration-reviewing-namespaces/
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb123683(v=exchg.160).aspx

QUESTION 2
You begin to implement the Exchange Server 2016 servers and plan to decommission the Exchange Server 2013
servers during the next six months.
You need to recommend which actions must be performed to support the planned changes for document collaboration.
You install Microsoft Office Online Server on a new server.
Which two cmdlets should you recommend running next? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. New-OfficeWebAppsFarm
B. Set-PartnerApplication
C. Set-MailboxServer
D. New-OfficeWebAppsHost
E. Set-OrganizationConfig
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains one Edge Transport server.
A user reports that certain email messages expected from a specific recipient were never received.
You need to search for messages that were blocked by the Edge Transport server because they contain attachment
types that are blocked by the organization.
In which folder should you search?
A. QueueViewer
B. AgentLog
C. Connectivity
D. Routing
E. ProtocolLog
Correct Answer: E
References: http://exchangeserverpro.com/exchange-server-protocol-logging/

QUESTION 4
All the research and development department users are members of a distribution group named rdev. Rdev receives an
average of 2,000 email messages daily.
You need to ensure that email sent to the rdev distribution group meets the security requirements for confidential email.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create linked mailboxes for users without security clearance.
B. Create a transport rule that filters based on keyword predicates.
C. Create mail contacts for users without security clearance.
D. Edit the distribution group properties and enable moderation of the group.
Correct Answer: B
Actions in mail flow rules (also known as transport rules) specify what you want to do to messages that match conditions
of the rule.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998315(v=exchg.160).aspx

QUESTION 5
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
All users work from a main office and use Microsoft Outlook 2016.
You recently ran the Microsoft Office 365 Hybrid Configuration Wizard and moved most of the user mailboxes to
Exchange Online. A network administrator reports an increase in the amount of outbound SMTP traffic from the
network.
You need to reduce the amount of bandwidth utilization for the outbound SMTP traffic.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange Server organization, create a Receive connector that uses the IP address of Exchange Online as
a remote range.
B. From the public DNS zone, modify the MX record to point to Exchange Online.
C. From the public DNS zone, modify the SRV record to point to Exchange Online.
D. From the Exchange Server organization, create a Send connector that uses Exchange Online as an SMTP smart
host.
Correct Answer: B
The path messages sent to recipients in your on-premises and Exchange Online organizations take depends on how
you decide to configure your MX record in your hybrid deployment. The Hybrid Configuration wizard doesn\\’t configure
the routing for inbound Internet messages for either the on-premises or Exchange Online organizations. You must
manually configure your MX record if you want to change how your inbound Internet mail is delivered.
References:https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj659050(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend which actions must be performed to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2016. The
solution must meet the availability requirements.
Which five actions should you recommend be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q6-2

QUESTION 7
You plan to deploy Exchange Server 2016 to a new server. The server will host 1,000 mailboxes.
You need to identify whether the new server has the required disk throughput and speed.
Which two tools should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. LoadGen
B. the Exchange Server Best Practices Analyzer Tool
C. Jetstress
D. Isinteg
E. the Exchange Server Role Requirements Calculator
Correct Answer: AC
To determine how many Exchange servers are required to manage user load, use the following capacity planning tools:
Microsoft Exchange Jetstress Microsoft Exchange Load Generator
Note: The Jetstress tool is designed to simulate Exchange I/O at the database level by interacting directly with the
database technology of the Extensible Storage Engine (ESE), also known as Jet, that Exchange is built on. Jetstress
can be configured to test the maximum I/O throughput available to your disk subsystem within the required performance
constraints of Exchange, or it can accept a desired profile of user count and I/Os per second per user and validate that
the disk subsystem is capable of maintaining an acceptable level of performance with such a profile. Jetstress testing
can be used to validate storage reliability and performance prior to the deployment of Exchange servers. You should run
Jetstress if you are concerned about your storage subsystem performance or if you need to determine a system\\’s I/O
capacity.
The Load Generator (LoadGen) tool is designed to produce a simulated client workload against a test Exchange
deployment. This workload can be used to evaluate how Exchange performs, and can also be used to analyze the effect
of various configuration changes on Exchange behavior and performance while the system is under load Use the output
from these tests in the following ways: Validate deployments Calculate the client computer response time for the server
configuration under client load Estimate the number of users per server Identify bottlenecks on the server
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd335108(v=exchg.141).aspx

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have an Exchange Server organization. The organization contains four servers. The servers configured as shown
in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q8

You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2016. You need to identify which servers have functionalities
that can be fully achieved by using Exchange Server 2016. What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q8-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q8-3

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization. The organization has 500 mailboxes and three servers. The servers
are configured as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q9

EX10EDGE is located in the perimeter network. EX10CH has an Edge Subscription. All Internet mail flows through
EX10EDGE.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2016 Mailbox server named EX16MBX to the organization. You deploy an Exchange
Server 2016 Edge Transport server named EX16EDGEtothe perimeter network.
You need to transition all Internet mail to flow through EX16EDGE. The solution must minimize disruptions to the mail
flow.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q9-2

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a single Active Directory forest. The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2.
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains two servers in each site. You have a
database availability group (DAG) that spans both sites. The file share witness is in Site1.
If a power failure occurs at Site1, you plan to mount the databases in Site2.
When the power is restored in Site1, you need to prevent the databases from mounting in Site1.
What should you do?
A. Disable AutoReseed for the DAG.
B. Implement an alternate file share witness.
C. Configure Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode.
D. Force a rediscovery of the network when the power is restored.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd979790(v=exchg.150).aspxQUESTION 10
Your network contains a single Active Directory forest. The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2.
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains two servers in each site. You have a
database availability group (DAG) that spans both sites. The file share witness is in Site1.
If a power failure occurs at Site1, you plan to mount the databases in Site2.
When the power is restored in Site1, you need to prevent the databases from mounting in Site1.
What should you do?
A. Disable AutoReseed for the DAG.
B. Implement an alternate file share witness.
C. Configure Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode.
D. Force a rediscovery of the network when the power is restored.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd979790(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization and a Microsoft Office 365 subscription configured in a hybrid
deployment. The deployment contains 500 user mailboxes.
Users who have mailboxes in Office 365 report that they cannot view the availability information of users who have
mailboxes in Exchange Server 2016.
You need to ensure that the users hosted in Office 365 can view the availability information of the mailboxes hosted in
on-premises Exchange Server.
Which command should you run on an Exchange Server? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q11-2

QUESTION 12
Your company has an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
The organization contains three Mailbox servers.
You need to ensure that email messages sent to the company meet the following requirements:
-All of the messages sent from the SMTP domain of fabrikam.com must be blocked.
-All of the messages that contain the words “Fabrikam” or “Litware” must be quarantined.
Which anti-spam agent should you configure for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate agents to the
correct requirements. Each agent may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-345 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server organization. The organization contains servers that have Exchange Server 2010 and
Exchange Server 2016 installed.
You establish a hybrid deployment between Exchange Server and Microsoft Office 365.
Some users have on-premises mailboxes and personal archives in Exchange Online.
You discover that you are unable to use In-Place eDiscovery to search user mailboxes and Exchange Online Archiving
archives concurrently.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that In-Place eDiscovery can search the mailboxes and the personal
archives concurrently.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. OAuth authentication
B. an organization relationship
C. a retention policy
D. the Mailbox Replication service (MRS)
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd298021(v=exchg.160).aspx

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QUESTION 1
On Cisco IOS and IOS XE Layer 3 MPLS VPN implementations, when redistributing the customer RIP routes into MPBGP, the RIP metric is copied into which BGP attribute?
A. local preference
B. weight
C. MED
D. extended community
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
When implementing H-VPLS with QinQ access on Cisco Metro Ethernet switches, which two commands enable the
QinQ tagging? (Choose two.)
A. encapsulation dot1q {customer-vlan} second-tag {sp-vlan}
B. encapsulation dot1q {sp-vlan} second-tag {customer-vlan}
C. switchport mode dot1q-tunnel
D. switchport mode trunk
E. switchport access vlan {sp-vlan}
F. switchport access vlan {customer-vlan}
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
A customer needs Internet and MPLS services from the service provider and needs to ensure traffic from the Internet
network does not constrain MPLS traffic. Which shared MPLS/Internet service type best accommodates this
requirement?
A. partial separation
B. full separation
C. Multisite Internet Access
D. Internet tunnel over MPLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which VPN technology allows remote sites with dynamic IP addresses to connect to a central hub?
A. static IPsec tunnels
B. site-to-site VPN
C. DMPVN
D. VRFs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Pass4itsure 642-899 exam questions-q5

Pass4itsure 642-899 exam questions-q5-2

On PE7, how many multiprotocol IBGP routes are learned from PE8 and what is the next-hop IP address? (Choose
two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 10.8.1.1
E. 172.16.8.1
F. 192.168.108.81
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
When implementing MPLS Layer 3 VPNs with customers running OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol, the service
provider MPLS backbone looks like what to the CE routers?
A. the backbone (Area 0)
B. an external routing domain
C. a superbackbone that is transparent to the CE OSPF routers
D. a transit area (similar to a transit area for supporting virtual links)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 642-899 exam questions-q7

XR2 must be configured with a static route for 2.2.2.0/24 subnet toward CE2 into the VRF ABC table. Which
configuration achieves this goal?
A. router static vrf ABC 2.2.2.0/24 10.10.24.2
B. router static vrf ABC 2.2.2.0/24 10.10.24.2 address-family ipv4 unicast
C. router static vrf ABC address-family ipv4 unicast 2.2.2.0/24 10.10.24.2
D. router static address-family ipv4 unicast vrf ABC 2.2.2.0/24 10.10.24.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When implementing VPLS on Cisco IOS XR routers, the VPLS PW neighbors can be statically defined under which
configuration mode?
A. bridge group
B. bridge-domain
C. vfi
D. mpls ldp
E. l2transport
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which Cisco IOS XR configuration mode is the redistribute static command applied to enable the redistribution of
static VRF routes between the PE routers?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-router)#
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp)#
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf)#
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf-af)#
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When configuring VPLS on the Cisco ASR 9000, which three configurations are required under the l2vpn configuration
mode? (Choose three.)
A. bridge-group
B. bridge-domain
C. xconnect
D. vfi
E. encapsulation
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Drag each item on the left to match the correct standard organization on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 642-899 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 642-899 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
An engineer is configuring VPLS BGP-based autodiscovery on a Cisco IOS XE PE router. Which two configurations
must be included for proper implementation? (Choose two.)
A. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
B. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community extended
C. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
D. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community-eBGP
E. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
F. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13

Pass4itsure 642-899 exam questions-q13

Pass4itsure 642-899 exam questions-q13-2

On PE7, which encapsulation method is used on the pseudowire that connects to the 10.8.1.1 neighbor?
A. MPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. IP
D. LDP
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B

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EMC Specialist E05-001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which product provides an integrated IT infrastructure solution for data center deployment by combining IT resources
into a single package?
A. VCE Vblock
B. EMC VPLEX
C. EMC ViPR
D. VMware vCloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What provides the ability to automatically relocate extents across physical storage drives over the entire pool when new
drives are added to the pool?
A. Storage pool rebalancing
B. Extent relocation
C. Storage pool tiering
D. Automated extent tiering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is an accurate statement about a virtual desktop infrastructure?
A. Each user is provided a dedicated desktop VM with its own operating system and applications
B. Operating system and applications hosted on a client system are shared by multiple users
C. Each user has an individual desktop session on the remote compute system in which applications execute
D. Operating system and applications on the remote desktop are downloaded on the client for local execution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is an accurate statement about a software RAID implementation?
A. Uses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
B. Supports the upgrade of RAID software on incompatible O/S
C. Uses a specialized hardware controller to perform RAID calculations
D. Supports all RAID levels
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels “X” and “Y” represent in the exhibit?pass4itsure e05-001 exam question q5

A. X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port
B. X is an F_Port and Y is a G_Port
C. X is a G_Port and Y is an N_Port
D. X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What is signified by the “variety” characteristic of big data?
A. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources
B. Meaning of the data changes constantly
C. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
D. Data change rate affects its timely analysis
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which feature of an object-based storage system abstracts and provides a common view of storage independent of
location to applications?
A. Global namespace
B. Flexible data access
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Scale-out architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which EMC product provides a software-defined storage platform that supports object storage services?
A. Elastic Cloud Storage
B. ViPR Controller
C. ScaleIO
D. XtremIO
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster
C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is an accurate statement about the application presentation technique of application virtualization?
A. Application executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
B. Application is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution
C. Application executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
D. Application is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is a benefit of a storage area network (SAN)?
A. Enables compute systems across locations to access shared storage
B. Ensures secure data transmission using only channel technologies
C. Ensures high response times without the protocol overhead
D. Enables consolidation of control and data planes in a single system
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX3 storage systems?
A. SRDF
B. SnapSure
C. MirrorView
D. ProtectPoint
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which LUN expansion technique provides both capacity expansion and performance improvement?
A. Striped metaLUN
B. Partitioned metaLUN
C. Virtual metaLUN
D. Concatenated metaLUN
Correct Answer: A

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Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail

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EMC Other Certification DES-6321 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What is a characteristic of vSAN Erasure Coding?
A. Used for Garbage Collectionon all-flash VxRail clusters
B. Is a DoD certified individual drive cleaning tool to facilitate drive replacement
C. Used to securely erase vSAN storage to facilitate node replacement
D. Is a Raid 5/6-like storage policy
Correct Answer: D
https://blogs.vmware.com/virtualblocks/2016/02/12/the-use-of-erasure-coding-in-virtual-san-6-2/

QUESTION 2
A company has a two chassis G Series cluster and wants to change the setup. This will require a reset of the chassis.
What is the correct procedure?
A. Reset both chassis simultaneously through the reset script
B. Reset the primary chassis first, followed by the secondary chassis, through the reset script.
C. Reset both chassis simultaneously with the mobile build server
D. Reset the secondary chassis first, followed by the primary chassis, through the reset script.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In a VxRail Stretched Cluster built from eight all-flash nodes, what should be the recommended storage policy to ensure
the highest possible protection?
A. Raid-1(Mirroring) FTT=1
B. Raid-1(Mirroring) FTT=2
C. Raid-5/6(Erasure Coding) FTT=1
D. Raid-5/6(Erasure Coding) FTT=2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When using the RASR method to reset a VxRail node, which boot device is selected?
A. RASRUSB
B. SATADOM
C. IDRAC SD CARD
D. IDSDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which step of the VxRail Initialization wizard may time out if the user does not proceed to the next step within 20
minutes?
A. Build complete screen
B. Review expected nodes list
C. Review and validate
D. Configuration of the VxRail Manager IP address
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
During VxRail initial deployment the build fails. Support requests that logs be downloaded manually. Which logs should
be collected?
A. /var/log/vmware-installer
B. All files and folders under /var/log/vmware
C. /var/log/vmware/marvin/tomcat/logs/marvin.log only
D. /var/log/mystic/web.log
Correct Answer: D
https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rja
anduact=8andved=0ahUKEwjA7rnpv9LWAhUkB8AKHQaxAXkQFggsMAAandurl=https%3A%2F%2Fcommunity.emc.com%2Fthread% 2F237521andusg=AOvVaw2X3ZW_W6B6mmZpNdm3 aaMf

QUESTION 7
A BMC interface webpage is reachable but unresponsive.
What should be done to resolve this problem?
A. NDU to latest bundle of VxRail software
B. Reboot the node
C. Reset the BMC through/tmp/vspexblue/bin/ipmitool mc reset cold
D. Upgrade the BMC firmware
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have been asked to install a 7 node VxRail single socket 1 GbE G Series cluster. The company has requested
remote KVM support. How many RJ45 cables will be required?
A. 14
B. 21
C. 28
D. 35
Correct Answer: A
https://www.emc.com/collateral/technical-documentation/h15104-vxrail-appliance-techbook.pdf

QUESTION 9
An all-flash VxRail cluster has just been deployed. When attempting to enable compression, the option is grayed out.
What is the cause of this situation?
A. “Add disks to storage” is set to manual
B. Erasure Coding is not enabled
C. Erasure Coding is not disabled
D. “Add disks to storage” is set to automatic
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is the recommended way to power up VxRail E, V, P, and S Series nodes?
A. Ensure the System Health indicatorblinks amber for 10 minutes after power on
B. Use the power button on the rear panel to power on each node
C. Wait at least 30 seconds between powering up each node
D. Use the iDRAC interface to power on each node
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A VxRail deployment has just been completed but the vSAN performance statistics are not available for the cluster or
virtual machines. What is the reason for this situation?
A. Data has not been populated
B. Performance service has not been manually enabled
C. vSAN performance hot-fix has not been applied
D. Monitoring policy has not been created
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
During a VxRail deployment validation check it is discovered that the Top of Rack (ToR) switches have Spanning Tree
Protocol enabled. What should be done before the implementation can proceed?
A. Confirm that ToR switchports connected to VxRail nodes are configured to get into “forwarding” mode quickly.
B. Confirm that ToR switch ports connected to VxRail nodes have fabric-trunk enabled.
C. Disable STP on the ToR switches
D. Confirm that isolated VLANs exist on the ToRswitches for each of the VxRail networks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which method can be used to reset a VxRail V Series node?
A. Rapid Appliance Self Recovery
B. Bootable ISO Image
C. Mobile Build Server
D. Reset Script
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics of an application layer firewall are true? (Choose two)
A. provides reverse proxy services
B. is immune to URL manipulation
C. provides protection for multiple applications
D. provide statefull firewall security
E. has low processor usage
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
What is an advantage of split tunneling?
A. It allows users with a VPN connection to a corporate network to access the Internet by using the VPN for security
B. It enables the VPN server to filter traffic more efficiently.
C. It allows users with a VPN connection to a corporate network to access the Internet without sending traffic across the
corporate network.
D. It protects traffic on the private network from users on the public network.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
What does the DH group refer to?
A. tunnel lifetime key
B. length of key for authentication
C. length of key for encryption
D. length of key for key exchange
E. length of key for hashing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which type of secure connectivity does an extranet provide?
A. remote branch offices to your company network
B. your company network to the Internet
C. new networks to your company network
D. other company networks to your company network
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which FirePOWER preprocessor engine is used to prevent SYN attacks?
A. Rate-Based Prevention
B. Portscan Detection
C. IP Defragmentation
D. Inline Normalization
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
The purpose of the certificate authority (CA) is to ensure what?
A. BYOD endpoints are posture checked
B. BYOD endpoints belong to the organization
C. BYOD endpoints have no malware installed
D. BYOD users exist in the corporate LDAP directory
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
What configuration allows AnyConnect to authenticate automatically establish a VPN session when a user logs in to the
computer?
A. proxy
B. Trusted Network Detection
C. transparent mode
D. always-on
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding definition:
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) can mitigate spoofed IP packets. When this
feature is enabled on an interface, as packets enter that interface the router spends an extra moment considering the
source address of the packet. It then considers its own routing table, and if the routing table does not agree that the
interface that just received this packet is also the best egress interface to use for forwarding to the source address of the
packet, it then denies the packet.

 

QUESTION 9
What does the policy map do in CoPP?
A. defines the action to be performed
B. defines packet selection parameters
C. defines the packet filter
D. defines service parameters
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
How to verify that TACACS+ connectivity to a device?
A. You successfully log in to the device by using the local credentials.
B. You connect to the device using SSH and receive the login prompt.
C. You successfully log in to the device by using ACS credentials.
D. You connect via console port and receive the login prompt.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which option is the resulting action in a zone-based policy firewall configuration with these conditions?pass4itsure 210-260 exam question q11

A. no impact to zoning or policy
B. no policy lookup (pass)
C. drop
D. apply default policy
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-3s/sec-zone-pol-fw.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Security as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which two actions can a zone-based firewall apply to a packet as it transits a zone pair? (Choose two.)
A. drop
B. inspect
C. queue
D. quarantine
E. block
Correct Answer: AB

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This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web, and email content security, and endpoint security using:

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  • 802.1x Authentication
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The latest Oracle Communications 1z0-493 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Identify the sequence of high-level activities that are performed in a typical telecommunications service provider
environment where Order Management is implemented.
A. Order Entry and Validation in the CRM system; Order Decomposition and Orchestration in the Order Management
system -> Resource Allocation in the Inventory system; Resource Activation in the Activation system; Resource Billing
in the Billing Management system
B. Order Entry and Validation in the CRM system; Order Decomposition and Orchestration in the Order Management
system -> Resource Activation in the Activation system; Resource Allocation in the Inventory system; Resource Billing
in the Billing Management system
C. Order Entry and Validation in the CRM system; Order Decomposition and Orchestration in the Order Management
system -> Resource Billing in the Billing Management system; Resource Activation in the Activation system; Resource
Allocation in the Inventory system
D. Order Entry, Validation, Decomposition, and Orchestration in the Order Management system; Resource Billing in the
Billing Management system -> Resource Activation in the Activation system; Resource Allocation in the Inventory
system
E. Order Entry, Validation, Decomposition, and Orchestration in the Order Management system; Resource Allocation in
the Inventory system -> Resource Activation in the Activation system; Resource Billing in the Billing Management
system
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true about the functionality of composition rules in an Order Item Fulfillment State
Composition Rule Set?
A. You can aggregate to a composite state when multiple conditions are met.
B. You can aggregate to a composite state when one of multiple conditions is not met.
C. You can aggregate to a composite state when at least one child order item does not have a defined fulfillment state.
D. You can aggregate to a composite state when at least one child order item has a defined fulfillment state.
E. You can aggregate to a composite state when the order components of all order items have a defined fulfillment
state.
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 3
You are designing a new fulfillment process for VPN sites for a communications service provider that wants to select
manually if the supply chain activity should be executed or not. Considering that your implementation includes a manual
task, which two options can you use to fulfill your client\\’s request?
A. defining multiple statuses in the manual task
B. designing different flow branches from the manual task
C. adding an automator to the manual task
D. adding a rule to the manual task
E. assigning multiple roles to the manual task
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 4
When designing a decomposition rule, you include a decomposition condition with the following expression. Identify the
reason for this development methodology.pass4itsure 1z0-493 exam question q4

A. to include only order items with a ServiceActionCode property that does not equal “NONE” in the target order
component
B. to include only order items with a ServiceActionCode property that equals “NONE” in the target order component
C. to generate a target order component only when at least one order item in the source order component has a
ServiceActionCode property that does not equal “NONE”
D. to generate a target order component only when at least one order item in the source order component has a
ServiceActionCode property that equals “NONE”
E. to generate a target order component only when all order items in the source order component have a
ServiceActionCode property that does not equal “NONE”
F. to generate a target order component only when all order items in the source order component have a
ServiceActionCode property that equals “NONE”
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You have an OSM system that has been configured with the default parameters recommended in the OSM
documentation, but the Task Web client users report that the OSM system is slow. Which three actions would you
take?
A. Verify the amount of memory being allocated by checking the max memory configuration in the Oracle WebLogic
Server startup script on the workstation where you have deployed OSM.
B. Check whether the Task Web client user is selecting buttons, menu options, or tasks multiple times when
experiencing lags between requests and responses.
C. Verify the number of database connections.
D. Re-install OSM in case the system responds slowly during any operations executed.
E. For slow Worklist access, check the number of flexible headers configured in the Worklist.
Correct Answer: ACE
Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E35413_01/doc.722/e35414/adm_troubleshooting.htm#autoId1 (system appears
slow)

 

QUESTION 6
Due to internal errors in a downstream system, one of the automated tasks is receiving an error response to a request
sent from OSM. Considering that the error is an issue that could be resolved by simply retrying the request, identify the
functionality you would use to recover from this fallout scenario.
A. Order Change Management
B. Notifications
C. Jeopardy
D. automation framework transaction rollback
E. follow-on order
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which three aspects can you ascertain by analyzing an orchestration plan in the Order Management Web client?
A. You can find the order items that are associated with each fulfillment function.
B. You can identify the order components that will be executed in parallel.
C. You can identify the order components that will be executed at the beginning of order execution.
D. You can identify the fulfillment mode associated with an order.
E. You can define the dependency conditions between order components.
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E49155_01/doc.73/e49705/mdl_full_patt.htm#OSMMG612

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the System Events feature in the OSM Administrator application?
A. It is a placeholder to display and manage notifications about Oracle WebLogic Server performance at regular
intervals.
B. It is a placeholder to display and manage notifications about OSM Database performance at regular intervals.
C. It is a placeholder to display the list of orders in which exceptions are noted during processing of rules.
D. It is a placeholder to display and manage notifications about OSM Server performance at regular intervals.
E. It is a placeholder to display the list of cartridges that failed during deployment to the OSM Server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E41514_01/doc.724/e41522/adt_system_events.htm#OSMWM132

 

QUESTION 9
You must provide an interface to an upstream system to cancel orders in OSM without manual intervention. What is one
interface that could be used to perform this activity?
A. the “CancelOrder” web service function
B. the OSM database
C. the “DeleteOrder” XML API function
D. the Task Web client
E. the Order Management Web client
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 10
One of your client\\’s requirements involves enrichment of an order received from a CRM system with a customer
geographic region that can be retrieved by using a web service interface. Considering that the order cannot be created
without this information, which development approach would you propose to meet this requirement?
A. adding a data instance to the order data rule transformation of the corresponding recognition rule
B. adding a data instance to the order priority transformation of the corresponding recognition rule
C. adding a data instance to the order reference transformation of the corresponding recognition rule
D. adding a data instance to the recognition rule XQuery of the corresponding recognition rule
E. adding a data instance to the validation rule XQuery of the corresponding recognition rule
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 11
You must extend an OSM sealed cartridge, which is part of a composite cartridge solution provided by Oracle. In this
extension, you need to add new data elements to a generic task. Which step would you need to perform to achieve this
requirement?
A. Create a new task in the composite cartridge with the same name as the generic task and with the new elements in
its task data.
B. Create a Composite Cartridge View in a component cartridge to define the task data as an additive view.
C. Create a new task in a new component cartridge, which extends the generic one from the sealed cartridge, and add
the new desired elements.
D. Create the new elements in the Generic View under the Model Variables section of the composite cartridge.
E. Unseal the cartridge and create the new elements in the existing task data of the generic task.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You have the following process and subprocess configured in your OSM cartridge. The compensation strategy when a
task needs to be re-evaluated is set to “Undo then Redo” for TaskB and “Redo” for all other tasks. On the other hand,
the compensation strategy when a task is no longer required is set to “Undo” for all tasks. OSM has just completed the
execution of TaskD when a revision is submitted, which causes all tasks to be re-evaluated. Which two tasks will be
executed with the Undo execution mode?pass4itsure 1z0-493 exam question q12

A. TaskA
B. TaskB
C. TaskC
D. TaskD
E. TaskE
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
When submitting orders for testing, you notice that order items are being correctly displayed in the OSM Web client, but
no order components are being generated in your orchestration plan. What would you check to find the root cause of the
issue?
A. if the property that is indicated as Order Item Name Property has a valid value
B. if the property that is indicated as Product Specification Mapping Property has a valid value
C. if the task data of the Creation Task associated with the order that is being tested contains the ControlData structure
D. if the order that is submitted for testing contains at least one order item payload
E. if the XQuery expression associated with the order item property that stores the order item\\’s XML payload has any
errors
Correct Answer: C

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How To Pass CompTIA CASP CAS-003 Certification Exam

Get the CompTIA CASP CAS-003 Certification Exam. “CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)”: https://www.pass4itsure.com/cas-003.html (Q&As: 324). Free CompTIA CASP CAS-003 exam practice test. Improve your skills and exam experience!

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Valid information provided by CompTIA officials

(CASP+) Advanced Security Practitioner Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: https://certification.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

Why is it different?

CASP+ is the only hands-on, performance-based certification for practitioners – not managers – at the advanced skill level of cybersecurity. While cybersecurity managers help identify what cybersecurity policies and frameworks could be implemented, CASP+ certified professionals figure out how to implement solutions within those policies and frameworks.

About the exam

The CASP+ certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management; enterprise security operations and architecture; research and collaboration; and integration of enterprise security. Successful candidates will have the knowledge required to:

  • Enterprise Security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques, and requirements
  • More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyber-defense needs to meet business goals
  • Expanding security control topics to include Mobile and small form factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
  • Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
  • Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as Blockchain- Cryptocurrency and Mobile device encryption

The latest CompTIA CASP CAS-003 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked a security project manager to provide recommendations on the breakout
of tasks for the development of a new product. The CEO thinks that by assigning areas of work appropriately the overall
security of the product will be increased, because staff will focus on their areas of expertise. Given the below groups
and tasks select the BEST list of assignments.
Groups: Networks, Development, Project Management, Security, Systems Engineering, Testing Tasks: Decomposing
requirements, Secure coding standards, Code stability, Functional validation, Stakeholder engagement, Secure
transport
A. Systems Engineering. Decomposing requirements Development: Secure coding standards Testing. Code stability
Project Management: Stakeholder engagement Security: Secure transport Networks: Functional validation
B. Systems Engineering. Decomposing requirements Development: Code stability Testing. Functional validation Project
Management: Stakeholder engagement Security: Secure coding standards Networks: Secure transport
C. Systems Engineering. Functional validation Development: Stakeholder engagement Testing. Code stability Project
Management: Decomposing requirements Security: Secure coding standards Networks: Secure transport
D. Systems Engineering. Decomposing requirements Development: Stakeholder engagement Testing. Code stability
Project Management: Functional validation Security: Secure coding standards Networks: Secure transport
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A penetration tester has been contracted to conduct a physical assessment of a site. Which of the following is the
MOST plausible method of social engineering to be conducted during this engagement?
A. Randomly calling customer employees and posing as a help desk technician requiring user password to resolve
issues
B. Posing as a copier service technician and indicating the equipment had “phoned home” to alert the technician for a
service call
C. Simulating an illness while at a client location for a sales call and then recovering once listening devices are installed
D. Obtaining fake government credentials and impersonating law enforcement to gain access to a company facility
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A systems administrator establishes a CIFS share on a UNIX device to share data to Windows systems. The security
authentication on the Windows domain is set to the highest level. Windows users are stating that they cannot
authenticate to the UNIX share. Which of the following settings on the UNIX server would correct this problem?
A. Refuse LM and only accept NTLMv2
B. Accept only LM
C. Refuse NTLMv2 and accept LM
D. Accept only NTLM
Correct Answer: A
In a Windows network, NT LAN Manager (NTLM) is a suite of Microsoft security protocols that provides authentication,
integrity, and confidentiality to users. NTLM is the successor to the authentication protocol in Microsoft LAN Manager
(LANMAN or LM), an older Microsoft product, and attempts to provide backwards compatibility with LANMAN. NTLM
version 2 (NTLMv2), which was introduced in Windows NT 4.0 SP4 (and natively supported in Windows 2000),
enhances NTLM security by hardening the protocol against many spoofing attacks, and adding the ability for a server to
authenticate to the client. This question states that the security authentication on the Windows domain is set to the
highest level. This will be NTLMv2. Therefore, the answer to the question is to allow NTLMv2 which will enable the
Windows users to connect to the UNIX server. To improve security, we should disable the old and insecure LM protocol
as it is not used by the Windows computers.

 

QUESTION 4
A company has decided to relocate and the security manager has been tasked to perform a site survey of the new
location to help in the design of the physical infrastructure. The current location has video surveillance throughout the
building and entryways.
The following requirements must be met:
Able to log entry of all employees in and out of specific areas
Access control into and out of all sensitive areas
Tailgating prevention
Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented to meet the above requirements and provide a secure
solution? (Select TWO).
A. Discretionary Access control
B. Man trap
C. Visitor logs
D. Proximity readers
E. Motion detection sensors
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
After embracing a BYOD policy, a company is faced with new security challenges from unmanaged mobile devices and
laptops. The company\\’s IT department has seen a large number of the following incidents: Duplicate IP addresses
Rogue network devices Infected systems probing the company\\’s network Which of the following should be
implemented to remediate the above issues? (Choose two.)
A. Port security
B. Route protection
C. NAC
D. HIPS
E. NIDS
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
While attending a meeting with the human resources department, an organization\\’s information security officer sees an
employee using a username and password written on a memo pad to log into a specific service. When the information
security officer inquires further as to why passwords are being written down, the response is that there are too many
passwords to remember for all the different services the human resources department is required to use.
Additionally, each password has specific complexity requirements and different expiration time frames. Which of the
following would be the BEST solution for the information security officer to recommend?
A. Utilizing MFA
B. Implementing SSO
C. Deploying 802.1X
D. Pushing SAML adoption
E. Implementing TACACS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
A software development manager is running a project using agile development methods. The company cybersecurity
engineer has noticed a high number of vulnerabilities have been making it into production code on the project. Which of
the following methods could be used in addition to an integrated development environment to reduce the severity of the
issue?
A. Conduct a penetration test on each function as it is developed
B. Develop a set of basic checks for common coding errors
C. Adopt a waterfall method of software development
D. Implement unit tests that incorporate static code analyzers
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
The security team for Company XYZ has determined that someone from outside the organization has obtained sensitive
information about the internal organization by querying the external DNS server of the company. The security manager
is tasked with making sure this problem does not occur in the future. How would the security manager address this
problem?
A. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about domains that only the
outside world should be aware, and an internal DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal systems.
B. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about internal domain resources
that the outside world would be interested in, and an internal DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal
systems.
C. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about domains that only the
outside world should be aware, and an internal DNS server to maintain non-authoritative records for external systems.
D. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the internal DNS server to contain information about domains the outside world
should be aware of, and an external DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal systems.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A security manager is looking into the following vendor proposal for a cloud-based SIEM solution. The intention is that
the cost of the SIEM solution will be justified by having reduced the number of incidents and therefore saving on the
amount spent investigating incidents.
Proposal:
External cloud-based software as a service subscription costing $5,000 per month. Expected to reduce the number of
current incidents per annum by 50%.
The company currently has ten security incidents per annum at an average cost of $10,000 per incident. Which of the
following is the ROI for this proposal after three years?
A. -$30,000
B. $120,000
C. $150,000
D. $180,000
Correct Answer: A
Return on investment = Net profit / Investment
where:Net profit = gross profit expenses.
or
Return on investment = (gain from investment ?cost of investment) / cost of investment
Subscriptions = 5,000 x 12 = 60,000 per annum
10 incidents @ 10,000 = 100.000 per annumreduce by 50% = 50,000 per annum
Thus the rate of Return is -10,000 per annum and that makes for -$30,000 after three years.
References:
http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html

 

QUESTION 10
Virtual hosts with different security requirements should be:
A. encrypted with a one-time password.
B. stored on separate physical hosts.
C. moved to the cloud.
D. scanned for vulnerabilities regularly.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
A company has hired an external security consultant to conduct a thorough review of all aspects of corporate security.
The company is particularly concerned about unauthorized access to its physical offices resulting in network
compromises. Which of the following should the consultant recommend be performed to evaluate potential risks?
A. The consultant should attempt to gain access to physical offices through social engineering and then attempt data
exfiltration
B. The consultant should be granted access to all physical access control systems to review logs and evaluate the
likelihood of the threat
C. The company should conduct internal audits of access logs and employee social media feeds to identify potential
insider threats
D. The company should install a temporary CCTV system to detect unauthorized access to physical offices
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which of the following authentication types is used primarily to authenticate users through the use of tickets?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
An investigation showed a worm was introduced from an engineer\\’s laptop. It was determined the company does not
provide engineers with company-owned laptops, which would be subject to a company policy and technical controls.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure control implement?
A. Deploy HIDS on all engineer-provided laptops, and put a new router in the management network.
B. Implement role-based group policies on the management network for client access.
C. Utilize a jump box that is only allowed to connect to client from the management network.
D. Deploy a company-wide approved engineering workstation for management access.
Correct Answer: A

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The latest CompTIA CASP CAS-003 dumps, online CAS-003 practice test questions, pass CAS-003 exam: https://www.pass4itsure.com/cas-003.html (Q&As: 135). Boost exam skills Share CAS-003 pdf and CAS-003 Youtube videos for free