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Associate VMware Data Center Virtualization 1V0-21.20 Real Questions and Answers Share 1-13

NEW QUESTION 1

Which event type indicates a Fatal problem has occurred in the system, and the process or operation will be terminated?

A. Information
B. Audit
C. Error
D. Warning

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

A VMware administrator monitoring a project has been advised to run the compute health check using the vSphere 7 clients to monitor the ESXi host’s health. How should the administrator approach this task?

A. Menu > Administrator > Deployment > System Configuration
B. Host > Monitor > Skyline Health > Expand Online Health Connectivity > Compute Health Checks > Reset
C. Host > Monitor > Events
D. Host > Monitor > Issues and Alarms

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

An operator must deploy three virtual machines from a template named Win10-Template, and all three VMs must be configured with unique computer names. Which action must the operator take to achieve this goal?

A. Clone Win10-Template three times, and then change the computer name in each clone.
B. Export Win10-Template to the local filesystem, and then change the computer name.
C. Use a Windows 10 customization specification when deploying the virtual machines.
D. Create the virtual machines using the New Virtual Machine wizard.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

This feature allows an administrator to implement master copies of virtual machines to create ready-for-use virtual machines.

A. Templates
B. Resource Pools
C. Snapshots
D. Custom Attributes

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

Which feature must be enabled to use vSphere Fault Tolerance?

A. vSphere DRS
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSAN

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Which two improvements to the management of a VM are gained when VMware Tools are used? (Choose two.)

A. Performs a clone of the VM
B. Adds VM alarms to the inventory
C. Makes a graceful shutdown of the VM possible
D. Allows a snapshot before the guest OS is upgraded
E. Synchronizes time between the guest and the host

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 7

Which vSphere component provides continuous availability for mission-critical virtual machines so users experience no loss of data and no interruption in service during a host failure?

A. vSphere Fault Tolerance
B. vSphere Replication
C. vSphere HA
D. vSphere vmotion

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit:

Which statement Is true about the access privileges of User 2?

A. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to Prod04-3.
B. User 2 has no access to all objects in the Production folder and Test and Dev folder.
C. User 2 has virtual machine power user privileges to all VMs In the Production folder.
D. User 2 has access to all objects in the Production folder and no access to Dev01, Dev02, and Dev03.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

An administrator has noticed an increase in network latency when powered-off virtual machines are migrated. Which VMkernel adapter can the administrator use to reduce this latency?

A. vSAN
B. vSphere Replication
C. Provisioning
D. vMotion

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

What is the default encrypted vSphere vMotion state for virtual machines that are not encrypted?

A. Disabled
B. Required
C. Opportunistic
D. Enabled

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

Which hypervisor is a type-1 hypervisor?

A. Oracle VM VirtualBox
B. VMware ESXi
C. VMware Fusion
D. VMware Workstation

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

A vSphere administrator sees the alarm: vSphere HA virtual machine failed to failover This occurred for virtual machines (VMs) in a cluster with vSphere High Availability (HA) enabled. The guest operating system on the VMs did not report a power failure. What is a possible cause of this event?

A. The host is still running but has disconnected from the network.
B. The VMs cloning operations did not complete.
C. A reboot of the vCenter Server impacted vSphere HA.
D. The VMs encountered an error during migration using vSphere vMotion.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

Which DRS score indicates that the virtual machine (VM) is experiencing severe resource contention?

A. 50%
B. 95%
C. 70%
D. 15%

Correct Answer: D

……

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Exam 5V0-11.21 (VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist) is an english-language exam. People who want to pass the exam need to answer 65 questions in 130 minutes, in the form of single and multiple choice. You need to make sure you reach 300 to pass. The exam fee is $250.

Associated Certification: Master Specialist – VMware Cloud on AWS 2022

All conditions for obtaining this certification:

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Below are the free updated VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist 5V0-11.21 exam questions:

1. A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.
B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A

2. Which VMware solution provides customers with the ability to query and graphically display activities for audits, events and custom real-time alerts for the VMware NSX-T firewall running in VMware Cloud on AWS?

A. VMware vRealize Network Insight Cloud
B. VMware vRealize Log Insight Cloud
C. VMware vRealize Operations Cloud
D. CloudHealth by VMware

Correct Answer: C

3. A virtual machine in VMware Cloud on AWS sends a packet to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Linux instance in the associated AWS account. Which device is the next hop for the packet?

A. Edge Virtual Machine
B. AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) on the VMware ESXI host
C. Tier-0 (T0) Router
D. Tier-1 (T1) Router

Correct Answer: B

4. To assist with seasonal workload demands over the next two months, a group of interns are hired to assist with day 2 virtual machine operations in VMware Cloud on AWS. Which method should be used for creating these temporary user accounts and assigning the appropriate permissions to them?

A. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vmc.local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts.

B. Log into on-premises VMware vCenter. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts. Ensure that Hybrid Linked Mode is enabled to allow account propagation to the VMware Cloud on AWS SSO domain.

C. Create the required user accounts within Active Directory and assign them to the required group. With Hybrid Linked Mode enabled, assign the correct role in VMware Cloud on AWS to the Active Directory group that contains the user accounts.

D. Log into vCenter in VMware Cloud on AWS with the CloudAdmin account. Create the required number of user accounts in the vsphere. local SSO domain and assign the appropriate roles to the accounts in Active Directory.

Correct Answer: B

5. What is a key functionality of the vRealize Automation Cloud Service Broker?

A. Provides a common catalog for easy consumption on VMware Cloud.
B. Manages blueprints as a code in a YAML format.
C. Automates the DevOps release lifecycle.
D. Creates and deploys virtual machines, applications, and services to multiple clouds.

Correct Answer: A

6. A customer is deploying a new solution based on VMware Cloud on AWS. The customer is already running several native AWS services and would like the new workloads deployed into VMware Cloud on AWS to consume these services without incurring additional traffic charges. During the initial deployment of the VMware Cloud on AWS softwaredefined data center (SDDC), which option must the customer choose to meet the requirement?

A. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same region as the native AWSservices to be consumed.
B. Any availability zone within the same AWS region can be selected. After the SDDC deployment, deploy a services gateway and connect it to the target availability zone.
C. Choose a subnet from the connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed.
D. Choose a connected Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) that is located in the same availability zone as the native AWS services to be consumed.

Correct Answer: A

7. What are three benefits of using VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose three.)

A. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their VMware Cloud on AWS resources with
familiar VMware tools.
B. With VMware Cloud on AWS, IT teams can manage their native AWS resources with familiar VMware tools.
C. VMware Cloud on AWS supports optimized virtual AWS Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances.
D. Native VMware workloads can be migrated back and forth between on-premises VMware vSphere environments and VMware Cloud on AWS.
E. With VMware Cloud on AWS, VMware and AWS administrators will manage, maintain and update all virtual machines.
F. Native AWS services can be consumed over the global AWS backbone with high bandwidth and low latency.

Correct Answer: ACE

8. An environment is running a cluster with six i3.metal hosts in the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC). If one host fails, what happens after a new host is automatically added to the cluster?

A. The SDDC and NVMe drives backing VMware vSAN capacity are unmounted from the failed host and attached to the new host. There is no VMware vSAN rebuild required.
B. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 0.
C. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 1.
D. A notification is received from VMware Support to start the VMware vSAN rebuild. Performance might be degraded during rebuild.

Correct Answer: C

9. What are three valid migration modes in VMware HCX? (Choose three.)

A. Planned Failover
B. Hybrid Linked Mode
C. Bulk Migration
D. Replication Assisted vMotion (RAV)
E. HCX vMotion
F. Cross vCenter vMotion

Correct Answer: CDE

10. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator builds a software-defined data center (SDDC) group to enable connectivity to native Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs). Which connectivity option is needed to enable connectivity across environments?

A. Tier-0 (T0) Router
B. Transit Gateway
C. Virtual Private Network
D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.

Correct Answer: A

11. An administrator deploys a VMware Cloud on AWS environment and configures an IPsec virtual private network (VPN) tunnel to their data center. Hybrid Linked Mode connectivity, however, does NOT appear to be working. Before contacting VMware Support, what could the administrator do to narrow down the possible issue?

A. Fill in the relevant IP information for the on-premises infrastructure and run the desired troubleshooting connectivity test.
B. Download and review the Tier-0 (TO) gateway firewall logs.
C. Configure a packet capture device in the on-premises data center to capture packets from the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) to determine which packets are being dropped.
D. Configure a packet capture appliance on a local segment within VMware Cloud on AWS to capture and analyze traffic across a specific NSX-T gateway interface.

Correct Answer: A

12. A company is operating a main data center and two smaller data centers in branch offices. The main data center is being replicated to a disaster recovery site at a co-located data center with a recovery point objective (RPO) of five minutes and a recovery time objective (RTO) of two hours. The branch data centers are shipping backup tapes to the main data center on a weekly basis.

What would be a cost-efficient VMware solution that would improve RTO and RPO for the branch office data centers while maintaining the recovery time for the main data center?

A. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Create a shared content librand let the branch offices subscribe to it. Export the virtual machines in the branch offices to OVF files on the shared content library on a weekly basis.

B. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Migrate the disaster recovery solution from the co-located data center to the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC. Create regular copies of the virtual machines at the branch offices and use AWS Snowball to directly ship the copies to an AWS data center and store them on AWS S3 buckets.

C. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Activate VMware Site Recovery. Replace the co-located disaster recovery (DR) site for the main data center with VMware Site Recovery. For the branch offices, implement VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).

D. Create a software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. Replace the co-located site for the main data center and the backup tape shipping for the branch offices with VMware Cloud Disaster Recovery (VCDR).

Correct Answer: A

13. Which three statements are true about the Elastic DRS Optimize for Rapid Scale-Out policy? (Choose three.)

A. Hosts are added incrementally when needed for storage.
B. Hosts will NOT be removed automatically when they are no longer needed.
C. Multiple hosts are added at a time when needed for memory or CPU.
D. After a storage scale-out event is triggered, single hosts are added every 30 minutes.
E. High threshold for storage, like the other policies, is set at 75%.
F. To resolve constraints related to CPU and memory, hosts are added two at a time.

Correct Answer: ACF

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1. Which two statements describe Spring JdbcTemplate? (Choose two.)

A. All JdbcTemplate methods throw SQLException which you are required to handle.
B. The JdbcTemplate provides the ability to work with result sets.
C. The JdbcTemplate can only perform updates but not insert them into the database.
D. The JdbcTemplate provides methods for query execution.
E. The JdbcTemplate generates SQL statements.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-jdbctemplate-in-list

2. What are the two reasons Spring is used to build a Java application? (Choose two.)

A. Spring automates a Java application build.
B. Spring provides a Dependency Injection container.
C. Spring automates the deployment of Java applications to all of the major cloud providers.
D. Spring provides comprehensive Java IDE support.
E. Spring provides abstractions over infrastructure such as persistence and messaging.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://spring.io/why-spring

3. Which three types can be used as @Controller method arguments? (Choose three.)

A. Locale
B. Principal
C. Language
D. Session
E. Request
F. HttpSession

Correct Answer: AEF

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/3.0.0.M4/spring-framework-reference/html/ ch15s03.html

4. Which two statements are true about @Controller annotated classes? (Choose two.)

A. The @Controller annotated classes can only render views.
B. The classes are eligible for handling requests in Spring MVC.
C. The classes must be annotated together with @EnableMvcMappings to be discovered via component scanning.
D. @Controller is interchangeable with @RestController with no extra code changes for the methods inside the class.
E. The @Controller annotation is a stereotype annotation like @Component.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-mvc-handler-adapters https://www.dineshonjava.com/stereotypeannotations-in-spring/

5. Refer to the exhibit.

Which option is a valid way to retrieve the account id? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add @PathVariable(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.
B. Add @PathVariable long accounted argument to the update() handler method.
C. Add @RequestParam long accounted argument to the update() handler method.
D. Add @RequestParam(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/4.3.12.RELEASE/spring-framework-reference/htmlsingle/

6. Which two statements are correct regarding the Actuator info endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. It provides configuration options through which only an authenticated user can display application information.
B. It is not enabled by default.
C. It can be used to display arbitrary application information.
D. It can be used to change a property value on a running application.
E. Typically it is used to display build or source control information.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/current/reference/html/actuator.html

7. Which two statements about pointcut expressions are true? (Choose two.)

A. A pointcut expression cannot specify the type of parameters.
B. A pointcut expression will throw an exception if no methods are matched.
C. A pointcut expression cannot have a wildcard for a method name.
D. A pointcut expression can include operators such as the following: andand (and), || (or),! (not).
E. A pointcut expression can be used to select join points that have been annotated with a specific annotation.

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-aop-pointcut-tutorial

8. Which two statements are true concerning the BeanPostProcessor extension point? (Choose two.)

A. BeanPostProcessors are called before the dependencies have been injected.
B. Custom BeanPostProcessors can be implemented for Spring applications.
C. BeanPostProcessors are called before the BeanFactoryPostProcessors.
D. BeanPostProcessors are called during the initialization phase of a bean life cycle.
E. BeanPostProcessors cannot be ordered in a Spring Boot application.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/3.0.0.M3/reference/html/ch04s07.html

9. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface.
B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC.
C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA.
D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean.
Correct Answer: C

10. Refer to the exhibit.

The above code shows a conditional @Bean method for the creation of a JdbcTemplate bean.
Which two statements correctly describe the code behavior? (Choose two.)

A. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnBean (DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.
B. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnMissingBean
(DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.
C. The @Bean annotation should be removed.
D. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when the DataSource class is in the classpath but there is no DataSource bean.
E. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when a bean named dataSource has already been created.

Correct Answer: AD

11. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test.
B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default.
C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing.
D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext.
E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with
@SpringBootConfiguration in the application.

Correct Answer: CD

12. Which two statements are true regarding Spring and Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. EasyMock is supported out of the box.
B. @SpringBootTest or @SpringJUnitConfig can be used for creating an ApplicationContext.
C. Mockito spy is not supported in Spring Boot testing by default.
D. The spring-test dependency provides annotations such as @Mock and @MockBean.
E. Integration and slice testing are both supported.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/2.1.5.RELEASE/reference/html/boot-featurestesting.html

13. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Security? (Choose two.)

A. Access control can be configured at the method level.
B. A special Java Authentication and Authorization Service (JAAS) policy file need to be configured.
C. Authentication data can be accessed using a variety of different mechanisms, including databases and LDAP.
D. In the authorization configuration, the usage of permit () allows bypassing Spring security completely.
E. It provides a strict implementation of the Java EE Security specification.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/security-none-filters-none-access-permitAll

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Exam title	VMware vSAN 6.7 Specialist
Total number of questions	76
Exam Code:	5V0-22.21
The authentication name	VMware

Latest update: Mar 20, 2022

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VMware VSAN 6.7 Specialist [5V0-22.21] Online Exercise

q1.

A new vSAN Cluster with four hosts has to be designed for a single site architecture. Which design decision is correct?

A. All the data must remain accessible even with two host failures.
B. Configure the storage controllers to use RAID.
C. Use block-based storage for the new vSAN cluster.
D. Only hardware listed on the VMware Compatibility Guide will be deployed.

q2.

A vSAN administrator was examining the status of Virtual Objects and found inaccessible objects that are occupying significant storage capacity.

Refer to the exhibit: Which action is needed to restore the storage capacity?

A. Evacuate data on an affected node by using the Full Data Migration mode.
B. Identify and remove the obsolete object.
C. Restart the host, and obsolete objects will be removed on their own.
D. Trigger a manual resync, and allow vSAN to heal the object.

q3.

Skyline Health vSAN HCL DB up-to-date health check is alerting in red in a newly deployed vCenter Server.

Which two options are the possible solutions for this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Obtain the HCL DB offline bundle from vmware.com, and manually update it.
B. Upgrade to the latest version of vCenter.
C. Upgrade the HCL DB from the hardware vendor website.
D. Obtain the HCL DB from the hardware vendor, and manually update it.
E. Update the HCL DB online from vmware.com.

q4.

In vSAN 7.0 U1, when a host enters into maintenance mode (EMM) using the “Ensure Accessibility” option, it will allow vSAN to write to another host in addition to the host holding the object replica.
What does vSAN write to that additional host?

A. A full replica and all incremental updates that happened once the host entered maintenance mode
B. A full replica
C. The stripe from the host entering maintenance mode
D. All incremental updates that happened once the host entered maintenance mode

q5.

What is the maximum number of 2-node clusters that can share a vSAN Shared Witness host in vSAN 7.0 U1?

A. 64
B. 1
C. 128
D. 32

q6.

An administrator is tasked with configuring vSAN Cloud-Native Storage.
Which two requirements must be met for a successful configuration? (Choose two.)

A. vSAN iSCSI service enabled
B. Minimum of vSphere 6.7 Update 3 or later
C. Tanzu Enterprise License required
D. Minimum of vSphere 7.0 Update 2 or later
E. Compatible version of Kubernetes

q7.

A vSAN administrator has three available racks and six vSAN hosts and needs to protect against a rack failure while maximizing resources.

Which two strategies should the vSAN administrator use to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A. RAID-5/FTT=1
B. vSAN stretched cluster
C. Specify fault domains
D. RAID-6/FTT=2
E. 2-node configuration

q8.

After a recent data loss event, the IT department plans to deploy a DR site using vSphere Replication with vSAN providing the storage backend.

The architect would like to know how many components will be created based on the following configuration:

2x 100 GB VMDK RAID 1 vSAN Storage Policy 4x Point in Time snapshots
How many components will be created?

A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 8

q9.

In a 2-node vSAN cluster, one node has recovered from failure with FTT=1 and RAID-1 storage policy. Refer to the
exhibit:

What is the total VMDK storage consumed?

A. 150 GB B. 100GB
C. 133GB
D. 200GB

q10.

What are two purposes of a vSAN storage policy (Choose two.)

A. To determine vSAN encryption level
B. To enable TRIM/UNMAP
C. To define how the VM storage objects are provisioned
D. To guarantee the required level of service
E. To enable deduplication and compression

q11.

An administrator must choose between deploying a virtual witness or physical witness for a vSAN Stretched Cluster.

The administrator eventually decides to use a virtual witness.
What is a benefit of selecting this approach?

A. Reduced vSphere licensing
B. Additional compute capacity for running VMs
C. Shared metadata between separate clusters
D. Increased vSAN datastore capacity

q12.

A site administrator has determined that the site needs to upgrade all vSAN clusters to 7.0 U1. The vSAN administrator wishes to complete the update in the shortest amount of time possible.

All virtual machines are assigned a storage policy where the “Failures to tolerate” is set to one or higher.
Which strategy should be used to achieve this goal?

A. Disable de-duplication and compression prior to the upgrade.
B. Perform a complete update, omitting the on-disk format update.
C. Select the “No data migration” maintenance mode option.
D. Update only select, mission-critical clusters.

Post the correct answer

q1	q2	q3	q4	q5	q6	q7	q8	q9	q10	q11	q12
B	D	AB	A	A	BE	CD	B	B	CD	A	D

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1#

An architect is designing a greenfield VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop with the customer, the future Service Owner made the following comment: The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) for the Cloud Management solution is 1 hour.

When creating the design documentation, which design quality should be used to classify the requirements?

A. Manageability
B. Availability
C. Recoverability
D. Performance

2#

An architect designed a vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) cluster for an organization with the following details:
The cluster has 3-nodes with 2 event forwarders sending logs to this cluster. The vRLI cluster is part of the disaster recovery protection process.

What should be the proper sequence of steps in the Disaster Recovery (DR) protection runbook for recovering vRLI cluster?

A. 1. Restore the forwarders
2. Restore worker nodes in any order
3. Restore the master node
4. Restore any recovered agents

B. 1. Restore the master node
2. Restore worker nodes in any order
3. Restore the forwarders
4. Restore any recovered agents

C. 1. Restore the worker nodes
2. Restore master node
3. Restore the forwarders
4. Restore any recovered agents

D. 1. Restore the master node
2. Restore worker nodes in a specific defined order
3. The forwarders
4. Restore any recovered agents

3#

A customer wants to deploy Workspace ONE Access for vRealize Suite users.
The customer wants to achieve the following requirements:

Availability SLA 95% uptime per month, calculated Monday-Friday, 24 hours per day.
The deployment footprint must be minimal.

Which design decision should the architect choose?

A. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access cluster and protect it with vSphere HA.
B. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access node and protect it with vSphere HA.
C. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access cluster and protect it with Fault Tolerance.
D. Deploy a Workspace ONE Access node and protect it with Fault Tolerance.

4#

An architect is responsible for creating a new design to centralize the logging infrastructure for an existing vSphere environment. The key stakeholder in the project has provided the following list of requirements:

The management solution must forward all logs to the existing centralized Security Incident and Event
Management (SIEM) solution.

The management solution must be a minimum of N + 1 resilient.
The management solution must provide the ability to view at least 2 months of live data.
The management solution must meet a monthly uptime SLA of 99.9%.

The management solution must support the collection of logs from ten geographically separated data
center locations.

The management solution must support the collection of a minimum of 10,000 events per second.
Given the information from the stakeholder, which two statements would be considered functional
requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The management solution must be a minimum of N + 1 resilient.
B. The management solution must meet a monthly uptime SLA of 99.9%.
C. The management solution must provide the ability to view at least 2 months of live data.
D. The management solution must forward all logs to the existing centralized Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) solution.
E. The management solution must support the collection of a minimum of 10,000 events per second.

5#

Which recommendation should an architect make when designing a highly available vRealize Operation (vROps) cluster?

A. Deploy analytics nodes with the same disk size on storage of the same type.
B. Depending on the size and performance requirements for analytics nodes, apply Storage DRS Affinity rules to ensure that nodes are on the same datastores.
C. If the sizing guideline provides several configurations for the same number of objects, use the configuration which has the greatest number of nodes.
D. Set Storage DRS to Fully Automated for all vRealize Operations Manager analytics nodes.

6#

An organization wants to implement a network topology to provide users with one-way upstream access to the external network.

Which two statements are true for implementing such a network profile type using NSX-T Data Center? (Choose two.)

A. The external network specified in the “Network Policies” tab will be used to assign an external IP to the VM
B. A DNAT rule is created o the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally
C. The cloud template must use the “private” network profile type
D. The external network should be left blank in the “Network Policies” tab
E. An SNAT rule is created on the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally

7#

Which design decision should an architect make to support continuous availability in vRealize Operations?

A. Each Fault Domain should contain only remote collector nodes.
B. The vROps cluster should be separated into three Fault Domains.
C. Each Fault Domain should consist of primary, witness, and remote collector nodes.
D. The vROps cluster should be separated into two Fault Domains.

8#

An architect is designing a new VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements
gathering workshop, the customer made the following comments:

The monthly uptime target of the cloud management solution must be 99.9%.
All components of the cloud management solution must be deployed with an N + 1 redundancy.
When creating the design documentation, how should these requirements be classified?

A. Recoverability
B. Manageability
C. Availability
D. Performance

9#

As a Service Broker administrator, you have been asked to meet these requirements:
All released cloud templates must be imported to Service Broker.

Newly released cloud templates must be automatically synchronized with Service Broker.
All cloud templates must be automatically published to the service catalog.

Which two options must be configured to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure content sharing using the Content Sources option
B. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option but do not configure content sharing
C. Create content source using CloudFormation Template option
D. Configure content sharing using the All Content option
E. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option

10#

A healthcare company has mandated that all IP and DNS entries be allocated from an existing third-party IPAM solution.

Also, for auditing purposes, all systems must handle user authentication via the existing open-source LDAP directory.

When considering a logical design for this scenario, which is true about the dependency relationships of these systems?

A. The IPAM system is an upstream dependency and the LDAP system is a downstream dependency of vRealize Automation.
B. Both the IPAM and LDAP systems are external, upstream dependencies of vRealize Automation.
C. Both the IPAM and LDAP systems are external, downstream dependencies of vRealize Automation.
D. The LDAP system is an upstream dependency and the IPAM system is a downstream dependency of vRealize Automation.

11#

An architect has designed a vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) cluster for an organization. Details of the cluster are provided below:

3-node vRealize Log Insight cluster to collect logs for an organization NFS storage is enabled for archival data Once the NFS storage is full, which will be the resulting scenario?

A. vRLI will stop ingesting new data and unless free space is available, loss of data will occur.
B. vRLI will automatically delete the oldest archived logs, resulting in archived data loss.
C. vRLI will further compress the active logs to make more space available in NFS storage.
D. vRLI will send a notification and automatically disable log archiving.

12#

An architect is designing the deployment of vRealize Log Insight (vRLI) in their data center. The customer has the following requirements:

vRLI cluster responds to multiple Virtual IP Addresses (VIPs) Each event message received from a VIP is associated with a tag

Which two design decisions would the architect make to achieve the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a CSV file to use with VIP tags.
B. Configure a list of static tags (key=value) for an integrated load balancer VIP, so that each event message received from a VIP is annotated with a tag.
C. Each node should have at least one network interface on the same subnet as that of a VIP.
D. Configure a list of dynamic tags (key=value) for an integrated load balancer VIP, so that each event message received from a VIP is annotated with a tag.
E. Each node should have at least one network interface on a different subnet as that of a VIP.

Post correct answer:

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1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
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VMware 2V0-51.21 exam, Professional VMware Horizon 8.X

VMware Professional Horizon 8. x (2V0-51.21)

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1. Which two capabilities are supported by VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Application Profiler? (Choose two.)

A. It allows individual user personalization of applications.
B. It allows creation of computer templates.
C. It allows third-party user personalization of applications.
D. It allows creation of application-specific predefined settings.
E. It analyzes registry and file system location settings for an application.

2. Which storage product allows the pooling of resources to create datastores in a Software Defined Datacenter?

A. VMware VMFS
B. VMware vSAN
C. VMware Storage I/O Control
D. VMware HCI Mesh

3. To reduce the risk of users downloading malware to the corporate network, an administrator wants to allow end users to open only intranet websites inside their virtual desktop.

Additionally, the administrator wants to configure all other URLs to automatically open in a browser on the end-user\\’s client machine. Which steps should the administrator take to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Enable the URL Content Redirection feature on the desktop pool settings.
B. Enable the URL Content Redirection feature in Horizon Agent.
C. Configure group policy settings to indicate how Horizon Agent redirects the URL.
D. Enable secure website settings in the Global Settings Security menu.
E. Disable the Allow External Website feature in Horizon Agent.

4. What are three valid options to store Horizon events? (Choose three.)

A. flat files
B. MS SQL
C. D82
D. MYSQL
E. syslog

5. An administrator recently deployed a Horizon pod with external access using Unified Access Gateway (UAG). While trying to launch VDI form an External network, VDI launched with a black screen and then disconnects.

The administrator has validated the port requirement and all other required ports are open. Users are able to connect internally using the connection server URL. While reviewing the UAG logs, the administrator found that the Blast connection is hitting the Connection Server instead of VDI IP.

What should the administrator do to resolve the issue?

A. Disable the Tunnel and Gateways in Connection Server.
B. Enable Tunnel in UAG.
C. Update the Blast External URL in UAG with port number.
D. Upload the Blast Proxy Certificate in Horizon Edge Settings.

6. An administrator configured a virtual machine to use an NVIDIA card but the virtual machine is not starting up. What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. No suitable host could be found.
B. Not all memory has been reserved on the VM.
C. Not all CPU has been reserved on the VM.
D. The Desktop Pool doesn\\’t support 3D cards.
E. 3D graphics cannot be used with local storage.

7. An administrator wants to ensure users can access an application that uses .NET 3.0 for desktops available on Horizon On-premises and on Horizon Cloud Service on Microsoft Azure.

Which two options would achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Create a ThinApp package and provision it with App Volumes.
B. Install the application on the primary image.
C. Copy the vmdk and .json file to the Azure storage.
D. Capture the application in App Volumes.
E. Copy the vhd and .json file to the Azure storage.

8. A Horizon administrator does not see the health status for the Unified Access Gateways (UAG) they configured in the Horizon Console. What two options could be causing the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The firewall hasn\\’t has been configured properly to allow traffic on port 443.
B. The pod needs to be added to the Cloud Pod Federation.
C. The Connection Server needs to be rebooted.
D. Another license is needed for the UAG health overview.
E. The name entered in the Horizon console doesn\\’t match up with the system name in UAG.

9. An administrator sees a lot of instant-clone template VM\\’s that are not in use anymore in Center. What tool needs to be used to clean up old templates?

A. iccleanup.cmd
B. icunprotect.cmd
C. vdmadmin.exe
D. icmaint.cmd

10. After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database:

Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine
Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted.
B. Desktops can only be customized after the end-user logs into the virtual machine.
C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory.
D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification.
E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.

11.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the codecs supported by Blast on the left to the appropriate use case on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

12. Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?

A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine.
B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation.
C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine.
D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.

Answer posted:

1	2	.3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
DE	B	CD	BDE	C	AB	DE	CE	D	AD	picture	B

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#1:

An administrator wants to integrate vRealize Automation with the VMware Marketplace to import predefined Cloud Templates.

Which integration must the administrator configure?

A. SaltStack
B. Orchestrator
C. Operations Manager
D. My VMware

#2:

An administrator wants to simplify the management of certificates, licenses, and passwords for each vRealize Suite component deployed by vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager (vRSLCM).

Which feature of vRSLCM can the administrator leverage to achieve this goal?

A. Locker
B. Marketplace
C. Content management
D. Identity management

#3:

Why would the health status of an environment be missing in vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager (vRSLCM)?

A. Identity Manager is not deployed in the environment.
B. vRealize Log Insight is not deployed in the environment.
C. The SDDC Management Health solution pack is not configured in vRealize Operations Manager.
D. The vRSLCM Management solution pack is not configured in vRealize Operations Manager.

#4:

A user would like to automate the update of an already-deployed application that is using a blue-green deployment model ad also minimize downtime for the application.

Which strategy would meet these requirements?

A. Create a pipeline in Code Stream that uses a Bamboo task to manage the blue and green instances.
B. Create a pipeline in Code Stream with separate stages for the blue and green instances.
C. Create a single cloud template in Cloud Assembly to deploy the blue and green instances.
D. Create separate cloud templates in Cloud Assembly for the new version of the application.

#5:

Which two configurations are required to allow virtual machines to be deployed into a VMware Cloud Foundation solution? (Choose two.)

A. The SDDC Manager integration
B. A SDDC Manager Cloud Account
C. A VMware Cloud Foundation Cloud Account
D. The VMware Cloud Foundation integration
E. A VMware NSX-v Cloud Account

#6:

Which two configurations are required to allow virtual machines to be deployed into a VMware Cloud Foundation solution? (Choose two.)

A. The SDDC Manager integration
B. A SDDC Manager Cloud Account
C. A VMware Cloud Foundation Cloud Account
D. The VMware Cloud Foundation integration
E. A VMware NSX-v Cloud Account

#7:

An administrator wants to create a common catalog through which users can request different catalog
items.

Which vRealize Automation service should be used?

A. Code Stream
B. SaltStack Config
C. Cloud Assembly
D. Service Broker

#8:

An operator has been tasked with using vRealize Operations to determine whether sufficient capacity exists within a production vSAN Cluster to add another 100 workloads.

Which two actions should be taken to complete this task? (Choose two.)

A. Create a new Add VMs Scenario using the Workload Planning: Hyperconverged and VMC on AWS option.
B. Create a new Add VMs Scenario using the Workload Planning: Traditional option.
C. Select Plan from the Quick Start Page.
D. Select Assess Capacity from the Quick Start Page.
E. Select Rightsize from the Quick Start Page.

#9:

An administrator has created a custom dashboard in a development instance of vRealize Operations Manager (vROps).

The administrator needs to move the dashboard in to the Production vROps instance.
Which feature of vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager should be used to complete this task?

A. Locker
B. Marketplace
C. Lifecycle Operations
D. Content Management

#10:

Which tool should an administrator use to analyze traffic flows and plan a micro-segmentation strategy?

A. vRealize Operations Manager
B. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
C. vRealize Network Insight
D. vRealize Log Insight

#11:

Which is the valid use case for vRealize Automation?

A. Multi-cloud deployment with governance
B. Providing the compute layer for Kubernetes
C. Infrastructure and application monitoring
D. Central repository for Perl scripts

#12:

An administrator has been tasked with creating a cloud template that will support the deployment of resources to multiple clouds.

Which vRealize Automation component should be used?

A. Orchestrator
B. Service Broker
C. Cloud Assembly
D. Code Stream

Post the correct answer

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
D	C	C	A	AD	A	B	BD	D	C	A	A

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Q# 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Which VMware SD-WAN Edge High Availability deployment is being used”?

A. Enhanced HA
B. Fault Domain HA
C. VRRP HA
D. Standard HA

Correct Answer: C

Q# 2

Which feature is required to prevent a split-brain condition for a branch in an Enhanced HA

A. Split-Brain Detection
B. SD-WAN Service Reachable on the private overlay
C. Cloud VPN
D. VRRP

Correct Answer: B

Q# 3

A technician at a customer site is deploying VMware SD-WAN Edge 620 notices that the Edge LED is
shown amber.

What is the meaning of this LED color?

A. Edge is still booting.
B. DNS is not reachable from the Edge.
C. Edge is not activated.
D. Internet is not available from the Edge

Correct Answer: D

Q# 4

Which statement is true about the VMware SD-WAN Gateway roles and assignments?

A. Primary Gateway cannot be used as Super gateway for Edge-to-Edge communication, even it all the Edges have a common Primary gateway
B. The SD-WAN Orchestrator assigns the Gateways to the Edge automatically when it comes up based Oil (lie location of the Edge Branch-to-branch will choose the right Gateway automatically
C. If the Primary Gateway goes down. Cloud internet traffic would failover to Secondary gateway automatically
D. The Primarily and Secondary Gateways share the load fur both internet traffic and VPN traffic

Correct Answer: A

Q# 5

Which port is used for communication between VMware SD-WAN Edge and Orchestrator if there are no tunnels established to the Gateways?

A. UDF 2426
B. TCP 80
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 500

Correct Answer: B

Q# 6

During a security-related discussion, an administrator determines that guest users not be able to access any resources on the corporate network.

Which VMware SD-WAN feature can achieve this goal in the most scalable and manageable way?

A. Segments
B. Business Policy
C. VLANs
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: A

Q# 7

A service provider needs to upgrade a gateway to a new software version. Which step in needed to complete the upgrade process?

A. Re-assign the Gateway to a new gateway Pool with the appropriate software version, and then run `sudo apt-get update\\’\\’ from the Gateway console.

B. Create a new disk partition to save the new software image to, modify the boot order via the Gateway BIOS to boot to the new partition, and then reboot the gateway.

C. From the Orchestrator, select the check-box next to the appropriate gateway, choose `\\’Assign Software image”, and then select the version for the upgrade.

D. Copy the new image to/var/lib/velocloud/software_update.tar, and then run the upgrade the script from the console.

Correct Answe: B

Q# 8

Which statement describes a characteristic of VMware SU-WAN Edge (VCL) clustering?

A. One VCE cluster can be formed with both virtual and hardware at the same lime
B. A VCE cluster requires one dedicated interface for HA sync
C. VCF clusters member sync flow tables between themselves.
D. VCE cluster members should have unique IP addresses on its WAN interfaces

Correct Answer: C

Q# 9

Company A has recently acquired Company B and needs to establish network connectivity. Company A has only Cisco for firewalls and VPN. Company B is using VMware SD-WAN. Which VMware SD-WAN Cloud VPN solution should an administrator configure to establish connectivity?

A. Branch to Non VMware SD-WAN Site.
B. Branch to SD-WAN Hub
C. Branch to Main Office VPN
D. Branch to Branch VPN

Correct Answer: A

Q# 10

A customer is looking to have Quality of Service (QoS), resource allocations, link/path steering, and error correction applied automatically based on applications. Which component of VMware SD-WAN helps the customer achieve this requirement?

A. Overlay Flow Control
B. High Availability Configuration
C. Business Policy Framework
D. Branch Site Topologies

Correct Answer: C

Q# 11

A service provider wants to offer a common service from its data center via VMware SD-WAN Partner Gateway to many customers with overlapping IP addresses. Which configuration must be implemented?

A. Define multiple segments tor each customer
B. Enable NAT hand off under hand off static routes configuration
C. Enable tag type QinQ under hand off interface configuration
D. Configure source policy-based NAT under business- policies configuration

Correct Answer: A

Q# 12

The VMware SD-WAN solution is comprised of Orchestrator, Gateway, and Edge. The architecture ensures separation and secure communication between the management, control, and data plane of the solution. The management plane consists of the VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator, and the control plane is comprised of the VMware SO-WAN Gateway/Controller. Which statement correctly describes this situation?

A. VMware SD-WAN Edges/Gateways establishes a Transport Layer Security (TLS) 1 2 encrypted session to the VMware SU-WAN Orchestrator

B. To make the entire solution to work property, TCP port 443 and HOP port 500 and UDP port 4500 are required to open in the firewall rule, if Edge is deployed behind a Firewall.

C. There is impact on data plane when the Edge loses connectivity to the management plane. The operator only loses the visibility of the Edge from Orchestrator and cannot make configuration changes on the Edge until the management plane connectivity is resumed.

D. Traffic between VMware SD-WAN Edges and from VMware SD-WAN Edges to VMware SD-WAN Gateways uses VMware SD-WAN Management Protocol (VCMP) tunneling over User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 2427. secured with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

Correct Answer: D

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5V0-31.20 ^Q&As

QUESTION 1

An administrator has been tasked with enabling north/south routing and the consumption of additional network services by deploying an NSX Edge Clusterinto a VMware Cloud Foundation deployment The following information is available:

1. There is only one Workload Domain.
2. The Workload domain contains two vSphere Clusters.
3. One of the vSphere Clusters is a Stretched Cluster
4. All hosts within the Workload Domain are identical.
5. The physical network uses both the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Bidirectional forwarding detection (BFD) protocol

Which statement is true when considering the deployment of an NSX Edge Cluster in this situation?

A. The NSX Edge cluster cannot be deployed onto the Stretched Cluster.
B. The Small form factor must be selected when deploying the NSX Edge cluster.
C. The Default profile type must be selected when deploying the NSX Edge cluster.
D. BDF must be selected when deploying the NSX Edge cluster.

QUESTION 2

Which prerequisite is correct for vRealize Automation when deploying vRealize Suite components using vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager?

A. Configure the vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager appliance to use the ESXi host as an NTP source.
B. Run an external vRealize Orchestrator workflow.
C. Deploy vRealize Operations Manager before vRealize Automation.
D. Deploy Workspace ONE Access before vRealize Automation

QUESTION 3

An administrator creates a vSphere with Tanzu namespace.
Which two limits can be defined in namespace? (Choose two )

A. Limits on CPU
B. Limits on memory
C. Limits on NIOC
D. Limits on the load balancer
E. Limits on storage IOPS

QUESTION 4

Where can NSX T be used in VMware Cloud Foundation?

A. in an external cluster
B. Only with consolidated architectures
C. In all architectures
D. Only with standard architectures

QUESTION 5

Which two statements regarding MTU size should be considered prior to execute a deployment of VMware Cloud Foundation? (Choose two.)

A. MTU of 1600 is a minimum for TFP VLANs
B. MTU of 1500 is a minimum for TEP VLANs
C. MTU of 9000is a minimum for all non-managementVLANs
D. MTU of 9000 is recommended for all non-management VLANs
E. MTU of 1500 is recommended for all non-management VLANs

QUESTION 6

Which sizing tool is available for calculating management domain storage requirements?

A. VMware Configuration Maximums
B. Virtualization Assessment Package
C. VMware Compatibility Guide
D. vSAN ReadyNode Sizer

QUESTION 7

An administrator has been tasked with adding capacity to an existing workload domain. The new hosts have hosts arrived but will need to be prepared before they can be added to VMware Which two steps must be performed to facilitate imaging with the VMware Imaging Appliance? (Choose
two )

A. Configure Legacy boot mode in BIOS.
B. Ensure that UEFl is enabled in BIOS.
C. Configure the hosts to boot from SAN.
D. Configure option 43 on DHCP servers
E. Configure the hosts to PXE boot

QUESTION 8

The administrator for an existing VMware Cloud Foundation instance has one management domain (sfom01) and one workload domain (sfo-w01). The workload domain consists of two vSphere clusters (sfow01-ci01 and sfo-w01-cl02) using vSAN as principle storage.

The workload domain also includes an NSX-T Edge Cluster deployed in the default cluster(sfo-w01-c01) of the workload domain. The first cluster (sfo-w01-c01) rack1, and the second cluster (sfo-w01-c01) resides in rack 1.

A new project is underway, and the capacity of the second cluster (sfo-w0I cl02) of the workload domain that will be consumed by realizing automation needs to be expanded Rack 1 is at capacity. Eight additional hosts have been placed in rack 2 and cabled within the new rack. The network architecture is an L3 spine-leaf architecture.

Which cluster expansion type should be selected when expanding the second cluster using the SDDC Manager UI?

A. L2 uniform
B. L2 non-uniform
C. L2 non-uniform and L3
D. L3 non-uniform and L2

QUESTION 9

What is the benefit of placing vRealize Suite I lifecycle Manager on the cross-region Application Virtual Network?

A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager cannot be placed on the cross-region network as it is reserved for Workload VMs only.
B. SDDC Manager uses the cross-region network to deploy vRealize Log Insight and vRealize Automation Proxy Servers, and this is not configurable.
C. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager can be deployed in cluster mode
D. After recovery, an administrator can continue using the same IP address, DNS record, and routing configuration

QUESTION 10

An administrator wants to configure a stretched cluster and needs to configure vMotion, Which type of network connection is supported for vMotion?

A. The vSphere vMotion network must be routed between sites.
B. The vSphere vMotion network must be stretched via VMware MCX
C. The vSpherevMotionnetwork must be routed via VPN.
D. The vSphere vMotion network must be routed via VMware HCX.

QUESTION 11

An administrator has deleted an NSX manager application from the management domain by accident and now needs to restore the NSX Manager application as soon as possible.
Which three steps are necessary to accomplish this goal? (Choose three)

A. Refresh the SSH Keys that are stored in the SDDC Manager inventory
B. Deploy a new NSX Manager appliance.
C. Restore a known good configuration.
D. Download and decrypt the encrypted backup file from the SF IP server
E. Create a JSON file containing the NSX Manager configuration, and insert an API access token
F. Configure the new NSX Manager appliance with SFTP server settings.

QUESTION 12

Which step should be followed to restore SDDC Manager using the OVF tool?

A. Retrieve the DNS name or IP address of a host m the management Domain
B. Use the host s DNS name in the host password_vault-JSON, and this will display the root password
C. Install the OVF Tool on a system in the VI Workload domain.
D. Move the SDDC Manager VM into the VI Workload Resource Pool.

Answers will be announced at the end of the question.

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QUESTION 1

Which file can be used to validate reply authentication was enabled for Carbon Black Cloud?

A. C:\Program Files\Confer\repcii.ini
B. C:\Program Files\Confer\config.ini
C. C:\Program Files\Confer\cfg.ini
D. C:\Program Files\Confer\cli.ini

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

An administrator has added a new ESXi host to a vCenter Server Cluster with NSX-T Data Center already working. The
administrator installed NSX-T Data Center components in the new ESXi.

When the administrator deploys a new VM in the host, connectivity tests good with ping, but SSH session traffic is erratic. The VDS and NSX-T Data Center configuration is the same as each ESXI in the Cluster, but only VMs in the new ESXI is having problems.

What should the administrator do to address the problem?

A. Verify VLAN connection in each physical uplink.
B. Verify MTU configuration in each physical uplink.
C. Change VDS MTU to 1500 in each physical uplink.
D. Change VDS MTU to 2000 in each physical uplink.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

In an NSX-T Data Center deployment, when assigning user rights, what right would an administrator assign to a user to
administer security compliance policies?

A. Auditor
B. Security Engineer
C. NSX Administrator
D. Security Administrator

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A company has deployed a new application. Users are complaining they cannot connect. The
the administrator suspects there is an issue with the Distributed Firewall (DFW).

What three steps can be taken to troubleshoot the DFW? (Choose three.)

A. The administrator should confirm that SLOT 2, which is used by the DFW, is configured under the vNICs of the VMs.
B. The administrator should configure vRealize Log Insight using the Insight agent as the type and review the DFW rule
logs in vRealize Log Insight.
C. The administrator should confirm if the DFW rule is set to log, and then look on the hypervisor where the VMs reside
and look at logs at /var/log/dfwpktlogs.log.
D. The administrator should verify firewall rules exist to permit traffic and verify the hit counters are increasing.
E. The administrator should configure vRealize Log Insight using Syslog as the type and review the DFW rule logs in
vRealize Log Insight.

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5

An administrator is trying to secure Workspace ONE components with firewall rules.
What port and protocol does the administrator need to allow for Secure LDAP to Active Directory?

A. 389/TCP
B. 3389/TCP
C. 636/TCP
D. 1433/TCP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

An administrator is updating NSX Distributed Firewall rules. The administrator did the Publish a few
minutes ago and is now receiving calls about lost connections. The administrator has decided to roll-back
the configuration.

Where can the administrator see past saved configurations to perform the rollback?

A. Go to System > Distributed Firewall > Configurations > View
B. Go to Security > Distributed Firewall > ACTIONS > Configurations – View
C. Go to System > Distributed Firewall > Rolling back > View
D. Go to Inventory > Distributed Firewall > ACTIONS > Configurations – View

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Considering the NSX Manager Node, what is VMware\\’s recommended size for typical production deployment?

A. small appliance for deployments with up to 64 hosts
B. medium appliance for deployments with up to 64 hosts
C. medium appliance for deployments with up to 128 hosts
D. small appliance for deployments with up to 32 hosts

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

In what order are NSX-T Distributed Firewall configurable rules categories processed?

A. Emergency, Ethernet, Environment, Infrastructure, Application
B. Ethernet, Environment, Infrastructure, Application, Emergency
C. Ethernet, Emergency, Infrastructure, Environment, Application
D. Emergency, Ethernet, Infrastructure, Environment, Application

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

What command does an administrator use on an ESXi Transport Node to check connectivity with the management
plane?

A. esxcli network IP connection list 1234
B. esxcli firewall IP connection list | grep 1234
C. esxcli ip connection 1234
D. esxcli network IP connection list | grep 1234

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

Which three statements are correct for Active Directory integration with Identity Firewalls (IDFW) in an NSX-T Data
Center deployment? (Choose three.)

A. The IDFW can be used on both physical and virtual servers as long as the supported operating system is installed.
B. The Thin Agent must be enabled in VMWare tools as it is not enabled by default.
C. The IDFW can be used for Virtual Desktops (VDI) or Remote desktop sessions (RDSH support).
D. Identity-based groups can be used as the source or destination in DFW rules.
E. User identity information is provided by the NSX Guest Introspection Thin Agent.

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 11

Which is the name of the default policy that is applied to all applications in Workspace ONE Access?

A. primary_policy
B. default_policy
C. default_access_policy_set
D. default_application_policy

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

What are two valid time limit selections when creating a Last Seen compliance policy in Workspace ONE UEM?
(Choose two.)

A. Hours
B. Minutes
C. Days
D. Weeks
E. Months

Correct Answer: BC

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