[2018 Certification Dumps] Up To Date Microsoft 70-331 Dumps SharePoint Exam PDF Practice Test with Latest Version PDF&VCE on Youtube

Which dump is useful for Microsoft 70-331 dumps? The Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 (70-331 SharePoint) exam is a 226 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSE certification. Up to date Microsoft 70-331 dumps SharePoint exam pdf practice test with latest version pdf&vce on Youtube. “Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-331 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-331 exam. With efforts for years, the passing rate of Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-331.html dumps training online has reached as high as 100%.

[2018 Microsoft Certification 70-331 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWX2NfdW10MUk1MHM

[2018 Microsoft Certification 70-346 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUW5ITWJYd1lUZHc

70-331 dumps

★Share Some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 70-331 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.  You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013. You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio Team System project file. Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated content databases for the storage of personal site collections. You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites. What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm. You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site collection. What permission level should you configure?
A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index. Users report that search results are too broad. You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results. Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the application server. You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message attachments in libraries. You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
70-331 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 18
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 19
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.

D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 21
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255. 255. 255. 0. Now create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA. Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
70-331 exam  Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 23
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 25
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP

D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 26
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
70-331 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C

70-331 dumps

Pass4itsure 70-331 dumps training online materials is not only the foundation for you to success, but also can help you play a more effective role in the IT industry. “Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013”, also known as 70-331 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-331 dumps exam questions answers are updated (226 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 70-331 dumps is MCP, MCSE. If you failed 70-331 training online with our https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-331.html dumps training online, we will give a full refund unconditionally.

Read More Youtube:  https://youtu.be/XqIxMLrt5yg

[2018 Certification Dumps] 100% Success Rate Microsoft MCSE 70-246 Dumps System Center 2012 Exam Questions Answers Video Training For Download

Do you want to take advantage of the actual 70-246 dumps test and save time and money while developing your skills to pass your Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012 exam? The Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012 (70-246 System Center 2012) exam is a 153 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSE certification. 100% success rate Microsoft MCSE 70-246 dumps System Center 2012 exam questions answers video training for download. “Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-246 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-246 exam. “Pass4itsure has given a detailed Microsoft System Center 2012 and Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-246.html dumps training material and you will be able to find all the Microsoft Private Cloud 70-246 new questions that will be asked from you in the final 70-246 exam.

[2018 Microsoft Certification 70-346 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUW5ITWJYd1lUZHc

[2018 Microsoft Certification  70-331 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWX2NfdW10MUk1MHM

70-246 dumps

★Share Some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 70-246 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

Question: 5
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains multiple servers that have Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. A DPM server named Server1 is running out of hard disk space. You add additional physical hard disks to Server1. You verify that the additional disks are available from the local Disk Management console. You need to ensure that the additional disk space can be used to store DPM backups. What should you do?
A. From the DPM Administrator console, click Refresh.
B. From the DPM Administrator console, click Disk Allocation.
C. From the DPM Administrator console, click Add.
D. From the DPM Administrator console, click Rescan.
70-246 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
To add disks to the storage pool In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar, click Management, and then click the Disks tab. In the Actions pane, click Add. The Add Disks to Storage Pool dialog box appears. The Available disks section lists the disks that you can add to the storage pool. Select one or more disks, click Add, and then click OK. Adding Disks to the Storage Pool

Question: 6
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy Data Protection Manager (DPM) to the private cloud. You configured DPM to back up the following information on 20 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2:
Data volumes
System state data
Volume mount points
You discover that the system state backup fails on all of the servers. You can verify that all other data is backed up successfully.
You need to ensure that the system state backup completes successfully on all of the servers. What should you do?
A. Install Windows Server Backup on each server.
B. Connect each server to a dedicated LUN.
C. Reinstall the DPM agent on each server.

D. Add each server to a dedicated protection group.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A system state backup uses the Windows Server Backup feature to take a snapshot of the system state and saves it locally to the server before moving it to the DPM server storage pool. Troubleshooting Data Protection Manager System State and Bare Metal Backup

Question: 7
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. An administrator installs a new tape drive on a server that has Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. You discover that the tape drive is unavailable from the DPM Administrator console. You verify that the tape drive is installed correctly on the DPM server. You need to ensure that the tape drive is available from the DPM Administrator console. What should you do from the DPM Administrator console?
A. From the Agents view, click Install.
B. From the Disks tab, click Add.
C. From the Protection view, click Tape.
D. From the Libraries view, click Rescan.
70-246 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
To configure tape libraries In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar click Management, and then click the Libraries tab. In the Actions pane, click Rescan. The Rescan operation might take several minutes to complete. DPM will add any library jobs to the queue that began during the Rescan operation. If a library job is already in progress when the Rescan operation begins, the Rescan operation will fail. Configuring Tape Libraries

Question: 8
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You install the servers shown in the following table.
70-246 dumps

The company’s compliance department identifies the following tasks that must be performed:
Back up individual files from VM1.
Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
The compliance department administrators recommend installing the DPM agent on Server1, and then performing a full backup. You need to identify which task is NOT met by the recommended solution. Which task should you identify?
A. Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
B. Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
C. Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
D. Back up individual files from VM1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the event of disaster recovery, System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM) 2010 allows you to recover virtual machines as files to a network folder. You can then copy those files to an alternate Hyper-V host server. However, to start a virtual machine on an alternate Hyper-V host server, you have to manually create and configure the virtual machine using the recovered files. DPM 2010 supports alternate location recovery (ALR), which allows you to recover a Hyper-V virtual machine to an alternate stand-alone Hyper-V host or to a cluster. The recovered virtual machine is already registered and configured on an alternate Hyper-V host server. In a virtualized environment the issue is whether to backup from inside the guest or from the host. The latter provides “bare metal restore” of an entire VM where something’s gone catastrophically wrong with a VM (or the host) but in general it doesn’t provide granular restore of files / folders. DPM 2010 added Item Level Restore (ILR), allowing you to restore individual files or folders within a VM even though it had only been backed up from the host. But this capability was only available when DPM 2010 ran on physical hardware, if the DPM server itself was in a VM this capability was not available. DPM 2012 fixes this glitch and can now do ILR even when the DPM server is a VM

Question: 9
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains two management servers and 10 Hyper-V hosts. You configure VMM to use an update server and to synchronize the updates by using a windows Server Update Services (WSUS)  server named WSUS1. You attempt to verify compliance with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-246 dumps

You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts. What should you modify?
A. the update classifications of the update server
B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline
C. the default configuration provider
D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

70-246 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
In the VMM console, open the Fabric workspace. On the Home tab, in the Add group, click Add Resources, and then click Update Server. The Add Windows Server Update Services Server dialog box
opens. In Computer name, enter the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the WSUS server (for example, VMMServer01.contoso.com). Specify which TCP/IP port that the WSUS website listens on for connections (for example, port 8530). Enter credentials for connecting to the WSUS server. The account must have administrator rights on the WSUS server. If necessary, select the Use Secure Socket Layer (SSL) to communicate with the WSUS server and clients check box. Click Add. The WSUS server will be added to VMM, followed by initial synchronization of the updates catalog. Depending on how many update classifications and products you chose when you installed the WSUS server, this operation can take a long time, depending on such factors as network traffic and
  the load on the WSUS server. To find out the status of the operation, monitor the status of the Add Update Server and Synchronize Update Server jobs in the Jobs window or in the Jobs workspace. Note After you enable update management in VMM, you should manage the WSUS server only through VMM, unless you are using a WSUS server in a Configuration Manager environment. To verify that the WSUS server was added to VMM successfully: In the Fabric workspace, on the Fabric pane, expand Servers, and click Update Server. The results pane should display the WSUS server. In the Library workspace, on the Library pane, expand Update Catalog and Baselines, and then click Update Catalog. The results pane should display the updates that were downloaded during WSUS synchronization.
Question: 10
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains seven servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-246 dumps

You need to recommend a solution to apply Windows updates to the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the following requirements: Approve Windows updates from the VMM Administrator Console. Store information about Windows update installations in Configuration Manager Reports. What should you do first?
A. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as a host server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
B. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Servers as an update server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
C. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
D. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A configuration manager agent is required to store information about Windows update installation in the Configuration Manager reports.

Step 1: Install and Configure a Software Update Point  The software update point is required on the central administration site and primary sites to enable software updates compliance assessment and to deploy software updates to clients. The software update point is optional on secondary sites. The software update point site system role must be created on a server that has WSUS installed. The software update point interacts with the WSUS services to configure software update settings and request synchronization of software updates metadata. When you have a Configuration Manager hierarchy, install and configure the software update point on the central administration site first, then on child primary sites, and then optionally on secondary sites. When you have a stand-alone primary site (no central administration site), install and configure the software update point on the primary site first, and then optionally on secondary
sites. Some settings are only available when you configure the software update point on a central administration site, or stand-alone primary site, and there are different options that you must
consider depending on where the software update point is installed.

Question: 11
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. You plan to create a distributed application named Appl. You need to ensure that a folder for App1 is available from the Monitoring workspace in the Operations Manager console. What should you do?
A. Run the Protect-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
B. Save App1 in the Default Management Pack.
C. Run the Import-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
D. Save App1 as a new management pack.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Default Management Pack file contains common elements such as views at the top level of the Monitoring workspace. This is an unsealed management pack file so that you can create views and folders at this level. It should not be used for any other purpose. For creating elements such as monitors and rules, create a new management pack file. Selecting a Management Pack File
The Default management pack that ships with OpsMgr 2007 is used to store very specific information for the management group. It is a widely known best practice to NOT write any custom rules, monitors, groups, views, or overrides to this MP. Even customers who know this – and try to enforce this across their organizations…. will still inadvertently get junk in their default MP…. they will save things here by accident, or by granting access to advanced operators who aren’t educated on this topic. The main problem with doing so…. is that we will build a dependency for this MP on any MP it references…. and therefore we wont ever be able to delete those management packs, until we clean this Default MP up, and start enforcing best practices.

70-246 dumps

Looking to find the best preparation kit for Microsoft exam 70-246 dumps? “Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012”, also known as 70-246 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-246 dumps exam questions answers are updated (153 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 70-246 dumps is MCP, MCSE. They provide you 100% passing guarantee for https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-246.html dumps exam with the help of this kit.

Read More Youtube:  https://youtu.be/FUvPjVhvuog

[2017 Certification Dumps] First-hand Cisco 300-165 Dumps DCII Practice Test Are Based On The Real Exam Video Training

Are you going to attempt Cisco 300-165 dumps exam to be Cisco certified specialist?  The Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (300-165 DCII) exam is a 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Data Center certification. First-hand Cisco 300-165 dumps DCII practice test are based on the real exam video training. “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-165 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-165 exam. A team of Pass4itsure customer support is available 24/7 to serve you. Money back guarantee for https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-165.html dumps success so make MacAfee Secure payment to get the instant access.

[2017 Cisco Certification 300-165 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeTBEWVNsUmFmOEU

[2017 Cisco Certification 300-170 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWZzkydEcwa19TQWM

300-165 dumps

★Share Some Cisco Specialist Pass4itsure 300-165 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

QUESTION 2
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy.
A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase
B. Test training needs for the project resources
C. The test design techniques to be used
D. Test performance indicators
E. The test schedule
300-165 exam Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
B. Targets certain types of faults
C. Will guide experienced testers to find defects
D. Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
E. More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
F. Will make non-systematic testing redundant
G. Will reduce the need for early reviews
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4
What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits
A. 16
B. 2
C. 1
D. 63
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk?
A. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
C. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
D. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v. Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence?
A. i, ii, iv, vi
B. ii, i, v, vi
C. ii, v, i, iii
D. i, iv, v, vi
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing?
A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively?
A. By providing training in the payroll domain
B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
D. By providing training on reviewing requirements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why?
A. A person with the ability to complete tasks
B. A quality assurance officer
C. A person with in-depth technical skills
D. A person who brings new ideas to the team
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit
A. They are a cheap resource
B. They have good testing skills
C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team?
A. Provide more time for testing in the schedule
B. Allow people to take some time off
C. Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase
D. Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits
A. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
C. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
D. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations?
A. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
B. Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
C. Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
D. Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit
A. Test environment more complex
B. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
C. Clear channels of communications
D. Possibly different cultures
E. Testing of non-functional requirements
F. Audit trail from requirements to test cases
G. Applying test automation
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project.
A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations
B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system
C. Activities to deploy the system in the user environment
D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
E. Development activities for unit and integration testing
F. Reviews on requirements documentation
G. Defining test environment requirements for system testing
300-165 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate?
A. Test planning
B. Test execution
C. Test management
D. Test design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons.
A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
E. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
F. It builds on large set of historical data
G. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
300-165 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 19
Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project?
A. Quality of the specification

B. Availability of end-users
C. The costs of hardware and tools
D. Unknown input quality due to third party development
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi?
A. 5 maturity levels
B. Focussed on higher level testing
C. 20 key areas
D. Highly related to CMMI
E. Continuous model
F. Staged model
G. Focussed on component and integration testing
H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 21
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
A. ISO 9126
B. IEEE 829
C. BS 7925/2
D. DO-178B
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi?
A. If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
B. If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.
C. TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.
D. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations?
A. Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
B. Defined according to the maturity model used

C. Most visible to stakeholders
D. Low costs actions first
Correct Answer: C

300-165 dumps

Pass the Cisco 300-165 dumps exam with Pass4itsure.com practice test and real exam questions & answers. “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure”, also known as 300-165 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. free trial version is ready for download as well. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-165 dumps exam questions answers are updated (187 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-165 dumps is CCNP Data Center.  Get instant access https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-165.html dumps practice test software is the perfect source of perfect preparation to pass in the first attempt without wasting the money and time.

Read More Youtube:  https://youtu.be/_pRVAtLd2XY

 

[2017 Certification Dumps] Most Popular Microsoft 070-347 Dumps Exam Enabling Office 365 Services Youtube Training Free Dowload

Anyone done the Microsoft 070-347 dumps? The Enabling Office 365 Services (070-347 Office 365) exam is a 219 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA certification. Most popular Microsoft 070-347 dumps exam Enabling Office 365 Services Youtube training free dowload. “Enabling Office 365 Services” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-347 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 070-347 exam.

Pass4itsure Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-347.html dumps exam and answers is the practice test software. The information we have could give you the opportunity to practice issues, and ultimately achieve your goal that through Microsoft 070-346 dumps.

[2017 Microsoft Certification 070-347 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWdkVZWTJKYnNWUzA

[2017 Cisco Certification 300-209 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTlN6bWE4ckRMNmc
070-347 dumps
★Share Some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 070-347 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★
QUESTION 17 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
070-347 dumps

You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time. What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013

When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer. What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently migrated to Office 365 and is planning to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers in the main office and all branch offices. Due to limited bandwidth at the branch offices, the company decides to have users install Office 365 ProPlus from a network share by using the Click-to-Run deployment method. You need to install Office 365 ProPlus on a client computer. How should you complete the relevant command? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user has a desktop computer and has been assigned an E3 license. The user plans to travel to multiple branch offices and will use a shared desktop computer at each branch office. The user will not have administrative privileges on the branch office computers. You
need to ensure that the user has access to all features of Microsoft Word 2013 and Excel 2013 at the branch offices. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

070-347 dumps
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees have archive mailboxes that have the default retention policy applied. A new company policy requires some existing mailboxes to have a retention policy that deletes only email messages in the Deleted Items folder after 90 days. Deleted messages must be recoverable. None of the existing retention tags meet the new requirement. You create an empty retention policy named Policy-90. You need to configure the retention policy and apply it to the mailboxes. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 23 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. The company is currently migrating from a hosted POP3 email solution to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company maintains extensive lists of external contacts in several Microsoft Excel workbooks. You plan to import all the external contact information from the workbooks into the Exchange Online Global Address List (GAL).The external contacts must not be able to sign in to your company’s Windows Azure Active Directory service. You consolidate all the external contact information into a file named External Contacts. You need to import the file into the GAL. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 24 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for customers that complete the ‘contact me’ field on his website to track return on investment for the marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the ‘metric goal’ field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose “dollars” in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the ‘goal value’ field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he has created for the ‘contact me’ form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the “goal 
completion” field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you’re interested in seeing your most popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the quality score?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The lower a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
C. It is used to measure performance of schedule
D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
A. Information about the propriety of cutoff
B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?
A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes.
C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project’s planning orexecution (“impact”).
D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
A. Identification of assets
B. Identification of threats
C. Identification of threat sources
D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
A. Risk indicator matrix
B. Impact matrix
C. Risk scenario matrix
D. Probability matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
B. Alignment with risk-culture
C. Risk-aware decisions
D. The capacity of the enterprise’s objective to absorb loss.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
A. Risk planning
B. Risk monitoring and controlling
C. Risk identification
D. Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B

070-347 dumps

The Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-346 dumps is 100% verified and tested. “Enabling Office 365 Services”, also known as 070-347 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. The material including practice questions and answers. Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-347 dumps exam questions answers are updated (219 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 070-347 dumps is MCP, MCSA. In Pass4itsure, you will find the best https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-347.html dumps exam preparation material.

070-347 Dumps Youtube: https://youtu.be/yId9s8ETfO8

[2017 Certification Dumps] Latest Cisco 642-998 Dumps DCUCD Study Guide Exam Practice Questions Free Download Youtube Training Online

Is Java SE8 OCA exam really hard? The Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (642-998 DCUCD) exam is a 182Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Cisco certification. Latest Cisco 642-998 dumps DCUCD study guide exam practice questions free download Youtube training online. “Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 642-998 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 642-998 exam.

Pass4itsure offers CCNP Data Center Certification 642-998 DCUCD practice test and interactive PDF. Interactive practice test that can be downloaded and installed on any Windows Operating System. Interactive practice test operates as a realistic simulation of the real Cisco Certified Network Professional Data Center https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-998.html dumps V5 certification exam.

[2017 Cisco Certification 642-998 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWX3NiOF92ell5SjA

[2017 Cisco Certification 210-451 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeFJLMDBQaDMyM1E
642-998 dumps
★Share Some Cisco Specialist Pass4itsure 642-998 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★
QUESTION 6
In a default OS X configuration, you want to change the way that Finder handles ZIP archives. Where can you make that change?
A. System Preferences
B. Disk Utility Preferences
C. Archive Utility Preferences
D. Finder Preferences
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A user named Robert has an existing user account. The user name associated with his account is Robert. Robert wants to use Bob as his user name when accessing some of the services provided by a Mac running OS X Server. How can you accommodate his request?
A. In Workgroup Manager, click Settings and add a rule to the Services list that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
B. In Workgroup Manager, create a new user with the user name Bob. Select the Robert account, and add the new Bob account to the list in the Aliases pane.
C. In Server app, go to the Advanced Options pane for Robert’s account, and add Bob as an alias.
D. In Server app, add a rule to the Services list in the Settings pane that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
On an OS X Mountain Lion computer with OS X Server installed, you have created a share point named “Finance Dept” that contains a folder named “Reports.” The permissions for both are shown below. Chris is not a member of the Finance group, but you would like her to have access to the Finance Dept share point. In Server app, you select the server, click the Storage tab, select the Finance Dept folder, and modify its permissions a shown below.
After changing the permissions on the share point, what access will Chris have to the reports Folder in the share point?
A. None
B. B.Read & Write
C. Write-only
D. Read-only

642-998 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which utility is on the OS X Recovery partition?
A. Firmware Password Utility
B. Boot Camp Assistant
C. Activity Monitor
D. Console
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the function of Gatekeeper?
A. To prevent users from opening untrusted applications.
B. To prevent users from downloading untrusted applications.
C. To prevent users from installing untrusted applications.
D. To prevent users from installing viruses and trojan horses.
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
642-998 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines

C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
642-998 dumps 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19. What unique code is used to distinguish each Symbian based application installed on a device?
A.UID
B.IMEI
C.SymbianID
D.SID
E.SSID
F.DeviceID
Answer: A
QUESTION 20. What does GPRS stand for in the mobile industry?
A.General Packet Radio Services
B.General Packet Radar Systems
C.General Packet Radio Systems
D.General Packet Radar Services
E.Global Positioning Radio Services
F.Global Positioning Radio Systems
642-998 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which process will let you start up a Mac in target disk mode?
A. Open the Startup Disk preferences, click Target Disk Mode, and then click Restart.
B. Hold down the Option key on the keyboard as the Mac starts up, until a dialog appears, then select Target Disk Mode from the dialog.
C. Hold down the S key on the keyboard while the Mac starts up, then enter the command reboot -target.
D. Start up from the OS X Recovery partition, choose Target Disk Mode from the Startup Disk menu, and restart the Mac.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Using Server app, you are configuring email alerts to be sent to an OS X Server system administrator. Which TWO of these server events can you set to trigger an alert? (Select 2)
A. A user has exceeded his or her assigned disk quota for file sharing.
B. New software updates are available for the server.
C. An unsuccessful attempt was made to log in with the root account.
D. A certificate has expired or is about to expire.
E. The number of files on the server has exceeded a specified number.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which tool can you use to verify that a device profile is installed on an OS X Mountain Lion computer?
A. Ticket Viewer
B. The klist command in Terminal
C. Profiles pane in System Preferences
D. Users & Groups pane in System Preferences
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
How can you display the contents of a hidden folder on a mounted volume in Finder?
A. From the Finder menu, choose Preferences, and select “Show hidden items.”
B. Select the volume icon and choose “Show hidden items” from the Action menu.
C. From the View menu, choose “Show hidden items.”
D. From the Go menu, choose “Go to Folder,” enter the path to the hidden folder, and click Go.
642-998 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which statement about Gatekeeper is TRUE?
A. Gatekeeper can ONLY be disabled using a configuration profile.
B. Standard users can bypass Gatekeeper.
C. Only the root user can disable Gatekeeper.
D. Only administrator users can bypass Gatekeeper.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Review the screenshot and answer the question below. You downloaded an app using Safari. When you try to open the app, you see the message shown above. What is a possible explanation?
A. The app was signed using a certificate from an unknown authority.
B. The certificate needed to decrypt this app cannot be found in the keychain.
C. Gatekeeper has recognized that the app was altered after it was signed.
D. The sandbox into which the app was downloaded by the quarantine system has become corrupted.
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which procedure will permit only the Marketing group to access a website hosted on OS X Server?
A. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, add a realm, and enable Allowed Access for the Marketing group.
B. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read-only for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.
C. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read/Write for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.

D. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, and select the Marketing group from the Who Can Access menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install and run OS X Server on an OS X Mountain Lion
computer?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
642-998 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
You configured the Time Machine service on a computer with OS X Server to store backup data on the Data volume. Later you configure the service to store the backup data on a larger volume named Backup Data. How is the backup data handled after the switch to the new backup volume?
A. The next time users back up, new and changed files are backed up to the new volume, along with aliases pointing to the data on the old volume.
B. The next time users back up, all their files are backed up to the new volume.
C. Users are presented with a dialog asking which volume they want to use to store their backup data.
D. OS X Server copies the existing backup data from the old volume to the new volume.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
What are TWO ways administrators can remove a device group profile from an OS X Mountain Lion computer? (Select 2)
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group, click Preferences and click the Delete (-) button.
B. In the Profiles pane in System Preferences, select the profile, and click the Remove (-) button.
C. In Profile Manager, click Device Groups, select the appropriate device group, click Members, and click the Delete (x) button to the right of the member computer.
D. In Server app, select the group, click the Edit (pencil) button in the Group pane, and deselect Manage.
E. In the Profiles tab in Device Manager, select the OS X Mountain Lion computer, select Profiles, select the group, and click the Delete (-) button.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: BE

We provide the Cisco 642-998 dumps exam preparation materials in two different methods, practice test software and pdf Format. The PDF format ensures portability across a number of devices to allow for preparation on the go. For a more difficult and more complete Cisco Certified Network Professional Data Center 642-998 exam preparation practice test software simulates the environment of the real https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-998.html dumps exam. With multiple modes of testing and self-assessment device our 642-998 practice exam is the best in the industry.

Cisco 642-998 Dumps Youtube: https://youtu.be/NmPr_U5Ohrk

[2017 Certification Dumps] Latest Microsoft 70-357 Dumps PDF MCSD Certification Video Training Download With Accurate Answers

Are you still upset about how to pass Microsoft certification 70-357 dumps actual test? The Developing Mobile Apps (70-357 Visual Studio) exam is a 52 Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA certification.”Developing Mobile Apps” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-357 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-357 exam. We are ready to provide all the candidates with the most comprehensive Developing Mobile Apps 70-357 dumps for 70-357. Latest Microsoft 70-357 dumps pdf MCSD certification video training download with accurate answers. You can visit Pass4itsure to get free demo for https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-357.html dumps, try before you buy.

[2017 Microsoft Certification 70-357 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWQjlza2NZcVR2Z0U

[2017 Microsoft Certification 70-398 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTVaMEVIZlpiSDA

70-357 dumps

★Share Some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 70-357 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

QUESTION 114
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to __________.
A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates
B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
D. Al1 of the above
70-357 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments.
QUESTION 115
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.
A. Progressive elaboration
B. Stake holder’s review
C. p’an project life cycle
D. Fast backing
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is called Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.
QUESTION 116
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 117
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Develop the project charter

C. Develop the project statement of work
D. Develop project closing document
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur during project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is the best option.
QUESTION 118
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have you left out?
A. Control Schedule
B. Create WBS
C. Sequence Activities
D. Operations
70-357 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources.
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A. Earn Value Analysis
B. Scope Baseline
C. P’sk Register
D. Human Resource Plan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versus planned
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?
A. Project Charter
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Pis’* Management Plan
D. Activity Cost Estimates
70-357 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks.

QUESTION 121
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 122
If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical information
B. WBS
C. Business plans
D. RBS
70-357 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the WBS has not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans are not a likely input to the initiation process
QUESTION 123
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?
A. Monitor implementation of approved changes
B. Validate deliverables
C. Staff, train, and manage the project team
D. Manage cisks and implement risk responses
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented but monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work.
QUESTION 124
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have ________.
A. Offer and consideration

B. Start date and acceptance of start date
C. Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
D. Signatures of all stakeholders
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and notary public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the start date is not needed for all contracts.
QUESTION 125
If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less money; so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)

 

70-357 dumps

We guarantee that you can pass this difficult  Microsoft 70-357 dumps examination at your first attempt, or you can get all your money back. Pass4itsure plays the leading role of the provider of all kinds of IT certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-357.html exam material providing. We are so confident because we have the most professional IT experts team and we do everything with our heart for the candidates.

Microsoft 70-357 Dumps Youtube: https://youtu.be/fhf3CBOXpKs

 

[2017 Certification Dumps] Prepare For High Pass Rate Microsoft 70-483 Dumps PDF Microsoft Specialist/Visual Studio/MCSD/MCP Certification Exam in First Attempt

Where do I get trusted Microsoft exam for 70-483 dumps? The Programming in C# (70-483 Visual Studio) exam is a 90-minute 60 Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP certification.”Programming in C#” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-483 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-483 exam. Prepare for high pass rate Microsoft 70-483 dumps pdf Microsoft Specialist/Visual Studio/MCSD/MCP certification exam in first attempt.

The certification will tell you and confirms the capabilities of individuals in different technological advancement and control techniques. We are professionals in providing the best https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-483.html dumps certification exam planning components to the customers across the entire globe.

[2017 Microsoft Certification 70-357 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWQjlza2NZcVR2Z0U

[2017 Microsoft Certification 62-193 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWbXZBLXZSeWdrTEE

70-483 dumps

★Share Some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 70-483 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

QUESTION 1
You are developing an application that includes a class named Order. The application will store a collection of Order objects.The collection must meet the following requirements: Use strongly typed members. Process Order objects in first-in-first-out order.
Store values for each Order object. Use zero-based indices. You need to use a collection type that meets the requirements. Which collection type should you use?
A. Queue<T>
B. SortedList
C. LinkedList<T>
D. HashTable
E. Array<T>
70-483 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queues are useful for storing messages in the order they were received for sequential processing. Objects stored in a Queue<T> are inserted at one end and removed from the other.
QUESTION 2
You are developing an application. The application calls a method that returns an array of integers named employeeIds. You define an integer variable named employeeIdToRemove and assign a value to it. You declare an array named filteredEmployeeIds.
You have the following requirements:
Remove duplicate integers from the employeeIds array. Sort the array in order from the highest value to the lowest value.
Remove the integer value stored in the employeeId ToRemove variable from the employeeIds array. You need to create a LINQ query to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you use?

70-483 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are developing an application that includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps

The GetAnimals() method must meet the following requirements:
Connect to a Microsoft SQL Server database. Create Animal objects and populate them with data from the database. Return a sequence of populated Animal objects. You need to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Insert the following code segment at line 16: while(sqlDataReader.NextResult())
B. Insert the following code segment at line 13:
sqlConnection.Open();
C. Insert the following code segment at line 13:
sqlConnection.BeginTransaction();
D. Insert the following code segment at line 16:
while(sqlDataReader.Read())
E. Insert the following code segment at line 16:
while(sqlDataReader.GetValues())
70-483 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SqlConnection.Open – Opens a database connection with the property settings specified by the ConnectionString. SqlDataReader.Read – Advances the SqlDataReader to the next record.
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing a custom collection named LoanCollection for a class named Loan class. You need to ensure that you can process each Loan object in the LoanCollection collection by using a foreach loop. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps

70-483 dumps

QUESTION 5
You are developing an application that uses the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework to retrieve order information from a Microsoft SQL Server database. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps

The application must meet the following requirements:
Return only orders that have an OrderDate value other than null.
Return only orders that were placed in the year specified in the OrderDate property or in a later year. You need to ensure that the application meets the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 08?
A. Where order.OrderDate.Value != null && order.OrderDate.Value.Year > = year
B. Where order.OrderDate.Value = = null && order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year
C. Where order.OrderDate.HasValue && order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year
D. Where order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year

70-483 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*For the requirement to use an OrderDate value other than null use:
OrderDate.Value != null
*For the requirement to use an OrderDate value for this year or a later year use:
OrderDate.Value>= year
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes an array of decimal values named loanAmounts. You are developing a LINQ query to return the values from the array. The query must return decimal values that are evenly divisible by two. The values must be sorted from the lowest value to the highest value. You need to ensure that the query correctly returns the decimal values. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: In a query expression, the orderby clause causes the returned sequence or subsequence (group) to be sorted in either ascending or descending order.
Examples:
// Query for ascending sort.
IEnumerable<string> sortAscendingQuery =
from fruit in fruits
orderby fruit //”ascending” is default
select fruit;
// Query for descending sort.
IEnumerable<string> sortDescendingQuery =
from w in fruits
orderby w descending
select w;
QUESTION 7
You are developing an application. The application includes a method named ReadFile that reads data from a file. The ReadFile() method must meet the following requirements:
It must not make changes to the data file.
It must allow other processes to access the data file.
It must not throw an exception if the application attempts to open a data file that does not exist. You need to implement the ReadFile() method. Which code segment should you use?
A. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite);
B. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite);
C. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Write);
D. var fs = File.ReadAllLines(Filename);
E. var fs = File.ReadAllBytes(Filename);
70-483 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FileMode.OpenOrCreate – Specifies that the operating system should open a file if it exists; otherwise, a new file should be created. If the file is opened with FileAccess.Read, FileIOPermissionAccess.Read permission is required. If the file access is FileAccess.Write, FileIOPermissionAccess.Write permission is required. If the file is opened with FileAccess.ReadWrite, both FileIOPermissionAccess.Read and FileIOPermissionAccess.Write permissions are required.
FileShare.ReadWrite – Allows subsequent opening of the file for reading or writing.If this flag is not specified, any request to open the file for reading or writing (by this process or another process) will fail until the file is closed.However, even if this flag is specified, additional permissions might still be needed to access the file.

70-483 dumps

Those who live at different locations around the globe are working on various Microsoft 70-483 dumps to get complete profession potential and also for enhancing their profession. But to obtain and efficiently pass the Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-483.html dumps certification exams is not an effortless job because it needs a lot of effort as well as proper planning components which we have.

Other Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Youtube:https://youtu.be/38an9bZk53U

[2017 Certification Dumps] Free Download Real High Score Microsoft 70-480 Dumps Practice Test 100% Pass Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3 on Youtube

Learn Why Microsoft 70-480 dumps are Important? “Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3” also known as 70-480 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Free download real high score Microsoft 70-480 dumps practice test 100% pass Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3 on Youtube. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-480 dumps exam questions answers are updated (247 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-480 dumps is Microsoft Windows Store apps. With Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-480.html dumps real questions, you can get what you want. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-480 exam information are cheap and fine.

Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Q&As: 247

[2017 Microsoft Certification 70-480 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTUo2RDBmUnkycG8

[2017 Microsoft Certification 70-410 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWemRUYmFFQVdJM1k

70-480 dumps

★Share Some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 70-480 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1) You are developing a web form that includes the following code.70-480 dumps
When a user selects the check box, an input text box must be added to the page dynamically. You need to ensure that the text box is added. Which function should you use?
70-480 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-480 exam Answer: B
Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) An HTML page has a canvas element. You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle should resemble the following graphic.
70-480 dumps

How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 dumps

70-480 dumps

Answer:
70-480 dumps

Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page includes the following HTML.
<div>
Logo:<br>
<div id=”logo”>
</div>
</div>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels. Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById(“logo”) .style.position = “relative”;
B. document.getElementByld(“logo”).Style.top = “5px”;
C. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.top = “-5px”;
D. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.position = “absolute”;
70-480 dumps Answer: A,B
Reference:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag with the ID set to validate. When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from the content above and below it. The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
70-480 dumps

The page must be rendered so that the <div> tag is not forced to be separate from the other content. The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.
70-480 dumps

You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement. Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Answer: A
Reference:
Question No : 21 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are creating a web worker for an HTML5 application. The following tasks must be performed from within the web worker: Register an event listener for the web worker Start and stop the web worker You need to define a function that performs the required tasks. Which code segment should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the drop-down list in the answer area.)
70-480 dumps

70-480 dumps

70-480 pdf Answer:
70-480 dumps

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)You are creating a JavaScript function that displays the name of a web application. You declare the following button element. <input type=”button” id= “About” value=”About” />  When a user clicks the button, a JavaScript function named About must be called. You need to create an event handler that calls the About function when the button is
clicked. Which two code segments can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
70-480 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C,D
Reference:
Question No : 23. Now that the network is moving towards a trusted network, you are preparing for the specific new implementations in Certkiller . Just as you wrap up some paperwork for the morning, Blue calls you and lets you know that you are going to be needed in a meeting this afternoon. You get to Blue’s office and sit down at the desk. Blue begins the conversation, “You know we have some solid fundamental issues addressed in our new trusted network, but I have yet to feel that we have addressed any serious concerns.” “I’ve been thinking about some similar issues,” you reply. “Good, then I’m sure you have been thinking about our email. Right now, I cannot guarantee the integrity of any email, and I cannot guarantee the confidentiality of any email. We have reasonable controls towards guaranteeing the availability of our email, but what’s the point if there is no confidentiality or integrity?” “I agree. I think that addressing this issue should be an immediate priority.” “One concern is that whatever the system is that we put in place, it must be very user-friendly. As we roll out these new systems, anything that will significantly increase the calls into the help desk is something we need to minimize. A second concern is that it not be too costly. We already have this new investment in the trusted network, we need to be sure that we utilize what are building to the fullest extent possible.” “I think we should be able to do that without much difficulty. I already have some solid ideas,” you reply. “OK, take a few days on this. For the moment, just concern yourself with the executive building; the others can follow the plan in their own buildings. Let’s meet again this coming Monday and you can describe your suggestion then.” Based on this conversation, and your knowledge of Certkiller , select the best solution to the email problems in the network.}
A. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using PGP. You will use a full licensed version of PGP. You will go to each computer and you will install the full PGP on each system. Once installed, you will show each user how to create a PGP certificate by requesting the certificate from the CATool CA server you installed specifically for secure email. After the user has received a certificate, you associate that PGP certificate with their Windows domain user account. With the PGP certificate associated with the user account, you show each user how to manage their key ring. You show them how to generate their key, and you configure all user’s key strength to be 2048 bits. Now that the user has a strong key and a PGP certificate, you configure the email client of each user. You explain that each user will have to install the public key of each other user in the network. You test this by sending an email from your laptop with your PGP certificate attached, and you have the user save the attachment to their Outlook folder. With the certificate saved, you show them how to send secure email to you. You receive the email
on your laptop, and double-click the lock to show the user that the secure email message was successfully sent and received.
B. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using X.509v3 digital certificates. You choose this since every user received their certificate during an earlier phase, and those certificates included the ability to be used
for secure email. Using the X.509v3 certificates, you will configure each machine to use S\MIME. You go to each computer and open Outlook Express, which is the default client email program in
the test group. You go to the Tools and Account option, selecting the Mail tab, and the properties for the email account. You select he Security Tab and in the submenu for the Signing Certificate you configure the certificate for the user’s account. You select 3DES as the algorithm to use. You then check the Encrypt Contents And Attachments For All Outgoing Messages check box and the Digitally Sign All Outgoing Messages check box. You accept the default of including the digital id when sending signed messages and the default to add sender’s certificates to the user’s address book, and close the properties the email account. You show the user how to send and receive email, showing the red ribbon that indicates a signed message and the blue lock that indicates an encrypted message.
C. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using GPG. You have decided to use GPG to avoid any licensing conflicts that might occur if any user requires secure email exchange with another individual that is in
a country with different cryptography laws. You will go to each computer and you will install GPG on each system. Once installed, you will show each user how to create the required directory structure, by typing the command: gpg –gen-key Once the directory structure is created, you will
 show each user how to generate the required files, by typing the command: gpg –gen-key
Since you want very secure email, you configure each system to use 2048 bit key strength and you select DSA and ElGamal encryption. With GPG installed and configured, you show each user how to use their new secure email. You have them open Outlook and create a new message to you. Once the message is created, you have them select the Security drop-down list and choose both GPG Sign and GPG Encrypt, and then press send.
You show them on your laptop that you receive the message. You press Reply, and on your laptop also select the Security drop-down menu, where you choose both GPG Sign and GPG Encrypt. The user receives the message, and you show that secure email was
successfully sent and received.
D. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using PGP. You will use a full licensed version of PGP. You will go to each computer and you will install the full PGP on each system. Once installed, you will show each user how to create a PGP certificate by requesting the certificate from the MS Enterprise Root CA server you installed, and configured specifically for secure email certificates. After the user has received a certificate, you associate that PGP certificate with their Windows domain user account. With the PGP certificate associated with the user account, you show each user how to manage their key ring. You show them how to generate their key, and you configure all user’s key strength to be 2048 bits. Now that the user has a strong key and a PGP certificate, you configure the email client of each user. You explain that each user will have to install the public key of each other user in the network. You test this by sending an email from your laptop with your PGP certificate attached, and you have the user save the attachment to their Outlook folder. With the certificate saved, you show them how to send secure email to you. You receive the email on your laptop, and double-click the lock to show the user that the secure email message was successfully sent and received.
E. After careful consideration you decide that you will implement secure email in a test group using X.509v3 digital certificates. You choose this since every user received their certificate during an earlier phase, and those certificates included the ability to be used
for secure email. You will configure each machine to use PGP, with the X.509v3 certificates option. You go to each computer and open Outlook Express, which is the default client email program in the test group. You go to the Tools and Account option, selecting the Mail tab, and the properties for the email account. You select he Security Tab and in the submenu for the Signing Certificate you configure the certificate for the user’s account. You select DSA and ElGamal as the cryptosystem to use. You then check the Encrypt Contents And Attachments For All Outgoing Messages check box and the Digitally Sign All Outgoing Messages check box. You accept the default of including the digital id when sending signed messages and the default to add sender’s certificates to the user’s address book, and close the properties the email account. You show the user how to send and receive email, showing the red ribbon that indicates a signed message and the blue lock that indicates an encrypted message.

70-480 vce Answer: B

We use simulation questions and answers dedication to our candidates with ultra-low price and high quality. We sincerely hope that you can pass the 70-480 dumps exam. We provide you with a convenient online service to resolve any questions about 70-480 real questions for you. Passing https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-480.html dumps exam is not very simple.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/kp7xNkF3gng

[2017 Certification Dumps] Discount Cisco 600-509 Dumps Exam Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist Study Guide PDF Covers All Key Points

What is the best place for getting the Cisco 600-509 dumps?”Integrating Business Applications with Network” is the name of Cisco 600-509 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Discount Cisco 600-509 dumps exam Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist study guide pdf covers all key points. Pass4itsure Cisco 600-509 dumps exam questions answers are updated (119 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 600-509 dumps is Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist. This https://www.pass4itsure.com/600-509.html dumps exam tests a candidate’s ability to use the programmability of an open infrastructure to develop and deploy business applications.

Exam Code: 600-509
Exam Name: Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability
Q&As: 112

[2017 Cisco Certification 600-509 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeW42OTIyc3NXNm8

[2017 Cisco Certification 600-510 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWYWRscjhnOVZ6a3M

600-509 dumps

★Share Some Cisco Specialist Pass4itsure 600-509 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

Question: 1
See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things. Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
600-509 exam Answer: C
Question: 2
In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B
Question: 3
Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
600-509 dumps Answer: B
Question: 4
Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A
Question: 5
What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
600-509 pdf Answer: C
Question: 6
See the illustration below:
To test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created in accordance with the Data Combination Test. In addition, it has been agreed that less depth testing must be performed. One data pair has been defined that must be fully tested in combination:
car – attraction
Eight test cases are designed using a classification tree.
  Where must the ‘bullets’ for test case 4 be placed?
A. Saturday, fun park, 2nd
B. Sunday, museum, station
C. Sunday, fun park, station
Answer: C
Question: 7
A structured testing approach is characterized by:
providing concrete footholds covering the full scope and describing the complete range of relevant aspects providing a structure, so that it is clear what exactly by whom, when and in what sequence has to be done. What is the fourth characteristic?
A. it delivers insight into and advice on any risks in respect of the quality of the tested system
B. managing test activities in the context of time, money and quality
C. the testing is on the critical path of the total development, as briefly as possible, so that the total lead time of development is shortened
D. to find defects at an early stage
600-509 vce Answer: B
Question: 8
During the Process Cycle Test, the coverage type paths is used. In which way can coverage be varied here?
A. by using boundary values
B. by using a higher or lower test depth level
C. by taking equivalence classes into consideration
Answer: B
Question: 9
Which activity is not part of the Completion phase?
A. updating the testware to be preserved
B. assessing test results
C. evaluating the test process
D. selecting the testware to be preserved
600-509 exam Answer: B
Question: 10
Which type of tool is used in the Execution phase to test a module or component that has a relationship with programs that have not yet been realized?
A. code coverage tool
B. comparator
C. ‘model-based testing’ tool
D. stubs and drivers
Answer: D
Question: 11
For the creation of the central starting point there are several techniques. In the given situation it is necessary that consistency between the data entered is guaranteed. Which of the techniques below is preferable if only one technique may be used?
A. use of production data
B. entering through separate front-end software
C. entering through regular system functions
600-509 dumps Answer: C
Question: 12
See the definition below: The ease with which the information system can be adapted to new requirements of the user and the changing external environment, or to correct errors. Of which quality characteristic is this the definition?
A. manageability
B. flexibility
C. maintainability
Answer: C
Question: 13
See the decision and test situations below:
R = (A AND B) OR C
Which test situation is missing if the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision
coverage is used?

A. Option A
B. Option B
600-509 pdf Answer: B
Question: 14
See the specification below in which a decision point is described:
R = (D OR E) AND F
Use of the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision coverage produces the
following table with test situations:
Which values are missing where the dots are stated (? to make the table complete?
A. 010
B. 011
C. 110
D. 111
Answer: B
Question: 15
See the specification of a discount campaign below:
How many equivalence classes can be distinguished from the above specification?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
600-509 vce Answer: B
Question: 16
The specification of test cases according to a test design technique follows five general steps. Which step is stablishing the starting point?Which step is ?stablishing the starting point?
A. step 2
B. step 3
C. step 4
D. step 5
Answer: C
Question: 17
See the illustration below:
Which test situations can be differentiated when the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?
A. 1-2; 2-3; 3-4; 2-4; 2-5; 2-6; 3-5; 3-6; 4-5; 4-6; 5-6
B. 1-2; 1-3; 1-4; 2-5; 3-5; 4-5; 2-6; 3-6; 4-6
C. 1-2-5; 1-2-6; 1-3-6; 1-3-5; 1-4-6; 1-4-5
600-509 exam Answer: B
Question: 18
Which system development method is agile and contains structured guidelines for development testing?
A. DSDM
B. SDM
C. XP
600-509 dumps Answer: C
Question: 19
See the illustration below:
What is the minimum number of logical test cases generated by the use of the Process Cycle Test if the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9
Answer: C

  • 1.0 Fundamentals of Networking 35% 600-509 Dumps
    1.1 Describe the operation of IP data networks
    1.1.a Describe the purpose and functions of network devices
    1.1.b Identify common applications and their impact on the network
    1.2 Identify basic LAN switching technologies
    1.2.a VLANs
    1.2.b Network segmentation and basic traffic management
    1.3 Describe IP addressing (IPv4 / IPv6)
    1.3.a Basic principles of IP address
    1.3.b Subnets and prefixes
    1.4 Describe IP routing
    1.4.a Understands the basic routing concepts
    1.4.a [i] Differentiate between routing and routing protocols
    1.4.a [ii] Static vs. Dynamic routing
    1.4.a [iii] IP routing table
    1.4.b Understands the difference between routing and switching
    1.5 Describe network data security
    1.5.a TLS basics
    1.5.b Certificates
    1.5.c User/host authentication
    1.6 Troubleshoot host IP configuration
    1.7 Describe network virtualization
    1.8 Describe network assurance technologies
    1.8.a Quality of service
    1.8.b Load balancing
    1.8.c Network proximity
    1.8.d Network availability
    1.9 Describe application-aware networks

It also tests how well the candidate can build an application with API capabilities to collect https://www.pass4itsure.com/600-509.html dumps information from the network when needed.

[2017 Certification Dumps] Useful Microsoft 70-697 Dumps Practice Test Exam Youtube Study Guide in First Attempt

Where can I download the latest MCSA dumps for free Microsoft 70-697 dumps? “Configuring Windows Devices” is the name of Microsoft 70-697 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Useful Microsoft 70-697 dumps practice test exam youtube study guide in First Attempt. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-697 dumps exam questions answers are updated (186 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-697 dumps is MCSA: Windows 10. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-697.html dumps certification will tell you and confirms the capabilities of individuals in different technological advancement and control techniques.

Exam Code: 70-697
Exam Name: Configuring Windows Devices
Q&As: 186

[2017 Microsoft Certification 70-697 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1fqB6hu5MPDIzhMrAIH2jiWIQspkc6g86

[2017 Microsoft Certification 70-734 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWY2xEbzRCZklmTFU

70-697 dumps

★Share some Microsoft Specialist Pass4itsure 70-697 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below★

QUESTION 1
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers. Your company has started testi g App1ication Virtualization (App-V) App1ications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V App1ications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. You need to ensure that the App-V App1ications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network. What should you do?
A. Change user permissions to the App-V App1ications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You administer a Windows 10 Enterprise computer that runs Hyper-V. The computer hosts a virtual machine with multiplesnapshots.ThevirtualmachineusesonevirtualCPUand5l2MBofRAM. You discover that the virtual machine pauses automatically and diSP1ays the state as paused-critical. You need to identify the component that is causing the error. Which component should you identify?
A. no virtual switch defined
B. insufficientmemory
C. insufficient hard disk space
D. insufficient number of virtual processors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business. One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementinganychanges,theclientwantstoensurethatthelaptops ndtabletssupportVirtualSmartCards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. EnsurethatthelaptopsandtabletsarerunningWindows 10Enterpriseedition.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
A company has l00 clientcomputers thatrun Windows 10 Enterprise. A new company policy requires that all client computers have static lPv6 addresses. You need to assign static lPv6 addresses to the client computers. Which Network Shell (netsh) command should you run?
A. add address
B. set interface
C. set global
D. set address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
YouadministerWindows 10EnterprisedesktopcomputersthataremembersofanActiveDirectorydomain. You want to create an archived copy of user profiles that are stored on the desktops. You create a standard domain user account to run a backup task. You need to grant the backup task user account access to the user profiles. What should you do?
A. Add the backup task account to the Remote Management Users group on a domain controller.
B. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on every computer.
C. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on a domain controller.
D. Set the backup task account as NTFS owner on all the profiles.
70-697 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You support desktop computers and tablets that run Windows 8 Enterprise. All of the computers are able to connect to your company network from the lnternet by using DirectAccess. Your company wants to deploy a new App1ication to the tablets. The deployment solution must meet the following requirements: The App1ication is able to access files stored on an internal solid-state drive (SSD) on the tablets. The App1ication is isolated from other App1ications. The App1ication uses the least amount of disk space on the tablet. You need to deploy the new App1ication to the tablets. What should you do?
A. Deploy the App1ication as an App1ication Virtualization (App-V) package. lnstall the App-V 4.6 client on the tablets.
B. Deploy the App1ication as a published App1ication on the Remote Desktop server. Create a Remote Desktop connection on the tablets.
C. lnstall the App1ication on a local drive on the tablets.
D. lnstall the App1ication in a Windows To Go workspace.
E. lnstall Hyper-V on tablets. lnstall the App1ication on a virtual machine.
F. Publish the App1ication to Windows Store.
G. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a virtual hard disk (VHD) file.
Configure the tablets with dual boot.
H. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a VHDX file. Configure tablets with dual boot.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You use a Windows 8.l tablet. The tablet receives Windows Update updates automatically from the lnternet. The tablet has Wi-Fi and is connected to a 3G mobile broadband Wi-Fi hot spot. You need to minimize data usage while connected to this hot spot. What should you do?
A. Turn on AirpLANe Mode.
B. Disable File and Print Sharing for mobile broadband connections.
C. ConfiguretheinterfacemetricoflPsettingsforWi-Ficonnectionasl.
D. Edit the lnbound Rule of Windows Firewall, and then disable lnternet Control Message Protocol (lCMP) traffic.
E. Configure the broadband connection as a metered network.
70-697 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
You are the network administrator for Contoso, ltd. Many users have Windows 10 Enterprise laptops, and your lT departmentconfiguresallofthetouseBitlockeronallfixeddrives.
Many users carry sensitive corporate data on their USB drives.
You need to enable Bitlocker for these USB drives.

Which key protector option should you use?
A. a smartcard
B. a startup key
C. TPM+PlN
D. TPM+Password
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and is used by l0 users. The computer is joined to an Active Directory domain.AlloftheusersaremembersoftheAdministratorsgroup.Each userhasanActiveDirectoryaccount. You have a Microsoft Word document that contains confidential information. You need to ensure that you are the only user who can open the document.
What should you configure?
A. account policies
B. App1ication control polices
C. HomeGroupsettings
D. software restriction policies
E. NTFS permissions
F. MicrosoftOneDrive
G. share permissions
H. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B

We are professionals in providing the best 70-697 dumps certification exam planning components to the customers across the entire globe. Those who live at different locations around the globe are working on various Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-697.html dumps certifications to get complete profession potential and also for enhancing their profession.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/BDWaVZ60vPg