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On which platform is CloudBase-Init used to execute user-provided scripts? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Linux B. MacOS C. Kubernetes D. Windows
Correct Answer: D
Question # 2
An administrator creates multiple flavor mappings and names them as follows: Small: vCenter / Datacenter:datacenter-1 – cpu = 1, memory = 2 GB AWS-West-1 / us-west-1 = t2.micro Medium: vCenter / Datacenter:datacenter-1 – cpu = 2, memory = 4 GB AWS-West-1 / us-west-1 = t2.small Where would the administrator use those named mappings to allow users to select image sizes? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Cloud zones B. Projects C. Cloud templates D. Custom forms
Correct Answer: B
Question # 3
An administrator will use the vRealize Automation Code Stream Smart Templates to trigger pipeline testing when there are code changes in GitHub.
Which template should the administrator use? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Continuous Delivery B. Cloud Template C. Blank Canvas D. Continuous Integration
Correct Answer: D
Question # 4
The administrator is tasked with creating a number of different content sources in Service Broker so that multiple types of catalog, items can be created.
What is the only public cloud template that can be selected as a content source in Service Broker? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Google Cloud Deployment Manager templates B. Alibaba Cloud Resource Orchestration Service templates C. AWS CloudFormation templates D. Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates
Correct Answer: C
Question # 5
An administrator configured flavor mapping for use in a multi-tier application cloud template. What are the sizing options allowed in vSphere when creating a new flavor mapping? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Number of CPUs only B. Memory and number of CPUs C. Disks only D. Memory only
Correct Answer: B
Question # 6
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is testing a newly created Windows 2016 cloud template in Cloud Assembly. While using the Test option from within the cloud template, the attached error appears.
What is a possible cause for this error message? (Choose the best answer.)
A. During the machine allocation phase, Cloud Assembly could not find enough resources. B. The network profile created did not have the correct capability tag. C. The administrator did not associate a cloud zone to the project. D. The administrator did not add a cloud account.
Correct Answer: C
Question # 7
What is the purpose of a cloud zone? (Choose the best answer.)
A. A cloud zone is used to segregate resources for provisioning within a cloud account. B. A cloud zone is a method of connecting to a type of resource provider. C. A cloud zone is a simplified user interface for users who do not need full access to developing and building cloud templates. D. A cloud zone is used for organizing users and groups.
Correct Answer: A
Question # 8
An administrator is debugging a multi-machine cloud template deployment and the following error occurs: “Customization operation failed. Customization specification with name [vCenter_Windows] was not found.”
Where can the administrator identify the phase of the provisioning lifecycle and the machine for which this error occurred? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Deployments > History B. Deployments > Topology C. Cloud Assembly > Design D. Service Broker > Deployments
Correct Answer: A
Question # 9
Refer to the exhibit.
A new vRealize Automation user is logging in for the first time. Upon login, the user is presented with the attached screenshot.
Which step must the Organization Administrator take to resolve the issue? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Assign the user a Content Developer role B. Assign the user the Directory Administrator role C. Assign the user the Organization Member role D. Assign the user a Service role
Correct Answer: D
Question # 10
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator receives the error in the attached screenshot when attempting to add a cloud account. What is a possible cause of this error? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The username and password are incorrect. B. The hostname uses a URL instead of an IP address/FQDN. C. There is an invalid certificate for the vCenter. D. A Cloud account exists with the same name.
Correct Answer: B
Question # 11
What are two prerequisites for a vRealize Automation standard deployment? (Choose two.)
A. IPv4 addresses B. DHCP server C. IPv6 addresses D. Load Balancer E. DNS server
Correct Answer: AE
Question # 12
What is the main difference between vRealize Orchestrator non-persistent logs and persistent logs? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Time Synchronization of logs B. Storing of events in the database C. Log Insight forwarding configuration D. Logging level configuration
Correct Answer: B
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An architect is designing for a production vSAN cluster, and the customer introduced these requirements related to File Services: A minimum of 12 files were shared. 30TB NFS capacity to mount workload VMs. What should be the architect\\’s recommendations?
A. Point out the risks regarding putting the hosts in maintenance mode in terms of FSVM. B. Confirm all of the requirements and move forward with the physical design. C. Raise concerns regarding support when running VMs on an NFS share as risk. D. Highlight the required number of nodes required for the vSAN cluster as a constraint.
Correct Answer: D
An 8-Node vSAN Stretched Cluster (4+4+1) with a single disk group has a policy with PFTT=1 (mirrored across sites) and SFTT=1/FTM Mirroring (Local Protection) configured.
The administrator has been alerted that there is a problem with the cluster. The following has been observed:
The vSAN Witness Host is offline. Two disk failures on two hosts have occurred in the preferred site. This has resulted in a critical production virtual machine\\’s vodka becoming inaccessible.
Which step needs to be performed by the administrator to resolve the issue?
A. Replace all failed disks on the preferred site. B. Replace the vSAN Witness Host C. Replace access to the existing vSAN Witness Host D. Replace only one failed disk on the preferred site.
Correct Answer: C
Which statement accurately describes the result when proper VM Storage Policy Affinity Rules on a stretched vSAN cluster is set?
A. When a site is disconnected, the VM will lose access to its VMDK. B. When a site is disconnected, the VM will continue to have access to its VMDK. C. Bandwidth is unnecessarily sent across the inter-site link. D. Proper policies result in higher inter-site bandwidth utilization.
Correct Answer: A
A company hosts a vSAN 7 stretched cluster for all development workloads. The original sizing of a maximum of 250 concurrent workloads in the vSAN cluster are no longer sufficient and need to increase to at least 500 concurrent workloads within the next six months.
To meet this demand, the original 8-node (4-4-1) cluster has recently been expanded to 16 nodes (8-8-1). Which three additional steps should the administrator take to support the current growth plans while minimizing the number of resources required at the witness site? (Choose three.)
A. Add the new vSAN witness appliance to the vCenter Server. B. Deploy a new large vSAN witness appliance at the witness site. C. Configure the vSAN stretched cluster to use the new vSAN witness. D. Deploy a new extra-large vSAN witness appliance at the witness site. E. Upgrade the vSAN stretched cluster to vSAN 7.0 U1. F. Configure the new vSAN witness as a shared witness appliance.
Correct Answer: BCF
A 30-minute power maintenance window has been approved on Sunday. Due to a delay, the maintenance took 20 minutes longer to finish.
During this time, the vSAN administrator noticed that one of the nodes of the cluster was affected by a power shortage, as it was connected to an affected power source. The default vSAN storage policy has been applied. What will be the status of the vSAN objects on the affected host immediately after it is recovered?
A. The cluster will be partitioned and the vSAN host will need to be rejoined. B. A rebuild of the affected objects will occur. C. All objects will remain accessible. D. All objects on the affected host will be lost.
Correct Answer: B
During a planning session for new vSAN clusters in multiple data centers, the customer relayed the following information:
Highest possible mitigation during a host failure in terms of capacity. A constraint in this year\’s IT budget. What should the architect recommend?
A. Enable operations reserve. A minimum cluster of 3 vSAN nodes. B. Enable host build reserve. A minimum cluster of 4 vSAN nodes. C. Enable performance services. A minimum cluster of 6 vSAN nodes. D. Enable IOInsight Metrics. A minimum cluster of 2 vSAN ROBO nodes.
Correct Answer: B
An administrator is tasked with preparing for a Cross vCenter migration in a stretched vSAN cluster where the virtual machines migration will be orchestrated via VMware Site Recovery Manager.
Which action should the administrator take so the migration is successful?
A. Disable vSAN Deduplication and Compression B. Reconfigure vCenter HA Admission control C. Enable vCenter Single Sign-On Enhanced Linked Mode D. Make sure that Witness traffic is on the management NIC.
An architect collected the below technical requirements from the customer during a vSAN cluster design workshop:
Maximize the vSAN datastore usable capacity. Deduplication and compression are required to help utilize available capacity efficiency. Ensure the highest level of resiliency wherever possible.
Which disk group configuration should the architect include in the design?
A. One disk group per host, with one cache tier flash disk and four capacity tier, flash disks. B. Two disk groups per host, each with one cache tier flash disk and four capacity tier flash disks. C. Two disk groups per host, each with one cache tier flash disk and six capacity tier flash disks. D. Two disk groups per host, each with one cache tier flash disk and six capacity tier magnetic disks.
Correct Answer: D
A company has engaged a consultant to upgrade an existing vSAN cluster to vSAN 7.0 U1. During the discovery phase, the consultant found the following information about the existing environment:
The VMware vCenter Server has recently been upgraded from VMware vSphere 6.7 U3 to version 7.0 U1. The vSAN Cluster was recently expanded with identical hardware specifications but from a different hardware vendor. The hardware for each vSAN node is listed on the vSAN Compatibility Guide (VCG) for vSAN 7.
The vSAN Cluster has the following configuration:
-vSAN version: 6.6.1 -Number of vSAN nodes: 10 -Encryption: enabled -Deduplication and Compression: enabled -vSAN Capacity Utilization: 60%
Which three recommendations should the consultant make to ensure all data remains protected in the event of a vSAN failure? (Choose three.)
A. The Full data migration maintenance mode option must be chosen to protect the data during the upgrade. B. The Ensure accessibility, migration maintenance mode option must be chosen to protect the data during the upgrade. C. The upgrade process should be completed using host upgrade baselines in VMware vSphere Lifecycle Manager (vLCM). D. The vSAN nodes should be upgraded to vSphere ESXi 7.0 U1. E. The upgrade process should be completed using images in VMware vSphere Lifecycle Manager (vLCM). F. The vSAN nodes should be upgraded to vSphere ESXi 6.7 U3.
Correct Answer: BDE
An administrator managing a vSAN cluster of six nodes with policy FTT-2/RAID-6 decided to put one of the nodes in maintenance mode using the “Full-data migration” option.
What will happen after this action is taken?
A. The host will enter in maintenance mode and the data will remain accessible until the host exits maintenance mode. B. The system will prompt to add an additional host to the cluster in order to preserve the policy compliance. C. The host will enter in maintenance mode and only data with no redundancy will remain accessible. D. The host will enter into maintenance mode if both components of a certain object are residing on that host, then one of the components will be moved to another available host.
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An architect is designing a new vSphere environment with the following resources:
5,760 GB RAM
Average resource usage is:
1,152 GB RAM
The design must meet the following requirements:
The environment has the ability to burst by 25%.
Each host can schedule 36 vCPUs and has 512 GB RAM.
Management overhead is 20%.
What is the minimum number of hosts required to meet the design requirements?
A. Three B. Five C. Four D. Two
Correct Answer: D
The Chief Operating Officer (COO) at an organization raises concerns that their virtual infrastructure environment is vulnerable. Recently, a security-related issue with a virtual machine caused all management services to become unavailable. No budget is available in the short term for additional platform investment. An architect is asked to review the current environment and make recommendations to mitigate concerns.
A virtualization administrator has provided the following details: There is a single four-node cluster of ESXi servers There are two, Layer 2, physical network switches connecting resources The data center network is presented as a single /16 subnet Given the information provided, which functional requirement should the architect include in the design to mitigate the Coo’s concerns?
A. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect application virtual machines and management services to new physical network switches B. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect application virtual machines and management services to separate distributed virtual switches (DVS) C. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect application virtual machines and management services to separate VLANs D. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect management services to a vSphere standard switch (VSS)
Correct Answer: D
An architect is tasked with designing a new VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) solution for an an online retail customer who has a primary and secondary data center as well as 10 distribution hubs. The customer has provided the following business requirements to help inform the design:
The solution must support the running of up to 1,000 concurrent virtual machines across the primary and secondary data center.
The solution must support the running of up to 20 concurrent virtual machines in each distribution hub. The solution must support the separation of management and lines-of-business application virtual machines.
All management components (including directory services, backup, automation, operations, and logging) must be deployed to the primary data center.
All virtual infrastructure components must have redundancy of N+1. All sites are connected to each other using a wide area network that has multiple diversely routed links.
The solution should support a monthly uptime target of 99.9%. The recovery time objective (RTO) for the solution must be four hours. The recovery point objective (RPO) for the solution must be 24 hours.
Given the information from the customer, which assumption should the architect include in the design?
A. All business application virtual machines can be deployed into a single cluster within the primary data center. B. Each distribution hub should be configured with a backup device. C. The wide area network has sufficient bandwidth to support centralized management. D. Each cluster will have a minimum of four hosts.
Correct Answer: B
A new real-time financial service application is being developed by the engineering team at a financial firm and will be released as a public Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) offering. The solutions architect has designed and deployed a new vSphere environment and the supporting network infrastructure for hosting all public services.
ESXi hosts are configured to use Precision Time Protocol (PTP) and a local stratum-1 network time server. Application provisioning and scaling will be managed by VMware vRealize Automation and can be run on Microsoft Windows or multiple distributions of Linux.
Which three recommendations should the architect include in the design to ensure that the service maintains timekeeping within an accuracy of one second? (Choose three.)
A. Use Microsoft Windows Server as the guest operating system. B. Configure the chrony time-sync agent on each virtual machine guest operating system. C. Set the virtual hardware device to use Host System Time (NTP) for each virtual machine running the application. D. Add a precision clock virtual device to each virtual machine running the application. E. Use a Linux distribution as the guest operating system. F. Add a virtual watchdog timer (VWDT) device to each virtual machine running the application.
Correct Answer: ABC
During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer provides the following information: Each host has 2 × 10 GbE NIC EtherChannel is not currently configured No changes can be made to the physical network Network throughput must be prioritized for defined critical services Which two recommendations should the architect make with regard to virtual networking? (Choose two.)
A. Use Route Based on Physical NIC Load. B. Use Network I/O Control with Shares. C. Use Network I/O Control with Reservation. D. Use Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP). E. Use Network I/O Control with Limits.
An architect is designing a VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) solution based on the following customer requirements: The solution must initially support 1,000 virtual machines The solution must scale to support the concurrent running of up to 5,000 virtual machines The production environment should be delivered across two data centers The solution should have a maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of four hours The solution should have a monthly service availability target of 99.8%
Which two assumptions could the architect make based on the information from the customer to help size the solution? (Choose two.)
A. The number of vSphere hosts in a cluster B. The average resource utilization of a virtual machine C. The size (CPU/RAM/storage) of the average virtual machine D. The guest operating system for each virtual machine E. The size (CPU/RAM/storage) of the vSphere hosts
Correct Answer: AE
A VMware Service Provider is tasked with delivering a solution for continuous availability for a subset of Tier 1 virtual machines (VMs) and vApps running in their vSAN environment. The VMs make up a mission-critical application and there can be no data loss in the event of an outage at their primary data center.
In the event of a regional outage, they have established a 10-minute recovery point objective (RPO). Failover/ failback to the third side must be automated.
They have the following in place: Two local data centers (primary and secondary) connected with 100 Gb dedicated fiber
-2ms round-trip time (RTT) latency between the sites A third data center located on another power grid -70ms latency between the primary and secondary data centers Matching storage arrays at all locations
Which two solutions could be used to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Site Recovery Manager B. Snapshots C. vSAN Metro Cluster D. vSphere Data Protection E. vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
Correct Answer: BC
During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer provides the following requirement that is pertinent to the design of a new vSphere environment:
The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) for all Tier 1 applications is one hour. Which requirement classification is being gathered for the design documentation?
A. Manageability B. Performance C. Availability D. Recoverability
Correct Answer: C
Following a recent acquisition, an architect needs to merge IT assets into its current data center. The combined vSphere environment will need to run the newly acquired company\’s virtual machines.
Network integration work has already been completed and the current environment has the capacity to host all virtual machines. The Operations team needs to identify which virtual machines belong to the acquired company and report on their usage.
How should the architect merge the company\’s assets and virtual machines?
A. Leave the newly acquired company\’s assets in their current place B. Lift and shift the acquired assets into the data center C. Migrate the acquired company\’s virtual machines into the existing vSphere environment D. Migrate and apply vSphere tags to the acquired company\’s virtual machines
Correct Answer: D
An architect is tasked with expanding an existing VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) solution so that it can be used to deliver a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) service off-shore development activities.
The production environment is currently delivered across two geographically dispersed data centers. The two data centers are currently connected to each other through multiple diversely routed, high bandwidth, and low latency links. The current operations management components are deployed to a dedicated management cluster that is configured with N+1 redundancy.
The current VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) has a monthly availability target of 99.5%, which includes all management components.
The customer requires that the new solution scale support the concurrent running of 500 persistent virtual desktops. The virtual desktops must not share the same virtual infrastructure as existing virtual machines, but can be managed using the same VMware operations management components.
Any new VDI service management components must be installed into the management cluster. There is no requirement to back up the virtual desktops because all relevant user data is stored centrally. The VDI service is providing business-critical services and must have an availability target of 99.9%. Given the information from the customer, which two assumptions would the architect include in the design? (Choose two.)
A. The existing virtual infrastructure has sufficient capacity to host the new VDI workloads B. The existing operations monitoring tools have sufficient capacity to monitor the new VDI services C. The existing management cluster has enough available capacity to host any VDI service management component D. The management cluster has N+1 redundancy E. The VDI service has a higher service-level agreement (SLA) than the operations management SLA
Correct Answer: AB
An architect has 50 ESXi hosts to deploy and DHCP servers are not allowed on any network. Which automated host deployment method should the architect use?
A. Stateless vSphere Auto Deploy B. Stateful vSphere Auto Deploy C. Scripted installation D. Interactive installation
Correct Answer: C
During a requirements gathering workshop to design a physical to virtual migration, the customer provides the following information:
There is no physical firewall in the data center with no anticipated plans for a future network refresh. Leveraging the virtual infrastructure to mitigate the lack of network security must be addressed in the design.
All physical servers to be migrated exist on the same VLAN. Which recommendation should the architect make to address the customer requirement with regard to virtual networking?
A. Split the virtual machines into several VLANs Use tag actions B. Create port groups with different names and the same VLAN IDs Enable traffic shaping for ingress and egress traffic C. Enable traffic filtering and marking Use allow or drop actions D. Disable traffic filtering and marking Use tag actions
Correct Answer: A
An architect is tasked with planning the design of a new vSphere environment. When commissioned, this environment will be used to migrate an existing set of virtual machines.
An inventory of the existing infrastructure, including configured vCPU, RAM, and storage sizes has been provided. In order for each virtual machine to be migrated, which two data sources with peak and average utilization data are required for sizing? (Choose two.)
A. %Ready B. Disk Write latency C. CPU D. Ballooned memory E. IOPS
Correct Answer: BE
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When using VMware Carbon Black Live Response, what command will show all active processes?
A. dir B. list C. ls D. ps
Which two are true about a VMware Service-defined Firewall? (Choose two.)
A. A firewall that allows you to use 3rd party features like IDS/IPS, threat protection, anti-bot, and anti-virus solutions B. A firewall that blocks external access into your internal network based on IP services C. A firewall that enforces policy for North-South traffic D. A firewall that is auto-scalable as new workloads are deployed E. A firewall that provides East-West protection between internal applications
Which VMware Carbon Black Cloud function allows an administrator to remotely run commands on protected endpoints?
A. Live Query B. Alert Triage C. Investigate D. Live Response
What is the term used to describe a type of social engineering attack aimed at a specific person or specific type of person?
A. Phishing B. Whaling C. Tailgating D. Spear Phishing
Which option would be considered an example of a Hardware-Based Exploit?
A. SQL Injection B. Social Engineering C. Jail Breaking D. Denial of Service
If the Compromised Protection switch is enabled in Workspace ONE UEM, what is the expected behavior on compromised devices in the environment?
A. A tag is assigned to the compromised devices and the admin gets a notification B. Compromised devices are automatically Enterprise Wiped C. A block is set for all network connections except to the VMware servers D. Devices are marked as non-compliant and the admin gets a notification
Which Workspace ONE feature incorporates network range, device platform, and authentication method into the decision-making when evaluating an access request from a user?
A. Sensors B. Compliance Policies C. Access Policies D. Restriction Profiles
When filtering firewall rules after selecting an object to filter by, which four columns do the filter search? (Choose four.)
A. Services B. Action C. Protocol D. Log E. Applied To F. Source G. Destinations
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the Cyber Kill events on the left into their proper sequential order on the right. Select and Place:
Refer to the exhibit. When attempting to run the recommended query for all Authorized SSH Keys in an organization, you see this view in the console.
Why are you not able to run the query?
A. You must schedule the query first before you can run the query B. The policy Windows Endpoints have no devices C. You need the ‘Use Recommended Query’ permission set in your role D. There are no Mac or Linux sensors in the selected policy
Which three common mitigations for social engineering attacks? (Choose three.)
A. user training B. filtering Email attachments C. update Antivirus software D. remove applications E. blocking the execution of suspicious files
Which is a common solution to implement for inbound network attacks?
A. Load Balancer B. Firewall C. Proxy D. Reverse Proxy
Which parameter ensures an endpoint will stay connected with the designated VMware Carbon Black Cloud tenant?
A. Company Code B. Organization Group ID C. Device Serial Number D. User ID
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QUESTION 1 An administrator would like to customize their admin consoles default branding to include the company logo and reflect the company\\’s text color and background. How would the administrator accomplish this task? A. Navigate to UEM Console, All Settings, System, Branding. Click Branding and edit the settings in the Branding page as appropriate. B. Navigate to the Configurations tab on the console. Click Branding. Edit the settings in the Branding page as appropriate. C. Navigate to the Hub Service console Home page. Click Branding. Edit the settings in the Branding page as appropriate. D. Navigate to UEM Console, All Settings, Hub Services. Click Branding and edit the settings in the Branding page as appropriate. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An administrator is tasked with determining the root cause for a recent outage where devices were not able to authenticate. An investigation revealed a single AirWatch Cloud Connector (ACC) server that had a disk error which caused it to be completely unresponsive. Which VMware resiliency recommendation would have prevented this outage? A. High Availability B. Disaster Recovery C. Cloud Hosted ACC D. Restart ACC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which three Workspace ONE Edge Services are included in Unified Access Gateway? (Choose three.) A. AirWatch Cloud Connector B. Content Gateway C. Secure Email Gateway D. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector E. VMware Tunnel Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 4 A customer has decided to use VMware Workspace ONE as their primary SAAS solution for endpoint management. The customer\\’s security team requires all infrastructure to support High Availability (HA). Which two components of Workspace ONE will need to be maintained by the customer? (Choose two.) A. AirWatch Cloud Connector B. Workspace ONE Database C. Console Services Servers D. Unified Access Gateway E. Device Services Server Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5 Which is required during installation of the Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector service? A. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector service must be installed on the AWCM Server. B. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector must be installed on the Console Server. C. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector service must be installed on the Device Services Server. D. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector must be installed on its own server. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE/services/intelligencedocumentation/GUID-04_intel_reqs.html
QUESTION 6 As a Workspace ONE administrator, you have been tasked with creating a custom visualization for management that shows device statistics, trust network threats, and application adoption metrics in a single view. Which feature of Workspace ONE can be used? A. Workspace ONE Intelligence Dashboards B. Workspace ONE Access Application View C. Workspace ONE Intelligence Automations D. Workspace ONE UEM Device List View Correct Answer: A Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-intelligence-architecture#workspace-one-uem
QUESTION 7 Which feature of Workspace ONE UEM can be configured to allow reports to run on a schedule and have them delivered to a subset of administrators? A. Windows Scheduled Tasks B. Report Subscriptions C. Timed Report Execution D. SQL Server Reporting Services Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which type of design is a diagram that includes network zones, network components, server locations, and hardware recommendations? A. Physical B. Logical C. Theoretical D. Conceptual Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 You are an administrator configuring custom reports in Workspace ONE Intelligence. What is the maximum number of custom reports you can create per Organization Group (OG)? A. 10 B. 50 C. 99 D. 500 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which two statements are true about Content Gateway and Tunnel on Unified Access Gateway? (Choose two.) A. Both can be configured with the same hostname on port 8443. B. Both can be configured with the same hostname on different ports. C. Both can be configured on port 8443 with different hostnames. D. Both can be configured with the same hostname on port 443. E. Both can be configured on port 443 with different hostnames. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13 A customer intends to implement Android device management in their environment. Which three enrollment options would result in an end-user experience in which a dedicated container is created on the device for only business applications and contents? (Choose three.) A. Knox Container B. Device Enrollment Program (DEP) C. Work Managed Device D. Legacy enrolled E. Corporate Owned Personally Enabled (COPE) F. Work Profile Correct Answer: CEF
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QUESTION 2 Which plane is responsible for creating and deleting network objects in the NSX-T Data Center Architecture? A. Control Plane B. Data Plane C. Life Cycle Plane D. Management Plane Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A customer needs to manage and extend their data center network into VMware Cloud on AWS and Microsoft Azure Cloud. Which VMware product should the customer use? A. NSX Cloud B. NSX Intelligence C. vCloud Director Extender D. vRealize Network Insight Cloud Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/nsx-cloud.html
QUESTION 8 A customer needs multi-cloud load balancing, web application firewall, and container ingress services across onpremises data centers and any cloud. Which product meets this customer\\’s needs? A. VMware HCX B. NSX Advanced Load Balancer C. NSX Cloud D. NSX Distributed IDS Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/nsx-advanced-load-balancer.html
Which statement is true about the firewall rule? A. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Servers, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22. B. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-1 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22. C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Servers, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22. D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which security services are natively provided by NSX-T Data Center? A. Network introspection B. Endpoint protection C. Distributed IDS D. Anti-virus protection Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 How does virtual networking enable business to reduce time-to-market? A. By performing automatic hardware upgrades B. By increasing traffic bandwidth C. By removing physical network devices D. By providing network services on demand Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.vmware.com/radius/virtual-cloud-networking-10-things/
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QUESTION 1 A customer wants to improve the performance of its vMotion migrations. The current configuration has only one VMkernel port group for vMotion using vmnic3. The customer has vmnicS available for use. What change can be made to increase vMotion performance? A. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink. * Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnic5 as an active uplink and vmnic3 as an active uplink. B. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink. * Do not create a second vMotion Port Group. C. * Add vmnicS to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink. * Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnicS as an active uplink and vmnic3 as a standby uplink. D. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink. * Do not create a second vMotion Port Group. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A company is a leading provider for an online travel booking system with over a $1,000,000 turnover each day. The company warns to leverage VMware cloud solutions to consolidate, scale, and ensure high availability for all of its data centers. Match each business requirement to its appropriate design concept. Select and Place:
QUESTION 3 You are a platform designer constructing a physical design from an existing approved logicaldesign. Out of the vendor proposals, there are two proposed solutions that could be used. Which of the following options is the most important factor when making a decision? A. Community and vendor-based best practices B. Existing vendor relationships C. Project requirements D. Project budget Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A business organization has different types of network traffic, and all the types of traffic must be kept separated. The design architect knows that the number of required networks is greater than the number of physical ports in the system. Which three choices can the architect use to keep the traffic separated? (Choose three.) A. Combine vMotion, Management, and vSAN to one VMkenel port. B. Configure VLANs to create separate networks. C. Purchase hardware that supports a greater number of network ports. D. Utilize Private VLANs. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5 The ability to live-migrate all virtual machines between two clusters is a requirement in the customer\\’s design. Which two clusters and EVC configurations will accomplish this? (Choose two) A. Cluster 1 1. ESXi 6.0 2. Intel Skylake CPUs 3. EVC Enabled: AMD OpteronTM”;Steamrolle”; Generation Cluster 2 1. ESXi 6.5 2. AMD Steamroller CPUs 3. EVC Enabled: AMD OpteronTM “Steamrolle”; Generation B. Cluster 1 1. ESXi 5.6 2. Intel?Broadwell CPUs 3. EVC Disabled Cluster 2 1. ESXi 6.5 2. Intel?Broadwell CPUs 3. EVC Disabled C. Cluster 1 1. ESXi 5.5 2. AMD Piledriver CPUs 3. EVC Enabled: AMD OpteronTM”;Piledrive”; Generation Cluster 2 1. ESXi 6.5 2. AMD Steamroller CPUs 3. EVC Enabled: AMD OpteronTM “Piledrive”; Generation D. Cluster 1 1. ESXi 6.5 2. Intel Broadwell CPUs 3. EVC Enabled: Intel?”Broadwe”t; Generation Cluster 2 1. ESXi 6.5 2. Intel Sandy Bridge CPUs 3. EVC Enabled: Intel?”Sandy Brid”t; Generation Correct Answer: BD A) No – EVC doesn\\’t work with different CPU vendors B) Yes, but officially not possible
QUESTION 6 A customer has requested that a new vSphere 6.5 environment be designed with its upcoming data center consolidation effort in mind. 1. The existing environment is a mix of physical and virtual servers 2. Fibre Channel storage is used for 100 vSphere ESXi hosts and 600 physical servers across three data centers, some of which contain latency sensitive applications critical to ongoing business 3. The customer expects to increase its virtualization ratio from 50% today to 90% at the conclusion of this effort, and wants the new design to feature a software-defined storage solution that will decrease their TCO. Which two statements are the business requirements in this scenario? (Choose two.) A. The design must include VMware vSAN as the primary storage solution B. The design must account for business-critical applications C. The design must increase virtualization adoption D. The design must reuse wherever possible to reduce cost Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7 You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 data center design for an organization. The organization has provided information via requirements gathering. Evaluate each statement and determine if the requirement is functional or nonfunctional. Match Requirements on the left by dragging the red buttons (R1-R9) over the text of the appropriate Classification. Select and Place:
QUESTION 8 You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 design for an organization. The customer wants to ensure isolation in the network but does not know when to incorporate physical networks, VLANs and PVLANs. Evaluate the design requirement and determine the isolation method to satisfy the design. Match each Design Requirement on the left by dragging the red Requirement buttons (R1-R5) over the text of the appropriate Isolation Method. NOTE: Multiple Design Requirements may fit each Isolation Method. Select and Place:
QUESTION 9 Customer Requirements: You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 data center design for an organization. The organization has provided a number of Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) requirements to meet their established Service Level Agreements (SLAs). The preliminary design will include two sites. Production Site: -6 ESXi hosts in two clusters -A Fiber Channel storage array with three types of storage: 1. Flash storage 2. 15K SAS drives with vFlash Read Cache 3. SATA drives in RAID 5 configuration Secondary Site: -3 ESXi hosts in a single cluster -A Fiber Channel storage array of the same type and with the same configuration as that of the production site The details of the organization\\’s SLAs include: -Gold: Maximize read/write storage performance and provide automated offsite recovery with an RPO -Silver: Maximize read performance and provide automated offsite recovery with an RPO from 15 minutes to 24 hours. -Bronze: No performance requirement. Onsite recovery with no specific RPO. The organization has a number of web-based multi-tier applications that are governed by their SLAs. The workloads in these applications and their SLA assignments include: -Database workloads -Gold -Application workloads -Silver -Web workloads -Bronze Note that Web servers only contain static information that is site specific. Design Requirements: Create a design that incorporates the required elements: – Place an SLA container for each of the appropriate SLAs into the appropriate sites. – Place the appropriate storage type(s) for each SLA into the SLA container. – Place the appropriate workload(s) into the SLA containers. – Place the appropriate BCDR components into the SLA containers. – Connect any replicated storage between the two sites using the appropriate replication connector. A. Check the answer in explanation. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A management company has requested that a new vSphere 6.5 design be developed to protect its existing data center investment while it expands to a second data center site and introduces process automation. 1. The existing environment consists of 32 vSphere 6.0 hosts attached to an iSCSI storage array containing external customer financial and medical records used by its investment and medical services divisions. 2. The customer is also interested in the ability to expand to and failover to a public cloud. Which two valid assumptions can be made about the new design? (Choose two.) A. The storage array is listed in the VMware Compatibility Guide (HCL/VCG) for vSphere 6.5. 12 B. The resulting design should utilize the existing hardware choices. C. Sufficient power and cooling exists in the second data center. D. Sufficient bandwidth exists between the sites for cross-cluster vMotion. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 According to VMware-recommended best practices, on which cluster should each of the services be placed? Select and Place:
QUESTION 12 A company has requested assistance with a new cross-site failover design to support business-critical applications. 1. It has two sites when are very well-connected, and latency is less than 5ms round trip. 2. The customer requires that its applications be restarted even in the event of a total site failure. 3. The applications must be kept online even when migrated during maintenance. 4. Storage arrays at either site support both synchronous and asynchronous replication. Which two options are accurate application requirements for this scenario? (Choose two.) A. The design must ensure continuous application uptime even during a total site failure. B. The design must prioritize application availability. C. The design must ensure application recoverability at the second site. D. The applications are latency-sensitive. Correct Answer: BC Requirements are: The customer requires that its applications be restarted even in the event of a total site failure; The applications must be kept online even when migrated during maintenance. Therefore: A) No customer requires the application to be restarted in an event of site failure. A restart implies a short downtime, while answer A states “continuous availability”, which is not true if a restart is involved (and false since the customer doesn\\’t require 100% uptime and it\\’s fine with a restart) B) Yes – 2 of the requirements are about having the application available during maintenance or after failover C) Yes – Same as A, application must be restarted on the secondary site if primary fails D) No – There are no info supporting this
QUESTION 13 A customer is virtualizing a mission-critical Microsoft SQL database and needs a configuration that provides optimal NUMA performance. 1. There are two possible clusters that the database virtual machine could reside in: Cluster A is vSphere 6.0 and Cluster B is vSphere 6.5. 2. All ESXi hosts contain dual Intel Xeon E5-2650 v3 processors (ie: 2 socket, 10 cores per socket) and 256Gb RAM with vNUMA in its default configuration. Given this scenario, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Enabling CPU Hot Add on a virtual machine will disable vNUMA. B. Placing a 10 vCPU VM in Cluster A and configuring it with 2 Sockets and 5 Cores Per Socket will result in 2 vNUMA nodes. C. Placing a 10 vCPU VM in Cluster B and configuring it with 2 Sockets and 5 Cores Per Socket will result in 2 vNUMA nodes. D. Enabling Memory Hot Add on a virtual machine will disable vNUMA. E. Placing the VM in Cluster B and configuring it with 5 Sockets and 2 Cores Per Socket will result in 1 vNUMA node. Correct Answer: ABC Enabling CPU Hot-Add disables vNUMA: https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2040375 As for the vNUMA in ESXi 6.0 vs 6.5, there have been some major changes. Really good article explaining it here: https://blogs.virtualmaestro.in/2018/05/vnuma-vmware-vsphere-65.html. Essentially, in 6.0 you defined the vNUMA domain by specifying Cores and Sockets (As described in the example). In 6.5, it is abstracted (simply multiplies Sockets and Cores together) and vSphere automatically decides the optimal vNUMA setting. In the example above, the 10 vCPU\\’s can fit on a single NUMA domain. https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2040375http://www.techspresso.com/vm-sizing-best-practices-in-vsphere/ https://blogs.vmware.com/performance/2017/03/virtual-machine-vcpu-and-vnuma-rightsizing-rules-of-thumb.html
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QUESTION 1 A certificate profile set to AUTO will expire in 2 days and no new certificates are being renewed. Which certificate template configuration can an administrator modify to start renewing these certificates sooner? A. Set or lower the certificate the private key length. B. Set or increase the certificate revocation period. C. Set or lower the certificate revocation period. D. Set or increase the certificate auto renewal period. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator is concerned with data loss on Workspace ONE managed endpoints. Which three configurations should be enabled to further improve the device security posture? (Choose three.) A. Enable verbose logging. B. Configure compliance policies to monitor rooted and jailbroken devices. C. Enable SMTP integration. D. Enable Data Loss Prevention policies. E. Enable device-level data encryption. F. Configure compliance policies to monitor Roaming Cell Data Usage. Correct Answer: BDE Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/workspace-one/device-security.html
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
The Workspace ONE Administrator has received complaints from end users that they are unable to access web applications from the Workspace ONE Access catalog. The exhibit displays the error end users received. What Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) configuration item should the administrator review in Workspace ONE Access for accuracy to resolve the reported issue? A. SAML Sign-On URL B. SAML Recipient C. SAML Entity ID D. SAML Certificate Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which is the default service lookup when configuring and integrating Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) in VMware Identity Manager? A. Active Directory Integrated Windows B. Active Directory over LDAP C. Enterprise OVA Connector D. Enterprise System Connector Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which is highly recommended to be installed for discovery services integration in a Software as a Service environment (SaaS)? A. AitWatch Cloud Connector B. AirWatch Cloud Messaging C. Workspace ONE Adaptive Connector D. AirWatch API components Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 An existing Workspace ONE environment contains 20,000 users/devices. An additional 25,000 users/devices are planning to be added to the system. The total number of users will be 45,000. Which is VMware\\’s best practice recommendation for determining the additional hardware that may be required? A. Add an additional server at each node to ensure overhead for the new device addition. B. No scaling will be needed for the additional device count and load on the environment. C. Review the latest recommended architecture documentation for server scalability recommendations. D. Review recommended architecture documentation from any version for server scalability recommendations. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 An administrator has received complaints from end-users not receiving consistent email notifications on their iOS devices. Email is configured on the end-users devices using only the VMware Boxer email client. Boxer is only configured from Workspace ONE to use Office 365. What can the administrator do to resolve the inconsistent email notifications? A. Configure VMware Email Notification Service v2 to provide consistent notification experience. B. Configure VPN tunnel with a Boxer configuration, so that it is able to connect to the internal network. C. Configure Secure Email Gateway v2 to provide a better notification experience. D. Configure Mobile SSO for VMware Boxer to prevent users from entering credentials. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which domain attribute must be included to meet the SAML assertion requirement for Just-in-Time (JIT) provisioning of users in the Workspace ONE Access service? A. distinguishedName B. userName C. firstName D. lastName Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 IT management has announced all traffic from the DMZ will be blocked unless it passes through a newly configured proxy, effective immediately. Administrators notice that SEGv2 is unable to contact the Workspace ONE API server. Which configuration will the administrators need to amend and apply to the SEGv2 servers? A. inbound proxy B. SSL offloading C. KCD integration D. outbound proxy Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/2001/WS1_SEGV2_Doc.pdf (21)
QUESTION 13 An administrator wants to use VMware Unified Access Gateway (UAG) appliance to enable devices to connect to internal resources without needing the Workspace ONE UEM SDK. Which method can the administrator use to deploy the UAG appliance? A. Manual install to a Linux Server B. PowerShell install to a Windows Server C. Manual install to a Windows Server D. PowerShell install to vSphere Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/Unified-Access-Gateway/3.5/uag-35-deploy-config-guide.pdf
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QUESTION 1 You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. The network interface for VM1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
You deploy a web server on VM1, and then create a secure website that is accessible by using the HTTPS protocol. VM1 is used as a web server only. You need to ensure that users can connect to the website from the internet. What should you do? A. Create a new inbound rule that allows TCP protocol 443 and configure the protocol to have a priority of 501. B. For Rule5, change the Action to Allow and change the priority to 401. C. Delete Rule1. D. Modify the protocol of Rule4. Correct Answer: B Rule 2 is blocking HTTPS access (port 443) and has a priority of 500. Changing Rule 5 (ports 50-5000) and giving it a lower priority number will allow access on port 443. Note: Rules are processed in priority order, with lower numbers processed before higher numbers, because lower numbers have higher priority. Once traffic matches a rule, processing stops. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Adam contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev. You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group. Solution: On Dev, you assign the Logic App Contributor role to the Developers group. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A The Logic App Contributor role lets you manage the logic app, but not access them. It provides access to view, edit, and update a logic app. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP You are configuring serverless computing in Azure. You need to receive an email message whenever a resource is created in or deleted from a resource group. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 You have an Azure resource manager template that will be used to deploy 10 Azure Web Apps. You have to ensure to deploy the pre-requisites before the deployment of the template. You have to minimize the costs associated with the implementation. Which of the following would you deploy as pre-requisites? A. An Azure Load Balancer B. An Application Gateway C. 10 Azure App Service Plans D. One App Service Plan Correct Answer: D In-App Service (Web Apps, API Apps, or Mobile Apps), an app always runs in an App Service plan. An App Service plan defines a set of computing resources for a web app to run. One App Service Plan: Correct Choice For an Azure Web App, you need to have an Azure App Service Plan in place. You can associate multiple Azure Web Apps with the same App Service Plan. Hence to save on costs, you can just have one Azure App Service Plan in place. An Azure Load Balancer: Incorrect Choice An Azure load balancer is a Layer-4 (TCP, UDP) load balancer that provides high availability by distributing incoming traffic among healthy VMs. A load balancer health probe monitors a given port on each VM and only distributes traffic to an operational VM An Application Gateway: Incorrect Choice Azure Application Gateway is a web traffic load balancer that enables you to manage traffic to your web applications. Traditional load balancers operate at the transport layer (OSI layer 4 – TCP and UDP) and route traffic based on source IP address and port, to a destination IP address and port. 10 Azure App Service Plans: Incorrect Choice For an Azure Web App, you need to have an Azure App Service Plan in place. You can associate multiple Azure Web Apps with the same App Service Plan. Hence to save on costs, you can just have one Azure App Service Plan in place. So there is no need for 10 App Service Plans. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/overview-hosting-planshttps://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/virtual-machines/windows/tutorial-load-balancerhttps://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/applicationgateway/overview
QUESTION 5 You need to use Azure Automation State Configuration to manage the ongoing consistency of a virtual machine configurations. Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate action from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select. Select and Place:
Step 1: Upload a configuration to the Azure Automation State Configuration. Import the configuration into the Automation account. Step 2: Compile a configuration into a node configuration. A DSC configuration defining that state must be compiled into one or more node configurations (MOF document), and placed on the Automation DSC Pull Server. Step 3: Onboard the virtual machines to Azure Automation State Configuration. Onboard the Azure VM for management with Azure Automation State Configuration Step 4: Assign the node configuration Step 5: Check the compliance status of the node Each time Azure Automation State Configuration performs a consistency check on a managed node, the node sends a status report back to the pull server. You can view these reports on the page for that node. On the blade for an individual report, you can see the following status information for the corresponding consistency check: The report states – whether the node is “Compliant”, the configuration “Failed”, or the node is “Not Compliant” References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/automation/automation-dsc-getting-started
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource groups. Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription. You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks. Solution: You create a resource lock, and then you assign the lock to the subscription. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B How can I freeze or lock my production/critical Azure resources from accidental deletion? There is a way to do this with both ASM and ARM resources using Azure resource lock. References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2016/04/27/using-azure-resource-manager-policy-and-azure-lock-to-controlyour-azure-resources/
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You deploy an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named AKS1. You need to deploy a YAML file to AKS1. Solution: From Azure Cloud Shell, you run az aks. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Installing Azure CLI doesn\\’t mean that Azure Kubernates client is installed. So before running kubectl client command, you have install kubectl, the Kubernetes command-line client. First need to run az aks install-cli to install Kubernetes CLI, which is kubectl Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/aks?view=azure-cli-latest
QUESTION 8 You have an Azure subscription that includes data in following locations:
You plan to export data by using Azure import/export job named Export1. You need to identify the data that can be exported by using Export1. Which data should you identify? A. DB1 B. Table1 C. container1 D. Share1 Correct Answer: C Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage. Only the Blob service is supported with the Export job feature
QUESTION 9 You have an Azure App Service plan named AdatumASP1 that uses the P2v2 pricing tier. AdatumASP1 hosts Ml Azure web app named adatumwebapp1. You need to delegate the management of adatumwebapp1 to a group named Devs. Devs must be able to perform the following tasks: 1. Add deployment slots. 2. View the configuration of AdatumASP1. 3. Modify the role assignment for adatumwebapp1. Which role should you assign to the Devs group? A. Owner B. Contributor C. Web Plan Contributor D. Website Contributor Correct Answer: A Owner : Correct Choice The Owner role lets you manage everything, including access to resources. Contributor : Incorrect Choice With contributor role you can Add deployment slots and View the configuration of App service plan but you can\\’t Modify the role assignment. For this you need User Access Administrator or Owner role. So this is incorrect. Web Plan Contributor : Incorrect Choice The Web Plan Contributor role lets you manage the web plans for websites, but not access to them. So this option is incorrect. Website Contributor : Incorrect Choice The Website Contributor role lets you manage websites (not web plans), but not access to them. So this is incorrect option. Note: As per least privilege principle it is not advisable to provide owner role to any group, rather you should create custom RBAC role with custom policy and use that role for this operation. However as this option is not available here so only option to go with owner role. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/role-assignments-portal https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to create a conditional access policy that requires all users to use multi-factor authentication when they access the Azure portal. Which three settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area. Hot Area:
Box 1: Assignments, Users and Groups When you configure the sign-in risk policy, you need to set: The users and groups the policy applies to: Select Individuals and Groups
Box 3: When you configure the sign-in risk policy, you need to set: The type of access you want to be enforced when your sign-in risk level has been met:
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template named ARM1.json. You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance. You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately. Solution: Solution: From the Overview blade, you move the virtual machine to a different subscription. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B You would need to Redeploy the VM. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/redeploy-to-new-node
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT You have an Azure Storage account named storage1 that uses Azure Blob storage and Azure File storage. You need to use AzCopy to copy data to the blob storage and file storage in storage1. Which authentication method should you use for each type of storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
You can provide authorization credentials by using Azure Active Directory (AD), or by using a Shared Access Signature (SAS) token. Box 1: Both Azure Active Directory (AD) and Shared Access Signature (SAS) token are supported for Blob storage. Box 2: Only Shared Access Signature (SAS) token is supported for File storage. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy-v10
QUESTION 13 You have a hybrid infrastructure that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant contains the users shown in the following table.
You plan to share a cloud resource to the All Users group. You need to ensure that User1, User2, User3, and User4 can connect successfully to the cloud resource. What should you do first? A. Create a user account of the member type for User4. B. Create a user account of the member type for User3. C. Modify the Directory-wide Groups settings. D. Modify the External collaboration settings. Correct Answer: C Ensure that “Enable an \\’All Users\\’ group in the directory” policy is set to “Yes” in your Azure Active Directory (AD) settings in order to enable the “All Users” group for centralized access administration. This group represents the entire collection of Active Directory users, including guests and external users, that you can use to make the access permissions easier to manage within your directory. Incorrect Answers: A, B: User3 and User4 are guests already. Note: By default, all users and guests in your directory can invite guests even if they\\’re not assigned to an admin role. External collaboration settings let you turn guest invitations on or off for different types of users in your organization. You can also delegate invitations to individual users by assigning roles that allow them to invite guests. References: https://www.cloudconformity.com/knowledge-base/azure/ActiveDirectory/enable-all-users-group.html
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QUESTION 1 Who creates a Product Backlog Item\\’s estimate? A. The Development Team after clarifying requirements with the Product Owner. B. The Product Owner with input from the Development Team. C. The most senior people in the organization, including architects and subject matter experts. D. The Scrum Master. E. The Development Team, alone. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What two factors are best considered when establishing the Sprint length? (Choose two.) A. The organization has mandated similar length sprints. B. The level of uncertainty over the technology to be used. C. The frequency at which team formation can be changed. D. The risk of being disconnected from the stakeholders. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3 What are the two primary ways a Scrum Master keeps a Development Team working at its highest level of productivity? (Choose two.) A. By ensuring the meetings start and end at the proper time. B. By removing impediments that hinder the Development Team. C. By facilitating Development Team decisions. D. By keeping high value features high in the Product Backlog. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 Select two ways in which technical debt impacts transparency. (Choose two.) A. When calculated and estimated, the total amount of technical debt shows exactly how long until the Product Owner can release the Increment. B. It leads to false assumptions about the current state of the system, specifically of an Increment being releasable at the end of a Sprint. C. As development progresses and code is added, the system becomes more difficult to stabilize, which results in future work being slowed down in unpredictable ways. D. It enhances transparency for the Product Owner as a Development Team is not allowed to do additional feature development in a Sprint as long as there is technical debt. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5 The Sprint Goal is a result of Sprint Planning, as is the Sprint Backlog. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Who should make sure everyone on the Development Team does his or her tasks for the Sprint? A. The Project Manager. B. The Product Owner. C. The Scrum Master. D. The Development Team. E. All of the above. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 During a Sprint Retrospective, the Development Team proposes moving the Daily Scrum to only occur on Tuesdays and Thursdays. Which two are the most appropriate responses for the Scrum Master? (Choose two.) A. Consider the request and decide on which days the Daily Scrum should occur. B. Coach the team on why the Daily Scrum is important as an opportunity to update the plan. C. Have the developers vote. D. Learn why the Development Team wants this and work with them to improve the outcome of the Daily Scrum. E. Acknowledge and support the self-organizing team\\’s decision. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8 What is the time-box for the Sprint Review? A. As long as needed. B. 2 hours for a monthly Sprint. C. 4 hours for a monthly Sprint. D. 4 hours and longer as needed. E. 1 day Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 The Scrum Master observes the Product Owner struggling with ordering the Product Backlog. What is an appropriate action for the Scrum Master to take? A. Suggest the Product Owner extend the Sprint, so he can have more time to order the Product Backlog. B. Suggest that the Development Team does the ordering to be sure that it is a feasible ordering of work. C. Offer the Product Owner help in understanding that the goal of ordering the Product Backlog is to maximize value. D. Present the Product Owner with an ordered Product Backlog to use. E. Encourage the Product Owner to work with the Development Team to see which items technically are fastest to implement. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which three of the following are feedback loops in Scrum? (Choose three.) A. Sprint Review. B. Release Planning. C. Sprint Retrospective. D. Refinement Meeting. E. Daily Scrum. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 11 A Scrum Master is working with a Development Team that has members in different physical locations. The Development Team meets in a variety of meeting rooms and has much to do logistically (for example, set up conference calls) before the Daily Scrum. What action should the Scrum Master take? A. Allow the Development Team to self-manage and determine for itself what to do. B. Set up the meeting and tell the Development Team that is how it will be done. C. Ask the Development Team members to alternate who is responsible for meeting setup. D. Inform management and ask them to solve it. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 When is it most appropriate for a Development Team to change the definition of “Done”? A. During Spring Planning. B. Prior to starting a new Sprint. C. During the Sprint Retrospective. D. Prior to starting a new project. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which three of the following are time-boxed events in Scrum? (Choose three.) A. Release Testing. B. Release Retrospective. C. Sprint Retrospective. D. Sprint Planning. E. Sprint Testing. F. Sprint 0. G. Daily Scrum. Correct Answer: CDG
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