[2018 Certification Dumps] Latest Cisco 642-999 Dumps DCUCI Exam CCNP Data Center Youtube Study Guide Free Download 173Q&As [33 to 53]

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642-999 dumps

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QUESTION 33
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume
642-999 exam 
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 34
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 35
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
642-999 dumps 
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 36
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 37
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
642-999 pdf 
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 38
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 39
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v
642-999 vce 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 41
Which two VMware features must be turned off in the data center cluster for Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough to operate? (Choose two.)
A. VMCI
B. DRS
C. FT
D. HA
E. vMotion
642-999 exam 
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 42
A perpetual inventory system uses a minimum quantity on hand to initiate purchase ordering procedures for restocking. In reviewing the appropriateness of the minimum quantity level established by the stores department, the internal auditor is least likely to consider
A. Stockout costs, including lost customers.
B. Seasonal variations in forecasting inventory demand.
C. Optimal order sizes determined by the economic order quantities model.
D. Available storage space and potential obsolescence.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic economic order quantity EOQ) model is based on the following variables: demand,variable cost per purchase order, and variable unit carrying cost. Thus, minimum stockinglevels do not affect the EOQ.

QUESTION 43
An organization must manage its flows of raw materials, components, finished goods, services, or information through intermediaries to ultimate consumers. These flows may occur across the functions in an organization’s:
A. Supply chain.
B. Value chain.
C. Logistic chain.
D. Integrated chain.
642-999 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The supply chain consists of flows from sources of a) raw materials, b) components, c)finished goods, d) services, or e) information through intermediaries to ultimate consumers.
These flows and the related activities may occur across the functions in an organization’svalue chain R&D, design, production, marketing, distribution, and customer service). Theseflours and the related activities also may occur across separate organizations.

QUESTION 44
The bullwhip, or whiplash, effect on inventories begins when retailers face uncertain demand from consumers caused by randomness in buying habits. It can be avoided by:
A. The need to purchase or manufacture goods in cost-efficient batches.
B. Changes in price that may encourage purchases in anticipation of future increases.
C. Shortages that may lead to rationing by suppliers or manufacturers and hoarding bymanufacturers or retailers.
D. Sharing of information and coordination among the organizations in the supply chain.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sharing information about sales, inventory, pricing, advertising campaigns, and salesforecasts by all functions and organizations in the supply chain moderates demanduncertainty for all parties. The desired results are a) minimization of inventories held bysuppliers, manufacturers, and retailers; b) avoidance of stackouts; c) fewer rush orders; andd) production as needed by retailers.

QUESTION 45
A desired result of the sharing of information by all functions and organizations in the supply chain is:
A. Fewer rush orders.
B. Maximization of inventories held by suppliers, manufacturers, and retailers.
C. Stockouts.
D. Incompatibility of the information systems of the parties.
642-999 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sharing information about sales, inventory, pricing, advertising campaigns, and salesforecasts by all functions and organizations in the supply chain moderates demanduncertainty for all parties. The desired results are a) minimization of inventories held bysuppliers, manufacturers, and retailers; b) avoidance of stackouts; c) fewer rush orders; andd) production as needed by retailers.

QUESTION 46
Which of the following are intermediaries between sellers and buyers?
I.Agent
II. Broker
III. Consignee I. Consumer
A. I and II only.
B. I and III only.
C. I, II, and III only.
D. I, II, III, and Isl.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A distribution channel is a series of interdependent marketing institutions that facilitate thetransfer of a product from producer seller) to consumer buyer). Intermediaries includemerchant middlemen, agents, brokers, consignees, and facilitating intermediaries.

QUESTION 47
The channel structure in which producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system is a:
A. Horizontal distribution system.
B. Vertical distribution system.
C. Unilateral distribution system.
D. Multichannel system.
642-999 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In vertical distribution systems, producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system. Channel conflict is managed through common ownership, contractual relationships, oradministration by one or a few dominant channel members. Horizontal distribution systemsconsist of two or more companies at one level of the channel working together to exploit newopportunities, such as the introduction of ATMs in supermarkets. The joint nature ofhorizontal distribution efforts is the tool for managing channel conflict. In a multichannelsystem, a single firm sets up two or more channels to reach one or more customer segments. Because such a system is managed by a single firm, channel conflicts can be evaluated andmanaged internally.

QUESTION 48
Which of the following channel structures have the best means of managing channel conflict?
I.Conventional
II. Vertical
III. Horizontal
IV. Multichannel

A. I andII.
B. II, III, and IV.
C. I, III, and IV.
D. II and III.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In vertical distribution systems, channel conflict is managed through common ownership,contractual relationships, or administration by one or a few dominant channel members. Thejoint nature of horizontal distribution efforts is the tool for managing channel conflict. In amultichannel system, because such a system is managed by a single entity, channel conflictscan be evaluated and managed internally. Conventional distribution systems consist of one ormore independent producers, wholesalers, and retailers, each of which is a separate profitmaximizingbusiness. The profit objective of each independent channel member may resultin actions that are not profit-maximizing for the system as a whole, and the conventionaldistribution system offers no means for controlling channel conflict.

QUESTION 49
The airlines have been leaders in the use of technology. Customers can make reservations either with an airline or through a travel agency. In this situation, a travel agency is classified as which type of distribution channel?
A. An intermediary.
B. A jobber.
C. A distributor.
D. A facilitating agent.
642-999 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Marketing intermediaries assist companies in promoting, selling, and distributing their goodsand services to ultimate consumers. For example, travel agents access an airline’scomputerized reservation system and make reservations for their customers without evertaking title to the ticket.

QUESTION 50
Physical distribution is the moving of finished products to:
A. Retail outlets.
B. Shipping point.
C. Consumers.
D. Warehouses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical distribution is the efficient management of supply chains. It controls value-addedflows from suppliers to consumers.

QUESTION 51
Intensive distribution is most likely to be used for:
A. Shopping goods.
B. Specialty goods.
C. Convenience goods.
D. Unsought goods.
642-999 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Convenience goods are consumer goods and services that are usually low-priced and I widelyavailable. Consumers buy them often and with a minimum of comparison and effort. Examples are soap and newspapers. Producers of convenience goods ordinarily use intensivedistribution to sell their products through a large number of retail or
wholesale units.

QUESTION 52
A distribution channel moves goods from producers to customers. Suppose a channel has four producers, each serving the same four customers, and no middlemen. If a distributor is introduced, the number of contacts among producers, customers, and the distributor) in the channel will:
A. Be unaffected.
B. Decrease from 8 to 4.
C. Increase from 8 to 16.
D. Decrease from 16 to 8.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The number of contacts without a distributor is 16 four producers four customers). Thenumber with a distributor is 8 four producers +four customers). Thus, the effort required ofproducers and consumers is reduced by the distributor, thereby increasing marketingefficiency.

QUESTION 53
Which of the following is not a component of physical distribution?
A. Transportation.
B. Pricing.
C. Location of retail outlets.
D. Warehousing.
642-999 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical distribution market logistics) involves planning, implementing, and controlling themovement of materials and final goods to meet customer needs while earning a profit. Physical distribution systems coordinate suppliers, purchasing agents, marketers, channels,and customers. They include warehousing, transportation, and retail outlets.

642-999 dumps

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QUESTION 35
A network engineer is troubleshooting and configures the ASA logging level to debugging. The logging-buffer is dominated by %ASA-6-305009 log messages. Which command suppresses those syslog messages while maintaining ability to troubleshoot?
A. no logging buffered 305009
B. message 305009 disable
C. no message 305009 logging
D. no logging message 305009
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which option describes the purpose of the input parameter when you use the packet-tracer command on a Cisco device?
A. to provide detailed packet-trace information
B. to specify the source interface for the packet trace
C. to display the trace capture in XML format
D. to specify the protocol type for the packet trace
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which two options are two purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace
C. to inject virtual packets into the data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to correct dropped packets in a production network
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which set of commands enables logging and displays the log buffer on a Cisco ASA?
A. enable logging show logging
B. logging enable show logging
C. enable logging int e0/1 view logging
D. logging enable logging view config
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which command displays syslog messages on the Cisco ASA console as they occur?
A. Console logging <level>
B. Logging console <level>
C. Logging trap <level>
D. Terminal monitor
E. Logging monitor <level>
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which set of commands creates a message list that includes all severity 2 (critical) messages on a Cisco security device?
A. logging list critical_messages level 2 console logging critical_messages
B. logging list critical_messages level 2
  logging console critical_messages
C. logging list critical_messages level 2 logging console enable critical_messages
D. logging list enable critical_messages level 2 console logging critical_messages
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
An administrator is deploying port-security to restrict traffic from certain ports to specific MAC addresses. Which two considerations must an administrator take into account when using the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration will be updated with MAC addresses from traffic seen ingressing the port. The configuration will automatically be saved to NVRAM if no other changes to the configuration have been made.
B. The configuration will be updated with MAC addresses from traffic seen ingressing the port. The configuration will not automatically be saved to NVRAM.
C. Only MAC addresses with the 5th most significant bit of the address (the ‘sticky’ bit) set to 1 will be learned.
D. If configured on a trunk port without the ‘vlan’ keyword, it will apply to all vlans.
E. If configured on a trunk port without the ‘vlan’ keyword, it will apply only to the native vlan.
300-206 vce Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 198
You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 2.0.
You configure the application at the following levels:
l Root Web
l Web application root directory
l Web site
l Web application subdirectory
In which of the following files will these levels be stored?
A. Manhine.config
B. Proxy auto-config
C. ApplicationName.config
D. Web.config
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 199
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You create a Console application named ConsoleApplication4. You use the System.Security.Cryptography namespace. You want to use the key lengths of 384 bits to 16384 bits. You use RSACryptoServiceProvider class to encrypt and decrypt data. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, true);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,false);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
B.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, false);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,false);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
C.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, false);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,true);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
D.
UnicodeEncoding ByteConverter = new UnicodeEncoding();
byte[] DataToEncrypt = ByteConverter.GetBytes(“Encrypt this line for testing”);
byte[] encryptData;
byte[] decryptData;
RSACryptoServiceProvider RSA = new RSACryptoServiceProvider();
encryptData = RSA.Encrypt(DataToEncrypt, true);
Console.WriteLine(“Encrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(encryptData));
decryptData = RSA.Decrypt(encryptData,true);
Console.WriteLine(“Decrypted : {0}”, ByteConverter.GetString(decryptData));
300-206 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 200
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create an application that will be used by all the branches of the company. You use the Regex class in the application to validate some strings. You want to search an input string for an occurrence of a regular expression. Which of the following methods of the Regex class will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Matches
B. Match
C. IsMatch
D. Equals
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 201
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are developing an application using .NET Framework 2.0. You are required to use a datatype that will store only the numbers. The numbers should be in positive form and should not be larger than 65,535. Which of the following datatypes will you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. System.UInt16
B. ushort
C. System.Int16
D. int
E. short
300-206 dumps Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 202
Mark works as a Software Developer for BlueWell Inc. He is required to create a class, named Members. Each element of this class has a unique ID stored in a database field, named Member_ID. Which of the following options will he use to represent Member_ID, while designing the Members class?
A. Event
B. Method
C. Function
D. Property
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 203
George works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates an application named App1 using Visual Studio .NET. App1 uses the version 2.0.0.0 of an assembly named Assembly1. However, he wants App1 to use a new version i.e. 2.1.0.0 of Assembly1. Therefore, he needs to specify Assembly1’s location so that App1 can use version 2.1.0.0 of Assembly1. What will George use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The <probing> element.
B. A managed code.
C. The <codeBase> element.
D. An unmanaged code.
300-206 pdf Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 204
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You use C# .NET to develop a windows application. The application will implement a role-based authorization scheme that is based on a Microsoft SQL Server database of user names. Users will enter their names in a text box named UserName. You must ensure that users are assigned the supervisor role and the PG role by  default. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task?
A. GenericIdentity identity = new GenericIdentity(UserName.Text);
string[] RoleArray = {“Supervisor”, “PG”};
WindowsPrincipal principal = new WindowsPrincipal(identity);
B. WindowsIdentity identity = new WindowsIdentity.GetAnonymous();
string[] RoleArray = {“Supervisor”, “PG”};
WindowsPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, RoleArray);
C. GenericIdentity identity = new GenericIdentity(UserName.Text);
string[] RoleArray = {“Supervisor”, “PG”};
GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, RoleArray);
D. WindowsIdentity identity = new WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent();
string[] RoleArray ={“Supervisor”, “PG”}; GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, RoleArray);
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 205
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create the definition for a Car class by using the following code segment:
public class Car {
[XmlAttribute(AttributeName = “category”)]
public string CarType;
public string model;
[XmlIgnore]
public int year;
[XmlElement(ElementName = “mileage”)]
public int miles;
public ConditionType condition;

public Car() {
}
public enum ConditionType {
[XmlEnum(“Poor”)] BelowAverage,
[XmlEnum(“Good”)] Average,
[XmlEnum(“Excellent”)] AboveAverage
}}
You create an instance of the Car class. You fill the public fields of the Car class as shown in the table below:
You are required to recognize the XML block that is produced by the Car class after serialization. Which of the following XML blocks represents the output of serializing the Car class?
A. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema”
category=”sedan”>
<model>racer</model>
<mileage>15000</mileage>
<condition>Excellent</condition>
</Car>
B. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema”>
<category>sedan</category>
<model>racer</model>
<mileage>15000</mileage>
<condition>Excellent</condition>

</Car>
C. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema””
CarType=”sedan”>
<model>racer</model>
<miles>15000</miles>
<condition>AboveAverage</condition>
</Car>
D. <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<Car
xmlns:xsi=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema-instance”
xmlns:xsd=”http://www.w3.org/2002/XMLSchema”
category=”sedan”>
<model>racer</model>
<mileage>15000</mileage>
<conditionType>Excellent</conditionType>
</Car>
300-206 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 206
You work as a Software Developer for Blue Well Inc. You create a mobile Web application for mobile users. You want to ensure that a cookieless session is implemented on it. Which of the following statements are the main reasons of implementing a cookieless session on a mobile Web application? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Tests mobile Web applications
B. Stores data in Web server memory
C. Ensures better compatibility with mobile devices
D. Maintains session state of each user
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 207
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. You create a Windows application using the .NET Framework. You create a database to maintain the record of the students. You create a table named Student. You want to retrieve names and roll number of those students whose age is less than ten years. An instance of the SqlCommand class named StudentCommand is already created. Which of the following code segments should you use to execute the query?
A. StudentCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; StudentCommand.CommandText = “SELECT Name, Roll number FROM Student WHERE Age <10”;
B. StudentCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
StudentCommand.CommandText = “Name and Roll number of students less than ten years”;
C. StudentCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text;
StudentCommand.CommandText = “SELECT Name, Roll number FROM Student WHERE Age <10”;
D. StudentCommand.CommandText = CommandText.Text;
StudentCommand.CommandType = “SELECT Name, Roll number FROM Student WHERE Age <10”;
300-206 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 208
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are developing the data access component that all applications in your company intranet will use to access Microsoft SQL Server. You must include code to correctly catch and iterate through any number of errors that could be encountered when
connecting to SQL Server. Which code segment should you choose?
A. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)){
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
} catch (SqlException ex) {
foreach (SqlError error in ex.Errors) {
// handle the exception…
}
} finally {
// clean up

}
}
B. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)){
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (SqlException ex) {
foreach (SqlError error in ex.Errors) {
// handle the exception…
}
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
} finally {
// clean up
}
}
C. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString))}
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (SqlException ex) {
switch (ex.Number) {
case 1:
// handle the exception…
break;
default:
// handle the exception…
break;
}
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
}
}
D. string connectionString =
“server=(local); database=Northwind;”
+ “integrated security=true;”;
using (SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)){
try {
cnn.Open();
} catch (SqlException ex) {
switch (ex.Number) {
case 1:
// handle the exception…

break;
default:
// handle the exception…
break;
}
} catch (Exception ex) {
// handle the exception…
} finally {
// clean up
}
}
Answer: B

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QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit

300-115 dumps

which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?
A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into err
disabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port

B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 180
What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 181
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
300-115  exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 182
Question about trunk configuration
int faX/X
switchport trunk allowed vlan x,x,x,x
switchport mode trunk
exit
show vlan
VLAN Name Status Ports
1 default active Fa0/1, Fa0/3, Fa0/3, FaX/X show interface trunk (no output)
A. link is shutdown
B. interface needs no shutdown
C. other side is configured as access port
D. missing switchport command

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 183
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The
application will perform security related operations. You want to manage the role-based security in the application. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the StackTrace property.
B. Use the Process class.
C. Use the WindowsIdentity class.
D. Use the WindowsPrincipal class.
300-115  dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 184
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company. You sometimes require a variable number of arguments to be passed to a method. For example, you may require a sum method, which calculates the total of the numbers passed to it no matter how many numbers are passed. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the out keyword.
B. Use the base keyword.
C. Use the volatile keyword.
D. Use the params keyword.
E. Use the ref keyword.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 185
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create a remoting application that provides stock information to customers using .NET Framework. The server component raises an event on the client computer when certain conditions are met. You must ensure that the server raises exactly one event for each client application that is registered for the event. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the server class as a SingleCall Activated Object (SAO) and check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
B. Configure the server class as a Singleton Activated Object (SAO) and check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
C. Configure the server class as a Client Activated Object (CAO) and override the CreateObjRef method to check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
D. Configure the server class as a Client Activated Object (CAO) and check for duplicate client delegate methods before raising the event.
300-115 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 186
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You are creating an assembly named Assem1 using .NET Framework. Assem1 contains a public method. The global cache contains a second assembly named Assem2. You need to ensure that the public method is only called from Assem2. Which of the following permission classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. DataProtectionPermission
B. PublisherIdentityPermission
C. StrongNameIdentityPermission
D. GacIdentityPermission
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 187
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. The application is used to map HTTP requests to HTTP handlers based on a file name extension. You need to ensure that each HTTP handler processes individual HTTP URLs or groups of URL extensions in the application. Which of the following built-in HTTP handlers will you use to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Web service handler (*.asmx)
B. Generic handler (*.ashx)
C. Generic Web handler (*.ashx)
D. ASP.NET page handler (*.aspx)
E. Trace handler (trace.axd)
300-115 vce 
Answer: A,C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following code snippets is an example of tight encapsulation?
A. protected int x;
protected void fun(){x=5;}
B. int x;
public void fun(){x=5;}
C. public int x;
public void fun() {x=5;}
D. private int x;
public void fun(){x=5;}
E. private int x;
private void fun(){x=5;}
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 189
John works as a Web Developer for ABC Inc. He develops an ASP.NET application, named MyApp1, using Visual Studio .NET. The application will be used in the Sales department to generate monthly reports. John wants to deploy the application on the company’s intranet. The company uses Microsoft Windows authentication. John wants to deny access to all the members of the Guest1 role. Which of the following attributes will he use in the <authorization> element of the application’s Web.config file to accomplish the task?
A. <deny=”Guest1″ />
B. <deny users=Guest1(“All”) />
C. <deny users=”Guest1″ />
D. <deny roles=”Guest1″ />
300-115  exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 190
You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. You write code in the application and execute it, but it caused an error. Now, you want to find out the reason that has thrown the exception. Which of the following properties will you use to accomplish this task?
A. Message
B. TraceSwitch
C. Data
D. Source
E. StackTrace
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 191
You work as an Application Developer for ABC. The company uses Visual Studio .NET Framework 3.5 as its application development platform. You are working on enhancements to an existing WPF application. One problem you have been encountering is that users of the current version routinely enter invalid data, and since the controls use data binding, that data either gets put in the database incorrectly, or in some cases generates a database error. You want to incorporate validation with your data bound controls. Which of the following choices is the best way to accomplish this goal?
A. Use the default error template and implement it when binding the individual controls to the data source.
B. Assign validator controls to each control you wish to validate, and incorporate those in the binding of that control to the data source.
C. Use a custom error template and implement it when binding the individual controls to the data source.
D. Assign validator controls to each control you wish to validate, and set the validation properties to indicate what constitutes valid data.
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 192
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You create a Console application to create multiple satellite assemblies. Which of the following statements about satellite assemblies are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. They do not contain any executable code.
B. They are used to deploy language-specific resources for an application.
C. The Assembly Linker tool is used to compile .resources files into satellite assemblies.
D. An application can have only one satellite assembly.
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 193
Julia works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. She develops an application using Visual Studio .NET. The application uses a method named MyMethod, which is located in an unmanaged DLL. Julia wants MyMethod to require the application to allocate unmanaged memory, fill the data, and pass the memory address to the application. She also wants to ensure that on returning from MyMethod, the application de-allocates the unmanaged memory. What will Julia do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the methods of the MemoryStream class.
B. Use the Marshal class.
C. Derive a new class from the Stream class, and override the allocation methods.
D. Use a byte array.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 194
Maria works as a Software Developer for BlueWell Inc. She develops an application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. The application displays employee details from a SQL Server database.
Maria wants to use a string
array, named MyArray, in the application code to store employee names. Which of the following statements will she use to declare MyArray?
A. string MyArray[9] = new string;
B. string[] MyArray = new string[0 to 9];
C. string[] MyArray = new string[9];
D. Option Base 1
string[] MyArray = new string[9];
E. Option Base 0
string[] MyArray = new string[9];
300-115 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 195
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You need to represent a strongly typed lambda expression as a data structure in the form of an expression tree. Which of the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MethodCallExpression
B. Expression
C. LambdaExpression
D. Expression(TDelegate)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 196
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You have created a console application that uses two threads, named thread1 and thread2. You need to modify the code to prevent the execution of thread1 until thread2 completes its execution. Which of the following steps will you take to accomplish this task?
A. Call the SpinWait() method of thread1.
B. Use a WaitCallBack delegate to synchronize the threads.
C. Call the sleep() method of thread1.
D. Configure thread1 to run at a lower priority.
E. Configure thread2 to run at a higher priority.
300-115 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 197
You work as a Software Developer for Hi-Tech Inc. You develop an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. You create an unregistered COM DLL file named Com1.dll. You want to use this
Com1.dll file in your application code. However, Com1.dll needs to be registered in the Windows Registry before it is used by the application. Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Wsdl.exe
B. Regsvr32.exe
C. Tlbimp.exe
D. Disco.exe
Answer: B

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QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.  You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013. You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio Team System project file. Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated content databases for the storage of personal site collections. You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites. What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm. You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site collection. What permission level should you configure?
A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index. Users report that search results are too broad. You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results. Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the application server. You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message attachments in libraries. You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
70-331 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 18
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 19
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.

D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 21
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255. 255. 255. 0. Now create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA. Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
70-331 exam  Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 23
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 25
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP

D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 26
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
70-331 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C

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Question: 5
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains multiple servers that have Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. A DPM server named Server1 is running out of hard disk space. You add additional physical hard disks to Server1. You verify that the additional disks are available from the local Disk Management console. You need to ensure that the additional disk space can be used to store DPM backups. What should you do?
A. From the DPM Administrator console, click Refresh.
B. From the DPM Administrator console, click Disk Allocation.
C. From the DPM Administrator console, click Add.
D. From the DPM Administrator console, click Rescan.
70-246 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
To add disks to the storage pool In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar, click Management, and then click the Disks tab. In the Actions pane, click Add. The Add Disks to Storage Pool dialog box appears. The Available disks section lists the disks that you can add to the storage pool. Select one or more disks, click Add, and then click OK. Adding Disks to the Storage Pool

Question: 6
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy Data Protection Manager (DPM) to the private cloud. You configured DPM to back up the following information on 20 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2:
Data volumes
System state data
Volume mount points
You discover that the system state backup fails on all of the servers. You can verify that all other data is backed up successfully.
You need to ensure that the system state backup completes successfully on all of the servers. What should you do?
A. Install Windows Server Backup on each server.
B. Connect each server to a dedicated LUN.
C. Reinstall the DPM agent on each server.

D. Add each server to a dedicated protection group.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A system state backup uses the Windows Server Backup feature to take a snapshot of the system state and saves it locally to the server before moving it to the DPM server storage pool. Troubleshooting Data Protection Manager System State and Bare Metal Backup

Question: 7
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. An administrator installs a new tape drive on a server that has Data Protection Manager (DPM) installed. You discover that the tape drive is unavailable from the DPM Administrator console. You verify that the tape drive is installed correctly on the DPM server. You need to ensure that the tape drive is available from the DPM Administrator console. What should you do from the DPM Administrator console?
A. From the Agents view, click Install.
B. From the Disks tab, click Add.
C. From the Protection view, click Tape.
D. From the Libraries view, click Rescan.
70-246 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
To configure tape libraries In DPM Administrator Console, on the navigation bar click Management, and then click the Libraries tab. In the Actions pane, click Rescan. The Rescan operation might take several minutes to complete. DPM will add any library jobs to the queue that began during the Rescan operation. If a library job is already in progress when the Rescan operation begins, the Rescan operation will fail. Configuring Tape Libraries

Question: 8
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You install the servers shown in the following table.
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The company’s compliance department identifies the following tasks that must be performed:
Back up individual files from VM1.
Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
The compliance department administrators recommend installing the DPM agent on Server1, and then performing a full backup. You need to identify which task is NOT met by the recommended solution. Which task should you identify?
A. Restore individual files from VM1 to an alternate location.
B. Restore the configuration settings of VM1.
C. Back up the configuration settings of VM1.
D. Back up individual files from VM1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the event of disaster recovery, System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM) 2010 allows you to recover virtual machines as files to a network folder. You can then copy those files to an alternate Hyper-V host server. However, to start a virtual machine on an alternate Hyper-V host server, you have to manually create and configure the virtual machine using the recovered files. DPM 2010 supports alternate location recovery (ALR), which allows you to recover a Hyper-V virtual machine to an alternate stand-alone Hyper-V host or to a cluster. The recovered virtual machine is already registered and configured on an alternate Hyper-V host server. In a virtualized environment the issue is whether to backup from inside the guest or from the host. The latter provides “bare metal restore” of an entire VM where something’s gone catastrophically wrong with a VM (or the host) but in general it doesn’t provide granular restore of files / folders. DPM 2010 added Item Level Restore (ILR), allowing you to restore individual files or folders within a VM even though it had only been backed up from the host. But this capability was only available when DPM 2010 ran on physical hardware, if the DPM server itself was in a VM this capability was not available. DPM 2012 fixes this glitch and can now do ILR even when the DPM server is a VM

Question: 9
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The infrastructure contains two management servers and 10 Hyper-V hosts. You configure VMM to use an update server and to synchronize the updates by using a windows Server Update Services (WSUS)  server named WSUS1. You attempt to verify compliance with the Sample Baseline for Security Updates. You view the console as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that you can verify compliance for all of the Hyper-V hosts. What should you modify?
A. the update classifications of the update server
B. the Assignment Scope of the baseline
C. the default configuration provider
D. the Network settings of the All Hosts host group

70-246 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
In the VMM console, open the Fabric workspace. On the Home tab, in the Add group, click Add Resources, and then click Update Server. The Add Windows Server Update Services Server dialog box
opens. In Computer name, enter the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the WSUS server (for example, VMMServer01.contoso.com). Specify which TCP/IP port that the WSUS website listens on for connections (for example, port 8530). Enter credentials for connecting to the WSUS server. The account must have administrator rights on the WSUS server. If necessary, select the Use Secure Socket Layer (SSL) to communicate with the WSUS server and clients check box. Click Add. The WSUS server will be added to VMM, followed by initial synchronization of the updates catalog. Depending on how many update classifications and products you chose when you installed the WSUS server, this operation can take a long time, depending on such factors as network traffic and
  the load on the WSUS server. To find out the status of the operation, monitor the status of the Add Update Server and Synchronize Update Server jobs in the Jobs window or in the Jobs workspace. Note After you enable update management in VMM, you should manage the WSUS server only through VMM, unless you are using a WSUS server in a Configuration Manager environment. To verify that the WSUS server was added to VMM successfully: In the Fabric workspace, on the Fabric pane, expand Servers, and click Update Server. The results pane should display the WSUS server. In the Library workspace, on the Library pane, expand Update Catalog and Baselines, and then click Update Catalog. The results pane should display the updates that were downloaded during WSUS synchronization.
Question: 10
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains seven servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a solution to apply Windows updates to the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the following requirements: Approve Windows updates from the VMM Administrator Console. Store information about Windows update installations in Configuration Manager Reports. What should you do first?
A. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Server6 as a host server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
B. From the VMM Administrator Console, add Servers as an update server, and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
C. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on Server1.
D. On Server7, install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), and then install the Configuration Manager agent on all of the visualization hosts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A configuration manager agent is required to store information about Windows update installation in the Configuration Manager reports.

Step 1: Install and Configure a Software Update Point  The software update point is required on the central administration site and primary sites to enable software updates compliance assessment and to deploy software updates to clients. The software update point is optional on secondary sites. The software update point site system role must be created on a server that has WSUS installed. The software update point interacts with the WSUS services to configure software update settings and request synchronization of software updates metadata. When you have a Configuration Manager hierarchy, install and configure the software update point on the central administration site first, then on child primary sites, and then optionally on secondary sites. When you have a stand-alone primary site (no central administration site), install and configure the software update point on the primary site first, and then optionally on secondary
sites. Some settings are only available when you configure the software update point on a central administration site, or stand-alone primary site, and there are different options that you must
consider depending on where the software update point is installed.

Question: 11
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. You plan to create a distributed application named Appl. You need to ensure that a folder for App1 is available from the Monitoring workspace in the Operations Manager console. What should you do?
A. Run the Protect-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
B. Save App1 in the Default Management Pack.
C. Run the Import-SCOMManagementPack cmdlet.
D. Save App1 as a new management pack.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Default Management Pack file contains common elements such as views at the top level of the Monitoring workspace. This is an unsealed management pack file so that you can create views and folders at this level. It should not be used for any other purpose. For creating elements such as monitors and rules, create a new management pack file. Selecting a Management Pack File
The Default management pack that ships with OpsMgr 2007 is used to store very specific information for the management group. It is a widely known best practice to NOT write any custom rules, monitors, groups, views, or overrides to this MP. Even customers who know this – and try to enforce this across their organizations…. will still inadvertently get junk in their default MP…. they will save things here by accident, or by granting access to advanced operators who aren’t educated on this topic. The main problem with doing so…. is that we will build a dependency for this MP on any MP it references…. and therefore we wont ever be able to delete those management packs, until we clean this Default MP up, and start enforcing best practices.

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QUESTION 2
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy.
A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase
B. Test training needs for the project resources
C. The test design techniques to be used
D. Test performance indicators
E. The test schedule
300-165 exam Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
B. Targets certain types of faults
C. Will guide experienced testers to find defects
D. Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
E. More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
F. Will make non-systematic testing redundant
G. Will reduce the need for early reviews
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4
What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits
A. 16
B. 2
C. 1
D. 63
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk?
A. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
C. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
D. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v. Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence?
A. i, ii, iv, vi
B. ii, i, v, vi
C. ii, v, i, iii
D. i, iv, v, vi
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing?
A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively?
A. By providing training in the payroll domain
B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
D. By providing training on reviewing requirements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why?
A. A person with the ability to complete tasks
B. A quality assurance officer
C. A person with in-depth technical skills
D. A person who brings new ideas to the team
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit
A. They are a cheap resource
B. They have good testing skills
C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team?
A. Provide more time for testing in the schedule
B. Allow people to take some time off
C. Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase
D. Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits
A. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
C. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
D. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations?
A. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
B. Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
C. Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
D. Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit
A. Test environment more complex
B. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
C. Clear channels of communications
D. Possibly different cultures
E. Testing of non-functional requirements
F. Audit trail from requirements to test cases
G. Applying test automation
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project.
A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations
B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system
C. Activities to deploy the system in the user environment
D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
E. Development activities for unit and integration testing
F. Reviews on requirements documentation
G. Defining test environment requirements for system testing
300-165 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate?
A. Test planning
B. Test execution
C. Test management
D. Test design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons.
A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
E. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
F. It builds on large set of historical data
G. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
300-165 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 19
Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project?
A. Quality of the specification

B. Availability of end-users
C. The costs of hardware and tools
D. Unknown input quality due to third party development
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi?
A. 5 maturity levels
B. Focussed on higher level testing
C. 20 key areas
D. Highly related to CMMI
E. Continuous model
F. Staged model
G. Focussed on component and integration testing
H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 21
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
A. ISO 9126
B. IEEE 829
C. BS 7925/2
D. DO-178B
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi?
A. If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
B. If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.
C. TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.
D. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations?
A. Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
B. Defined according to the maturity model used

C. Most visible to stakeholders
D. Low costs actions first
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 17 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
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You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time. What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013

When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer. What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently migrated to Office 365 and is planning to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers in the main office and all branch offices. Due to limited bandwidth at the branch offices, the company decides to have users install Office 365 ProPlus from a network share by using the Click-to-Run deployment method. You need to install Office 365 ProPlus on a client computer. How should you complete the relevant command? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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070-347 dumps

QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user has a desktop computer and has been assigned an E3 license. The user plans to travel to multiple branch offices and will use a shared desktop computer at each branch office. The user will not have administrative privileges on the branch office computers. You
need to ensure that the user has access to all features of Microsoft Word 2013 and Excel 2013 at the branch offices. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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070-347 dumps
QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees have archive mailboxes that have the default retention policy applied. A new company policy requires some existing mailboxes to have a retention policy that deletes only email messages in the Deleted Items folder after 90 days. Deleted messages must be recoverable. None of the existing retention tags meet the new requirement. You create an empty retention policy named Policy-90. You need to configure the retention policy and apply it to the mailboxes. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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070-347 dumps

QUESTION 23 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. The company is currently migrating from a hosted POP3 email solution to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company maintains extensive lists of external contacts in several Microsoft Excel workbooks. You plan to import all the external contact information from the workbooks into the Exchange Online Global Address List (GAL).The external contacts must not be able to sign in to your company’s Windows Azure Active Directory service. You consolidate all the external contact information into a file named External Contacts. You need to import the file into the GAL. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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QUESTION 24 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for customers that complete the ‘contact me’ field on his website to track return on investment for the marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the ‘metric goal’ field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose “dollars” in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the ‘goal value’ field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he has created for the ‘contact me’ form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the “goal 
completion” field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you’re interested in seeing your most popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the quality score?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The lower a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
C. It is used to measure performance of schedule
D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
A. Information about the propriety of cutoff
B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?
A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes.
C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project’s planning orexecution (“impact”).
D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
A. Identification of assets
B. Identification of threats
C. Identification of threat sources
D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
A. Risk indicator matrix
B. Impact matrix
C. Risk scenario matrix
D. Probability matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
B. Alignment with risk-culture
C. Risk-aware decisions
D. The capacity of the enterprise’s objective to absorb loss.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
A. Risk planning
B. Risk monitoring and controlling
C. Risk identification
D. Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 6
In a default OS X configuration, you want to change the way that Finder handles ZIP archives. Where can you make that change?
A. System Preferences
B. Disk Utility Preferences
C. Archive Utility Preferences
D. Finder Preferences
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A user named Robert has an existing user account. The user name associated with his account is Robert. Robert wants to use Bob as his user name when accessing some of the services provided by a Mac running OS X Server. How can you accommodate his request?
A. In Workgroup Manager, click Settings and add a rule to the Services list that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
B. In Workgroup Manager, create a new user with the user name Bob. Select the Robert account, and add the new Bob account to the list in the Aliases pane.
C. In Server app, go to the Advanced Options pane for Robert’s account, and add Bob as an alias.
D. In Server app, add a rule to the Services list in the Settings pane that substitutes Bob in place of Robert.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
On an OS X Mountain Lion computer with OS X Server installed, you have created a share point named “Finance Dept” that contains a folder named “Reports.” The permissions for both are shown below. Chris is not a member of the Finance group, but you would like her to have access to the Finance Dept share point. In Server app, you select the server, click the Storage tab, select the Finance Dept folder, and modify its permissions a shown below.
After changing the permissions on the share point, what access will Chris have to the reports Folder in the share point?
A. None
B. B.Read & Write
C. Write-only
D. Read-only

642-998 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which utility is on the OS X Recovery partition?
A. Firmware Password Utility
B. Boot Camp Assistant
C. Activity Monitor
D. Console
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the function of Gatekeeper?
A. To prevent users from opening untrusted applications.
B. To prevent users from downloading untrusted applications.
C. To prevent users from installing untrusted applications.
D. To prevent users from installing viruses and trojan horses.
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
642-998 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines

C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
642-998 dumps 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19. What unique code is used to distinguish each Symbian based application installed on a device?
A.UID
B.IMEI
C.SymbianID
D.SID
E.SSID
F.DeviceID
Answer: A
QUESTION 20. What does GPRS stand for in the mobile industry?
A.General Packet Radio Services
B.General Packet Radar Systems
C.General Packet Radio Systems
D.General Packet Radar Services
E.Global Positioning Radio Services
F.Global Positioning Radio Systems
642-998 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which process will let you start up a Mac in target disk mode?
A. Open the Startup Disk preferences, click Target Disk Mode, and then click Restart.
B. Hold down the Option key on the keyboard as the Mac starts up, until a dialog appears, then select Target Disk Mode from the dialog.
C. Hold down the S key on the keyboard while the Mac starts up, then enter the command reboot -target.
D. Start up from the OS X Recovery partition, choose Target Disk Mode from the Startup Disk menu, and restart the Mac.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Using Server app, you are configuring email alerts to be sent to an OS X Server system administrator. Which TWO of these server events can you set to trigger an alert? (Select 2)
A. A user has exceeded his or her assigned disk quota for file sharing.
B. New software updates are available for the server.
C. An unsuccessful attempt was made to log in with the root account.
D. A certificate has expired or is about to expire.
E. The number of files on the server has exceeded a specified number.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which tool can you use to verify that a device profile is installed on an OS X Mountain Lion computer?
A. Ticket Viewer
B. The klist command in Terminal
C. Profiles pane in System Preferences
D. Users & Groups pane in System Preferences
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
How can you display the contents of a hidden folder on a mounted volume in Finder?
A. From the Finder menu, choose Preferences, and select “Show hidden items.”
B. Select the volume icon and choose “Show hidden items” from the Action menu.
C. From the View menu, choose “Show hidden items.”
D. From the Go menu, choose “Go to Folder,” enter the path to the hidden folder, and click Go.
642-998 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which statement about Gatekeeper is TRUE?
A. Gatekeeper can ONLY be disabled using a configuration profile.
B. Standard users can bypass Gatekeeper.
C. Only the root user can disable Gatekeeper.
D. Only administrator users can bypass Gatekeeper.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Review the screenshot and answer the question below. You downloaded an app using Safari. When you try to open the app, you see the message shown above. What is a possible explanation?
A. The app was signed using a certificate from an unknown authority.
B. The certificate needed to decrypt this app cannot be found in the keychain.
C. Gatekeeper has recognized that the app was altered after it was signed.
D. The sandbox into which the app was downloaded by the quarantine system has become corrupted.
642-998 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which procedure will permit only the Marketing group to access a website hosted on OS X Server?
A. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, add a realm, and enable Allowed Access for the Marketing group.
B. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read-only for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.
C. In Finder, edit the permissions of the site folder to Read/Write for the Marketing group, and No Access for the everyone group.

D. Using Server app, double-click the website from the list of websites, and select the Marketing group from the Who Can Access menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install and run OS X Server on an OS X Mountain Lion
computer?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
642-998 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
You configured the Time Machine service on a computer with OS X Server to store backup data on the Data volume. Later you configure the service to store the backup data on a larger volume named Backup Data. How is the backup data handled after the switch to the new backup volume?
A. The next time users back up, new and changed files are backed up to the new volume, along with aliases pointing to the data on the old volume.
B. The next time users back up, all their files are backed up to the new volume.
C. Users are presented with a dialog asking which volume they want to use to store their backup data.
D. OS X Server copies the existing backup data from the old volume to the new volume.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
What are TWO ways administrators can remove a device group profile from an OS X Mountain Lion computer? (Select 2)
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group, click Preferences and click the Delete (-) button.
B. In the Profiles pane in System Preferences, select the profile, and click the Remove (-) button.
C. In Profile Manager, click Device Groups, select the appropriate device group, click Members, and click the Delete (x) button to the right of the member computer.
D. In Server app, select the group, click the Edit (pencil) button in the Group pane, and deselect Manage.
E. In the Profiles tab in Device Manager, select the OS X Mountain Lion computer, select Profiles, select the group, and click the Delete (-) button.
642-998 exam 
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 114
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to __________.
A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates
B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
D. Al1 of the above
70-357 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments.
QUESTION 115
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.
A. Progressive elaboration
B. Stake holder’s review
C. p’an project life cycle
D. Fast backing
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is called Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.
QUESTION 116
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 117
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Develop the project charter

C. Develop the project statement of work
D. Develop project closing document
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur during project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is the best option.
QUESTION 118
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have you left out?
A. Control Schedule
B. Create WBS
C. Sequence Activities
D. Operations
70-357 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources.
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A. Earn Value Analysis
B. Scope Baseline
C. P’sk Register
D. Human Resource Plan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versus planned
QUESTION 120
Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?
A. Project Charter
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Pis’* Management Plan
D. Activity Cost Estimates
70-357 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks.

QUESTION 121
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION 122
If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical information
B. WBS
C. Business plans
D. RBS
70-357 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the WBS has not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans are not a likely input to the initiation process
QUESTION 123
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?
A. Monitor implementation of approved changes
B. Validate deliverables
C. Staff, train, and manage the project team
D. Manage cisks and implement risk responses
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented but monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work.
QUESTION 124
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have ________.
A. Offer and consideration

B. Start date and acceptance of start date
C. Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
D. Signatures of all stakeholders
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and notary public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the start date is not needed for all contracts.
QUESTION 125
If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less money; so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)

 

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QUESTION 1
You are developing an application that includes a class named Order. The application will store a collection of Order objects.The collection must meet the following requirements: Use strongly typed members. Process Order objects in first-in-first-out order.
Store values for each Order object. Use zero-based indices. You need to use a collection type that meets the requirements. Which collection type should you use?
A. Queue<T>
B. SortedList
C. LinkedList<T>
D. HashTable
E. Array<T>
70-483 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queues are useful for storing messages in the order they were received for sequential processing. Objects stored in a Queue<T> are inserted at one end and removed from the other.
QUESTION 2
You are developing an application. The application calls a method that returns an array of integers named employeeIds. You define an integer variable named employeeIdToRemove and assign a value to it. You declare an array named filteredEmployeeIds.
You have the following requirements:
Remove duplicate integers from the employeeIds array. Sort the array in order from the highest value to the lowest value.
Remove the integer value stored in the employeeId ToRemove variable from the employeeIds array. You need to create a LINQ query to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you use?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are developing an application that includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps

The GetAnimals() method must meet the following requirements:
Connect to a Microsoft SQL Server database. Create Animal objects and populate them with data from the database. Return a sequence of populated Animal objects. You need to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Insert the following code segment at line 16: while(sqlDataReader.NextResult())
B. Insert the following code segment at line 13:
sqlConnection.Open();
C. Insert the following code segment at line 13:
sqlConnection.BeginTransaction();
D. Insert the following code segment at line 16:
while(sqlDataReader.Read())
E. Insert the following code segment at line 16:
while(sqlDataReader.GetValues())
70-483 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SqlConnection.Open – Opens a database connection with the property settings specified by the ConnectionString. SqlDataReader.Read – Advances the SqlDataReader to the next record.
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing a custom collection named LoanCollection for a class named Loan class. You need to ensure that you can process each Loan object in the LoanCollection collection by using a foreach loop. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps

70-483 dumps

QUESTION 5
You are developing an application that uses the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework to retrieve order information from a Microsoft SQL Server database. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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The application must meet the following requirements:
Return only orders that have an OrderDate value other than null.
Return only orders that were placed in the year specified in the OrderDate property or in a later year. You need to ensure that the application meets the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 08?
A. Where order.OrderDate.Value != null && order.OrderDate.Value.Year > = year
B. Where order.OrderDate.Value = = null && order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year
C. Where order.OrderDate.HasValue && order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year
D. Where order.OrderDate.Value.Year = = year

70-483 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*For the requirement to use an OrderDate value other than null use:
OrderDate.Value != null
*For the requirement to use an OrderDate value for this year or a later year use:
OrderDate.Value>= year
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes an array of decimal values named loanAmounts. You are developing a LINQ query to return the values from the array. The query must return decimal values that are evenly divisible by two. The values must be sorted from the lowest value to the highest value. You need to ensure that the query correctly returns the decimal values. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: In a query expression, the orderby clause causes the returned sequence or subsequence (group) to be sorted in either ascending or descending order.
Examples:
// Query for ascending sort.
IEnumerable<string> sortAscendingQuery =
from fruit in fruits
orderby fruit //”ascending” is default
select fruit;
// Query for descending sort.
IEnumerable<string> sortDescendingQuery =
from w in fruits
orderby w descending
select w;
QUESTION 7
You are developing an application. The application includes a method named ReadFile that reads data from a file. The ReadFile() method must meet the following requirements:
It must not make changes to the data file.
It must allow other processes to access the data file.
It must not throw an exception if the application attempts to open a data file that does not exist. You need to implement the ReadFile() method. Which code segment should you use?
A. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite);
B. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite);
C. var fs = File.Open(Filename, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Write);
D. var fs = File.ReadAllLines(Filename);
E. var fs = File.ReadAllBytes(Filename);
70-483 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FileMode.OpenOrCreate – Specifies that the operating system should open a file if it exists; otherwise, a new file should be created. If the file is opened with FileAccess.Read, FileIOPermissionAccess.Read permission is required. If the file access is FileAccess.Write, FileIOPermissionAccess.Write permission is required. If the file is opened with FileAccess.ReadWrite, both FileIOPermissionAccess.Read and FileIOPermissionAccess.Write permissions are required.
FileShare.ReadWrite – Allows subsequent opening of the file for reading or writing.If this flag is not specified, any request to open the file for reading or writing (by this process or another process) will fail until the file is closed.However, even if this flag is specified, additional permissions might still be needed to access the file.

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