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QUESTION 17 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time. What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers. The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013
When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer. What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently migrated to Office 365 and is planning to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers in the main office and all branch offices. Due to limited bandwidth at the branch offices, the company decides to have users install Office 365 ProPlus from a network share by using the Click-to-Run deployment method. You need to install Office 365 ProPlus on a client computer. How should you complete the relevant command? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user has a desktop computer and has been assigned an E3 license. The user plans to travel to multiple branch offices and will use a shared desktop computer at each branch office. The user will not have administrative privileges on the branch office computers. You
need to ensure that the user has access to all features of Microsoft Word 2013 and Excel 2013 at the branch offices. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees have archive mailboxes that have the default retention policy applied. A new company policy requires some existing mailboxes to have a retention policy that deletes only email messages in the Deleted Items folder after 90 days. Deleted messages must be recoverable. None of the existing retention tags meet the new requirement. You create an empty retention policy named Policy-90. You need to configure the retention policy and apply it to the mailboxes. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 23 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. The company is currently migrating from a hosted POP3 email solution to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company maintains extensive lists of external contacts in several Microsoft Excel workbooks. You plan to import all the external contact information from the workbooks into the Exchange Online Global Address List (GAL).The external contacts must not be able to sign in to your company’s Windows Azure Active Directory service. You consolidate all the external contact information into a file named External Contacts. You need to import the file into the GAL. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate command segments to the correct targets. Each command segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 24 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for customers that complete the ‘contact me’ field on his website to track return on investment for the marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the ‘metric goal’ field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose “dollars” in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the ‘goal value’ field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he has created for the ‘contact me’ form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the “goal completion” field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you’re interested in seeing your most popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B
QUESTION 26 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the quality score?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The lower a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
C. It is used to measure performance of schedule
D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following do NOT indirect information?
A. Information about the propriety of cutoff
B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?
A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes.
C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project’s planning orexecution (“impact”).
D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
A. Identification of assets
B. Identification of threats
C. Identification of threat sources
D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
A. Risk indicator matrix
B. Impact matrix
C. Risk scenario matrix
D. Probability matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
B. Alignment with risk-culture
C. Risk-aware decisions
D. The capacity of the enterprise’s objective to absorb loss.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
A. Risk planning
B. Risk monitoring and controlling
C. Risk identification
D. Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B
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