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QUESTION 1 Who creates a Product Backlog Item\\’s estimate? A. The Development Team after clarifying requirements with the Product Owner. B. The Product Owner with input from the Development Team. C. The most senior people in the organization, including architects and subject matter experts. D. The Scrum Master. E. The Development Team, alone. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What two factors are best considered when establishing the Sprint length? (Choose two.) A. The organization has mandated similar length sprints. B. The level of uncertainty over the technology to be used. C. The frequency at which team formation can be changed. D. The risk of being disconnected from the stakeholders. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3 What are the two primary ways a Scrum Master keeps a Development Team working at its highest level of productivity? (Choose two.) A. By ensuring the meetings start and end at the proper time. B. By removing impediments that hinder the Development Team. C. By facilitating Development Team decisions. D. By keeping high value features high in the Product Backlog. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 Select two ways in which technical debt impacts transparency. (Choose two.) A. When calculated and estimated, the total amount of technical debt shows exactly how long until the Product Owner can release the Increment. B. It leads to false assumptions about the current state of the system, specifically of an Increment being releasable at the end of a Sprint. C. As development progresses and code is added, the system becomes more difficult to stabilize, which results in future work being slowed down in unpredictable ways. D. It enhances transparency for the Product Owner as a Development Team is not allowed to do additional feature development in a Sprint as long as there is technical debt. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5 The Sprint Goal is a result of Sprint Planning, as is the Sprint Backlog. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Who should make sure everyone on the Development Team does his or her tasks for the Sprint? A. The Project Manager. B. The Product Owner. C. The Scrum Master. D. The Development Team. E. All of the above. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 During a Sprint Retrospective, the Development Team proposes moving the Daily Scrum to only occur on Tuesdays and Thursdays. Which two are the most appropriate responses for the Scrum Master? (Choose two.) A. Consider the request and decide on which days the Daily Scrum should occur. B. Coach the team on why the Daily Scrum is important as an opportunity to update the plan. C. Have the developers vote. D. Learn why the Development Team wants this and work with them to improve the outcome of the Daily Scrum. E. Acknowledge and support the self-organizing team\\’s decision. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8 What is the time-box for the Sprint Review? A. As long as needed. B. 2 hours for a monthly Sprint. C. 4 hours for a monthly Sprint. D. 4 hours and longer as needed. E. 1 day Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 The Scrum Master observes the Product Owner struggling with ordering the Product Backlog. What is an appropriate action for the Scrum Master to take? A. Suggest the Product Owner extend the Sprint, so he can have more time to order the Product Backlog. B. Suggest that the Development Team does the ordering to be sure that it is a feasible ordering of work. C. Offer the Product Owner help in understanding that the goal of ordering the Product Backlog is to maximize value. D. Present the Product Owner with an ordered Product Backlog to use. E. Encourage the Product Owner to work with the Development Team to see which items technically are fastest to implement. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which three of the following are feedback loops in Scrum? (Choose three.) A. Sprint Review. B. Release Planning. C. Sprint Retrospective. D. Refinement Meeting. E. Daily Scrum. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 11 A Scrum Master is working with a Development Team that has members in different physical locations. The Development Team meets in a variety of meeting rooms and has much to do logistically (for example, set up conference calls) before the Daily Scrum. What action should the Scrum Master take? A. Allow the Development Team to self-manage and determine for itself what to do. B. Set up the meeting and tell the Development Team that is how it will be done. C. Ask the Development Team members to alternate who is responsible for meeting setup. D. Inform management and ask them to solve it. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 When is it most appropriate for a Development Team to change the definition of “Done”? A. During Spring Planning. B. Prior to starting a new Sprint. C. During the Sprint Retrospective. D. Prior to starting a new project. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which three of the following are time-boxed events in Scrum? (Choose three.) A. Release Testing. B. Release Retrospective. C. Sprint Retrospective. D. Sprint Planning. E. Sprint Testing. F. Sprint 0. G. Daily Scrum. Correct Answer: CDG
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Real LPI 101-500 exam questions 1-13 – Success shortcut that you need:
QUESTION 1 Which of the following commands can be used to create a USB storage media from a disk image? A. gdisk B. dd C. cc D. fdisk E. mount Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which file should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded? A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg B. /etc/apt/apt.conf C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d D. /etc/apt/sources.list E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following pieces of information of an existing file is changed when a hard link pointing to that file is created? A. File size B. Modify timestamp C. Link count D. Inode number E. Permissions Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 When planning a partition scheme, which of the following directories could be considered for separate partitions? (Choose three.) A. /etc B. /home C. /var D. /lib E. /opt Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What is the difference between the i and a commands of the vi editor? A. i (interactive) requires the user to explicitly switch between vi modes whereas a (automatic) switches modesautomatically. B. i (insert) inserts text before the current cursor position whereas a (append) inserts text after the cursor. C. i (independent rows) starts every new line at the first character whereas a (aligned rows) keeps the indentation of the previous line. D. i (interrupt) temporarily suspends editing of a file to the background whereas a (abort) terminates editing. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which of the following commands lists all currently installed packages when using RPM package management? A. yum –query –all B. yum –list –installed C. rpm –query –all D. rpm –list nstalled Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which of the following commands updates the already installed RPM package rpmname? A. rpm –update rpmname B. rpm rpmname C. rpm rpmname D. rpm –force rpmname E. rpm rpmname Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which of the following is true for hard linked files? (Choose three.) A. The output ofstatwill reporthardinstead ofregular file. B. The hard linked files have the same permissions and owner. C. The hard linked files share the same inode. D. The hard linked files are indicated by a -> when listed withls -1. E. The hard linked files must be on the same filesystem. Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 9 Which of the following commands will change all CR-LF pairs in an imported text file, userlist.txt, to Linux standard LF characters and store it as newlist.txt? A. tr `\r\n\\’ `\\’ newlist.txt B. tr `\n\r\\’ `\\’ userlist.txt C. tr `\r\\’ newlist.txt D. tr `\r\\’ `\n\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt E. tr `^M\\’ `^J\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following directories are documentation files found? A. /usr/share/documentation B. /usr/local/share/documentation C. /var/share/doc D. /usr/share/doc E. /etc/share/doc Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT Which world-writable directory should be placed on a separate partition in order to prevent users from being able to fill up the / filesystem? (Specify the full path to the directory.) Correct Answer: tmp tmp or /var/tmp
QUESTION 12 Which of the following statements is correct for a command line ending with a and character? A. The command\\’s output is redirected to/dev/null. B. The result of the command defines if the next command will be run. C. Thecommand is run in background of the current shell. D. The command is run as a direct child of theinitprocess. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which of the following commands changes all CR-LF line breaks in the text file userlist.txt to Linux standard LF line breaks and stores the result in newlist.txt? A. tr `\r\\’ newlist.txt B. tr `\n\r\\’ `\\’ userlist.txt C. tr `\r\n\\’ `\\’ newlist.txt D. tr `\r\\’ `\n\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt E. tr `/^M/^J/\\’ userlist.txt newlist.txt Correct Answer: A
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Latest updates HP HPE ATP – Hybrid IT Solutions V2 HPE0-V14 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection. What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use? A. 18 B. 32 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the following requirements: 1. 3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity 2. 10TB of high performance shared storage 3. Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics The customer prefers rack mounted equipment. Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their appropriate location in the environment on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure? A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V Correct Answer: A Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array. Click on the menu option that displays this information.
QUESTION 6 A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance improvement? A. embedded application B. workload performance advisor C. workload profile D. Active Health System Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration: 1. Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit 2. HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit 3. Two SN3000B FC Switches Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution? A. HPE NinjaSTARS B. HPE One Configuration Advanced C. HPE OneView Advanced D. HPE SPOCK Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch. Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.
QUESTION 12 A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements? A. HPE Moonshot B. HPE MSA C. HPE Apollo Servers D. HPE SimplVity 380 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection. What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use? A. 18 B. 32 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the following requirements: 1. 3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity 2. 10TB of high performance shared storage 3. Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics The customer prefers rack mounted equipment. Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their appropriate location in the environment on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure? A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V Correct Answer: A Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array. Click on the menu option that displays this information.
QUESTION 6 A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance improvement? A. embedded application B. workload performance advisor C. workload profile D. Active Health System Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration: 1. Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit 2. HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit 3. Two SN3000B FC Switches Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution? A. HPE NinjaSTARS B. HPE One Configuration Advanced C. HPE OneView Advanced D. HPE SPOCK Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch. Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.
QUESTION 12 A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements? A. HPE Moonshot B. HPE MSA C. HPE Apollo Servers D. HPE SimplVity 380 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection. What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use? A. 18 B. 32 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the following requirements: 1. 3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity 2. 10TB of high performance shared storage 3. Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics The customer prefers rack mounted equipment. Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their appropriate location in the environment on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure? A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V Correct Answer: A Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array. Click on the menu option that displays this information.
QUESTION 6 A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance improvement? A. embedded application B. workload performance advisor C. workload profile D. Active Health System Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration: 1. Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit 2. HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit 3. Two SN3000B FC Switches Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution? A. HPE NinjaSTARS B. HPE One Configuration Advanced C. HPE OneView Advanced D. HPE SPOCK Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch. Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.
QUESTION 12 A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements? A. HPE Moonshot B. HPE MSA C. HPE Apollo Servers D. HPE SimplVity 380 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection. What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use? A. 18 B. 32 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the following requirements: 1. 3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity 2. 10TB of high performance shared storage 3. Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics The customer prefers rack mounted equipment. Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their appropriate location in the environment on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure? A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V Correct Answer: A Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array. Click on the menu option that displays this information.
QUESTION 6 A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance improvement? A. embedded application B. workload performance advisor C. workload profile D. Active Health System Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration: 1. Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit 2. HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit 3. Two SN3000B FC Switches Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution? A. HPE NinjaSTARS B. HPE One Configuration Advanced C. HPE OneView Advanced D. HPE SPOCK Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch. Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.
QUESTION 12 A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements? A. HPE Moonshot B. HPE MSA C. HPE Apollo Servers D. HPE SimplVity 380 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection. What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use? A. 18 B. 32 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP A customer needs a new environment to support an ERP system. The sizing information you received shows the following requirements: 1. 3 servers with dual AMD processors, 256GB RAM, and 10Gb network connectivity 2. 10TB of high performance shared storage 3. Cloud-based performance monitoring and analytics The customer prefers rack mounted equipment. Identify the components that will meet the customer requirements, then drag the correct components on the left to their appropriate location in the environment on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 Which hardware and software components make up a Nimble dHCI infrastructure? A. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and VMware B. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and VMware C. HPE M-Series switch, HPE ProLiant DL servers, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V D. Aruba Switches, HPE Synergy, HPE Nimble, and Hyper-V Correct Answer: A Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/HPE-Nimble-Storage-dHCI-TechnicalOverview/ba-p/7054163#.XnxfMW5RWQ4
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You need to review a warning on a Nimble storage array. Click on the menu option that displays this information.
QUESTION 6 A customer has a new virtual environment. They selected HPE servers for the environment in order to achieve better performance for their applications. Which HPE feature enables the customer to achieve this server performance improvement? A. embedded application B. workload performance advisor C. workload profile D. Active Health System Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Match each HPE solution to its corresponding technology usage. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration: 1. Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit 2. HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache, dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit 3. Two SN3000B FC Switches Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution? A. HPE NinjaSTARS B. HPE One Configuration Advanced C. HPE OneView Advanced D. HPE SPOCK Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP A customer is considering an upgrade of their networking infrastructure with HPE FlexFabric 5940 series switch. Match the fan tray option with the airflow direction. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Match each customer data center architecture to its network topology. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Indicate whether each management feature manages or monitors a single system or multiple systems.
QUESTION 12 A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements? A. HPE Moonshot B. HPE MSA C. HPE Apollo Servers D. HPE SimplVity 380 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Drag the correct protocols from the left to their appropriate area on the topology. Select and Place:
Online Cisco 300-715 dumps exam questions, which are helpful in your preparation. I found helpful online. Share them with you. Cisco 300-715 study materials and practice tests I recommend https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-715.html (Q&As: 92) authentic 300-715 exam dumps.
Learn Cisco 300-715 Exam
This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine.
300-715 SISE Certifications: CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Identity Management Implementation Duration: 90 minutes Available languages: English, Japanese
Master Cisco 300-715 Exam Skills
Architecture and deployment
Policy enforcement
Web Auth and guest services
Profiler
BYOD
Endpoint compliance
Network access device administration
Study Cisco Certified Network Professional Security 300-715 Online Questions
QUESTION 1 During BYOD flow, from where does a Microsoft Windows PC download the Network Setup Assistant? A. Cisco App Store B. Microsoft App Store C. Cisco ISE directly D. Native OTA functionality Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 What is needed to configure wireless guest access on the network? A. endpoint already profiled in ISE B. WEBAUTH ACL for redirection C. valid user account in Active Directory D. Captive Portal Bypass turned on Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 In addition to the CLI, what is another option to manage a Cisco IPS? A. SDEE B. Cisco SDM C. Cisco IDM D. Cisco ISE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which two events trigger a CoA for an endpoint when CoA is enabled globally for ReAuth? (Choose two.) A. endpoint marked as lost in My Devices Portal B. addition of endpoint to My Devices Portal C. endpoint profile transition from Aop.e-dev.ee to Apple-iPhone D. endpoint profile transition from Unknown to Windows 10-Workstation E. updating of endpoint dACL. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5 Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member of? A. Endpoint B. unknown C. blacklist D. white list E. profiled Correct Answer: B If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected for that endpoint. https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html
QUESTION 6 Which protocol must be allowed for a BYOD device to access the BYOD portal? A. HTTP B. SMTP C. HTTPS D. SSH Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 If a user reports a device lost or stolen, which portal should be used to prevent the device from accessing the network while still providing information about why the device is blocked? A. Client Provisioning B. Guest C. BYOD D. Blacklist Correct Answer: D https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/BYOD_Design_Guide/Managing_Lost_or_Stolen_Device.html#90273 The Blacklist identity group is system generated and maintained by ISE to prevent access to lost or stolen devices. In this design guide, two authorization profiles are used to enforce the permissions for wireless and wired devices within the Blacklist: 1. Blackhole WiFi Access 2. Blackhole Wired Access
QUESTION 8 Which term refers to an endpoint agent that tries to join an 802 1X-enabled network? A. EAP server B. supplicant C. client D. authenticator Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which port does cisco ISE use for native supplicant provisioning of a windows computer? A. TCP/UDP 8905 B. TCP 8443 C. TCP/UDP 8909 D. TCP 443 Correct Answer: C TCP: 80, 8443 (web or Cisco NAC agent installation) Note TCP port 8443 is enabled by default, configurable, and corresponds to Guest configuration TCP: 8905 (Cisco NAC agent update) TCP: 8909 and UDP: 8909 (web, Cisco NAC Agent, supplicant provisioning wizard installation)
QUESTION 10 What is the purpose of the ip http server command on a switch? A. It enables the https server for users for web authentication B. It enables MAB authentication on the switch C. It enables the switch to redirect users for web authentication. D. It enables dot1x authentication on the switch. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication? A. MAB and if user not found, continue B. MAB and if authentication failed, continue C. Dot1x and if user not found, continue D. Dot1x and if authentication failed, continue Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which advanced option within a WLAN must be enabled to trigger Central Web Authentication for Wireless users on AireOS controller? A. DHCP server B. static IP tunneling C. override Interface ACL D. AAA override Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which portal is used to customize the settings for a user to log in and download the compliance module? A. Client Profiling B. Client Endpoint C. Client Provisioning D. Client Guest Correct Answer: C
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Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 Practice Question 1-13
QUESTION 1 An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.
On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two.) A. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center B. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS Software C. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment D. modular design that is upgradable as needed E. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 Which option best describes an API? A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other. B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications; C. a stateless client-server model D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? A. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. B. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN. C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path. D. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP routing table. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true? A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected. D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
QUESTION 7 Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.) A. QoS settings B. IP address of one or more access points C. SSID D. profile name E. management interface settings Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP? A. 10.4.4.4 B. 10.4.4.5 C. 172.23.103.10 D. 172.23.104.4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)
A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100 D. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP E. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170 Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior? A. trunk mode mismatches B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination C. native VLAN mismatches D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet Correct Answer: C Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.
QUESTION 12 Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch? A. enable secret B. enable password C. service password-encryption D. username cisco password encrypt Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.) A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface. C. The interface is error -disabled. D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses. E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface. Correct Answer: DE
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Free Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-300 practice questions 1-12
Vendor: Microsoft Certifications: Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Exam Code: MB-300 Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core Updated: Jun 13, 2020 Q&As: 137
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP A company needs test scripts that can be leveraged by the Regression Suite Automated Testing (RSAT) tool. Several users are creating their test cases and sending the files to you to upload. You need to create these scripts and link them to the RSAT tool. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 2 A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance. The company wants to utilize Case management to track project issues and risks and associate them to the projects. Project managers will be responsible for managing the new cases. You need to configure the system. What should you do? A. Create case category security roles named Issue and Risk and assign them to the Project managers duty. B. Create case activities for Issue and Risk C. Create parent case categories named Issue and Risk D. Create case subcategories named Issue and Risk Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at any given time. You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment, you are unable to find the data entity in the list. You need to locate the data entity. Solution: Restart the Application Object Server (AOS) of the test environment. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance developer. New features for Dynamics 365 Finance have been released. Your company plans to upgrade their Dynamics 365 instance soon. You need to download a virtual machine that includes all of the new features so that you can explore the new features. Where should you go? A. Microsoft Connect B. Shared Asset library C. Environments D. My subscription E. Microsoft Developer Network Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT A company uses May 1 as the start of its fiscal year.The company\\’s management needs to define fiscal calendars and date intervals for financial activities and financial reporting. You need to set up fiscal calendars and date intervals and understand how they are used in financial accounting. Which of the following attributes or purposes does each of the data configurations have? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 6 You set up Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Your organization will use email with the application. You need to ensure that email will be sent using typical secure settings.What setting must be set as specified? A. In-place hold and Litigation hold are enabled. B. In-place eDiscovery is enabled, C. The SMTP port field is set to 587. D. Retention policies are enabled. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You are a system administrator of an Azure-based Dynamics 365 Finance instance. Your company is using a single master configuration environment to refresh a test environment during implementation. You need to perform refreshes several times and make sure they are done successfully. You need to automate the data migration and leverage the data task automation tool. Which objects should you use for each scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You are tasked with setting up Case management in the Dynamics 365 Finance deployment for your organization. Your organization must use cases to track defect and enhancement reports for products, so that engineers can improve products over time. Only appropriate employees within the organization should have access to cases and related information. 1. Call enter employees create thousands of service cases and ensure that the proper resources are allocated for each service. 2. Service department employees fix cases created by the call center and create cases for defects and enhancement suggestion when they identify them. 3. Engineers review the cases from the service department while planning and designing the next version. You need to configure the tool to enable tracking of service cases and product defects and enhancements. Which Case management settings should you choose for each category or categories? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP You set up a new installation of Dynamics 365 Finance for a Fortune 500 company. The company is organized into divisions. You need to design the structure in the application. What application features should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 You implement Dynamics 365 Finance. The implementation will undergo User Acceptance Testing (UAT). You create test case recordings. To coordinate testing across multiple environments, UAT must be integrated with Microsoft Azure DevOps. You need to configure Business process modeler (BPM) and Azure DevOps to complete user acceptance testing. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Synchronize the BPM library with Azure DevOps B. Create a test pass and test case in Azure DevOps C. Upload saved Task recorder files to BPM D. Create a test plan and test suites in Azure DevOps E. Synchronize the BPM library with a Git repo F. Upload saved Task recorder files to Azure DevOps Correct Answer: ACD Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-taskguides-and-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP You are the project owner in a Lifecycle Services (LCS) project to deploy a Dynamics 365 Finance environment. The system must be configured to enable testers to record processes that become business and test plans. You need to configure the system to generate User Acceptance Testing (UAT) test plans. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT You are a system administrator using Dynamics 365 Finance. You are responsible for troubleshooting workflows. You need to determine where workflows are failing based on error messages. Which runtime is raising the error when the following activity and error occurs? To answer, select the appropriate runtime in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
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QUESTION 1 A Developer must build an application that uses Amazon DynamoDB. The requirements state that items being stored in the DynamoDB table will be 7KB in size and that reads must be strongly consistent. The maximum read rate is 3 items per second, and the maximum write rate is 10 items per second. How should the Developer size the DynamoDB table to meet these requirements? A. Read: 3 read capacity units Write: 70 write capacity units B. Read: 6 read capacity units Write: 70 write capacity units C. Read: 6 read capacity units Write: 10 write capacity units D. Read: 3 read capacity units Write: 10 write capacity units Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 In a multi-container Docker environment in AWS Elastic Beanstalk, what is required to configure container instances in the environment? A. An Amazon ECS task definition B. An Amazon ECS cluster C. A Docker in an application package D. A CLI for Elastic Beanstalk Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/create_deploy_docker_ecs.html
QUESTION 3 A Developer has created a large Lambda function, and deployment is failing with the following error: ClientError: An error occurred (InvalidParameterValueException) when calling the CreateFunction operation: Unzipped size must be smaller than XXXXXXXXX bytes\\’, where XXXXXXXXX is the current Lambda limit What can the Developer do to fix this problem? A. Submit a limit increase request to AWS Support to increase the function to the size needed. B. Use a compression algorithm that is more efficient than ZIP. C. Break the function into multiple smaller Lambda functions. D. ZIP the ZIP file twice to compress it further. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 An application is real-time processing millions of events that are received through an API. What service could be used to allow multiple consumers to process the data concurrently and MOST cost-effectively? A. Amazon SNS with fanout to an SQS queue for each application B. Amazon SNS with fanout to an SQS FIFO (first-in, firtst-out) queue for each application C. Amazon Kinesis Firehouse D. Amazon Kinesis Streams Correct Answer: D Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/kinesis/data-streams/getting-started/
QUESTION 5 An application is being developed to audit several AWS accounts. The application will run in Account A and must access AWS services in Accounts B and C. What is the MOST secure way to allow the application to call AWS services in each audited account? A. Configure cross-account roles in each audited account. Write code in Account A that assumes those roles B. Use S3 cross-region replication to communicate among accounts, with Amazon S3 event notifications to trigger Lambda functions C. Deploy an application in each audited account with its own role. Have Account A authenticate with the application D. Create an IAM user with an access key in each audited account. Write code in Account A that uses those access keys Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 1 A company website hosts patches for software that is sold globally. The website runs in AWS and performs well until a large software patch is released. The flood of downloads puts a strain on the web servers and leads to a poor customer experience. What can the SysOps Administrator propose to enhance customer experience, create a more available web platform, and keep costs low? A. Use an Amazon CloudFront distribution to cache static content, including software patches B. Increase the size of the NAT instance to improve throughput C. Scale out of web servers in advance of patch releases to reduce Auto Scaling delays D. Move the content to IO1 and provision additional IOPS to the volume that contains the software patches Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A user has created a Cloudformation stack. The stack creates AWS services, such as EC2 instances, ELB, AutoScaling, and RDS. While creating the stack it created EC2, ELB and AutoScaling but failed to create RDS. What will Cloudformation do in this scenario? A. Cloudformation can never throw an error after launching a few services since it verifies all the steps before launching B. It will warn the user about the error and ask the user to manually create RDS C. Rollback all the changes and terminate all the created services D. It will wait for the user\\’s input about the error and correct the mistake after the input Correct Answer: C AWS Cloudformation is an application management tool which provides application modelling, deployment, configuration, management and related activities. The AWS Cloudformation stack is a collection of AWS resources which are created and managed as a single unit when AWS CloudFormation instantiates a template. If any of the services fails to launch, Cloudformation will rollback all the changes and terminate or delete all the created services.
QUESTION 3 What is an Auto Scaling group? A. It is a group of ELBs that are used to add instances from various regions. B. It is a logical grouping of EC2 instances that share similar characteristics for scaling and man-agement. C. It is a collection of EC2 instance launch parameters with different characteristics for scaling and management. D. It is a group of launch configurations for Elastic load balancers in the same region. Correct Answer: B An Auto Scaling group contains a collection of EC2 instances that share similar characteristics and are treated as a logical grouping for the purposes of instance scaling and management. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/AutoScalingGroup.html
QUESTION 4 A SysOps Administrator is receiving multiple reports from customers that they are unable to connect to the company\\’s website. which is being served through Amazon CloudFront. Customers are receiving HTTP response codes for both 4XX and 5XX errors. Which metric can the Administrator use to monitor the elevated error rates in CloudFront? A. TotalErrorRate B. RejectedConnectionCount C. NetworkTransmitThroughput D. HealthyHostCount Correct Answer: A Reference https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/monitoring-using-cloudwatch.html
QUESTION 5 You have two Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances inside a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) in the same Availability Zone (AZ) but in different subnets. One instance is running a database and the other instance an application that will interface with the database. You want to confirm that they can talk to each other for your application to work properly. Which two things do we need to confirm in the VPC settings so that these EC2 instances can communicate inside the VPC? (Choose two.) A. A network ACL that allows communication between the two subnets. B. Both instances are the same instance class and using the same Key-pair. C. That the default route is set to a NAT instance or internet Gateway (IGW) for them to communicate. D. Security groups are set to allow the application host to talk to the database on the right port/protocol. Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 1 When one speaks of 20% of something contributing 80% of the affect they are referring to what is known as the _________________. A. Shewhart Example B. Pareto Principle C. Balance Equation D. Connection Principle Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2 Situations where standardizedwork needs to be incorporated include all of these except _____________________. A. Changeover instructions incomplete B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations C. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 This table displays the inventory of fasteners in a storage cabinet. An item is selected at random from the fastener cabinet. Find the approximate probability it is a bolt.
A. 160 B. .160 C. .09 D. .30 E. none of the above Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Find the value of (5) in the ANOVA table. Assume:
A. 16.4 B. 3.2 C. 18.6 D. 23.2 E. 4.54 F. 12.2 G. 0.525 H. 2.82 I. 1.48 J. 35.4 K. 0.10
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QUESTION 1 The practice of utilizing Poka-Yoke is also known as ________________. A. Thorough integration B. Mistake proofing C. On site inspection D. Lean controls Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 The term FMEA is an abbreviation for Failures Measure Effective Automation. A. True B. False Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A periodic time frame can be used to arrange for Control Limit and Center Line calculations with good SPC implementation in a process. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 For a Normal Distribution the Mean, Median and Mode are the same data point. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to record all actions and decision points in the process. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
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Nokia 4A0-100 practice exam questions 1-5
QUESTION 1
Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop used on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1? A. 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2 B. 0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2 C. 10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0 D. 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive? A. MAC address of the default gateway. B. IP addresses of other DHCP clients. C. IP addresses offered to the client. D. IP addresses of all DHCP servers. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What is NOT a function of the IOM? A. It forwards the data to the switch fabric. B. It discards excess data packets. C. It converts the incoming data to an internal format. D. It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Networks? Choose all that apply. A. IES B. VPWS C. VPLS D. VPRN Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5 A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network? A. CE always connects to a PE router. B. CE always connects to a P router. C. CE always connects to another CE device. D. The CE does not connect to the service provider network. Correct Answer: A
Based on the displayed configuration, which routes does PE3 place in the VPRN 10 routing table? A. The routes learned from CE3 and PE1. B. The route learned from CE3 only. C. The routes learned from PE1 and PE2. D. The routes learned from CE3 and PE2. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following about BGP loops in a VPRN environment is TRUE? A. Traditional BGP loop detection mechanisms are unable to detect a loop in a VPRN scenario. B. BGP loops are detected in a VPRN when the customer has separate sites using the same BGP autonomous system number. C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR rejects routes containing AS_PATH loops by default. D. When “remove-private” is configured at a PE, all routes received from the associated CE will have private AS numbers removed. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Click the exhibit.
For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when an IP packet is sent from 192.1.1.1 to 192.2.1.1? A. PE1 pushes three labels on the IP packet: a VPN label, a BGP label, and an LDP transport label. B. ASBR1 pops the LDP and BGP labels and swaps the VPN label. C. ASBR2 pops the BGP label and pushes an LDP transport label. D. PE2 pops two labels and forwards the unlabeled packet to its destination. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Click the exhibit.
Which of the following best describes the output from the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? A. RSVP-TE has signaled a VPRN label. B. RSVP-TE has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels. C. MP-BGP has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels. D. MP-BGP has signaled a VPRN label. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three) A. VPRN B. BGP/MPLS VPN C. VLL D. VPLS E. IP-VPN F. ePipe Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 1 When configuring RSVP-TE for transport tunnels, which command enables RSVP by default? A. configure router tunnel B. configure router gre C. configure router rsvp-te D. configure router transport-tunnel E. configure router mpls Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR sdp-ping is TRUE? A. It tests the IGP reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP. B. It tests that the MTU settings of a service are correct. C. It tests in-band, uni-directional or round-trip connectivity of SDPs. D. It tests the reachability of hosts connected to an SDP. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 The LSP “toR6” is configured with a fully strict path on a Nokia 7750 SR. Which of the following configurations is required to enable fast reroute for this LSP?
A. Enable fast-reroute on all routers along the path, R1, R2, R4, and R6. B. Enable both link-protection and node-protection on router R1. C. Enable fast-reroute with either one-to-one or facility mode on this LSP. D. Enable link-protection only on router R4. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Click on the exhibit.
Router R2 advertises an OSPF summary route 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1. Router R3 receives labels for individual FECs 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. These two FECs are installed in router R3\\’s LIB but not in the LFIB. What needs to be done on router R3 to install these labels into its LFIB? A. Disable route summarization on router R3. B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match. C. Create an import policy to accept 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. D. Disable LDP exact match on 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What are the types of networks supported on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for OSPF? (Choose 2) A. Broadcast B. Non-Broadcast Multi-Access C. Point-to-Point D. Point-to-Multipoint Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 1 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Gx interface? A. It is a Diameter-based interface between the PCRF and the PCEF. B. The PCEF can act as a client or as a server for the Diameter connection depending on which application is running over the Gx interface. C. The PCEF receives the QoS information for a bearer from the PCRF over the Gx interface. D. It runs a vendor specific application identified by an application ID value of 16777238. E. It is never used to transport user data packets. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 On Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands can be used to check the IP addresses assigned to a particular UE? A. Show mobile-gateway pdn pdn-context B. Show mobile-gateway serving pdn-context imsi detail C. Show mobile-gateway pdn ue-context D. Show mobile-gateway pdn ue-context imsi detail E. Show mobile-gateway pdn bearer-context F. Show mobile-gateway pdn bearer-context imsi detail Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers? A. The default bearer is initiated by either the UE or the PCRF. B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN. C. An AF server may initiate a dedicated bearer to a UE. D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets. E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands is used to check the message statistics between the PGW and the PCRF? A. Show mobile-gateway pdn pdn-context B. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-stats ga C. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-stats gx D. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-peers gn E. Show mobile-gateway pdn ref-point-peers gx Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 On Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW, which of the following CLI commands can be used to debug a given IMSI? A. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session imsi 226041000000008 B. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session-db imsi 226041000000008 C. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session imsi 226041000000008 apn ipd.alcatel-lucent.com D. debug mobile-gateway pdn 1 pdn-session-db imsi 226041000000008 apn ipd.alcatel-lucent.com E. Answers A and C are both correct. F. Answers B and D are both correct. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 What command does a Digital Forensic Examiner use to display the list of all open ports and the associated IP addresses on a victim computer to identify the established connections on it: A. “arp” command B. “netstat ?n” command C. “dd” command D. “ifconfig” command Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 The message that is received and requires an urgent action and it prompts the recipient to delete certain files or forward it to others is called: A. An Adware B. Mail bomb C. A Virus Hoax D. Spear Phishing Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are prevented from using system, network, or applications by flooding the network with high volume of traffic that consumes all existing network resources. A. URL Manipulation B. XSS Attack C. SQL Injection D. Denial of Service Attack Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A software application in which advertising banners are displayed while the program is running that delivers ads to display pop-up windows or bars that appears on a computer screen or browser is called: A. adware (spelled all lower case) B. Trojan C. RootKit D. Virus E. Worm Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 According to US-CERT; if an agency is unable to successfully mitigate a DOS attack it must be reported within: A. One (1) hour of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing B. Two (2) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing C. Three (3) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing D. Four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 According to the Evidence Preservation policy, a forensic investigator should make at least ………………… image copies of the digital evidence. A. One image copy B. Two image copies C. Three image copies D. Four image copies Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A threat source does not present a risk if NO vulnerability that can be exercised for a particular threat source. Identify the step in which different threat sources are defined:
A. Identification Vulnerabilities B. Control analysis C. Threat identification D. System characterization Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Spyware tool used to record malicious user\\’s computer activities and keyboard stokes is called: A. adware B. Keylogger C. Rootkit D. Firewall Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 The open source TCP/IP network intrusion prevention and detection system (IDS/IPS), uses a rule-driven language, performs real-time traffic analysis and packet logging is known as: A. Snort B. Wireshark C. Nessus D. SAINT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 In NIST risk assessment/ methodology; the process of identifying the boundaries of an IT system along with the resources and information that constitute the system is known as: A. Asset Identification B. System characterization C. Asset valuation D. System classification Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 US-CERT and Federal civilian agencies use the reporting timeframe criteria in the federal agency reporting categorization. What is the timeframe required to report an incident under the CAT 4 Federal Agency category? A. Weekly B. Within four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and agency is unable to successfully mitigate activity C. Within two (2) hours of discovery/detection D. Monthly Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A computer forensic investigator must perform a proper investigation to protect digital evidence. During the investigation, an investigator needs to process large amounts of data using a combination of automated and manual methods. Identify the computer forensic process involved: A. Analysis B. Preparation C. Examination D. Collection Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Multiple component incidents consist of a combination of two or more attacks in a system. Which of the following is not a multiple component incident? A. An insider intentionally deleting files from a workstation B. An attacker redirecting user to a malicious website and infects his system with Trojan C. An attacker infecting a machine to launch a DDoS attack D. An attacker using email with malicious code to infect internal workstation Correct Answer: A
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Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of integration points with the following apps and services: Office, Power Apps, Flow, Yammer, Microsoft Graph, Stream, Planner, and Project. The administrator understands how to integrate third-party apps and services including line-of-business applications. Candidates also have an understanding of SQL Server management concepts, Azure Active Directory, PowerShell, networking, Windows server administration, Domain Name System (DNS), Active Directory mobile device management, and alternative operating systems.
QUESTION 1 You have a SharePoint hybrid environment. You have the following PowerShell script.
What is the effect of running the script? A. replaces an expired certificate for Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and on-premises SharePoint Server. B. replaces an expired certificate for Active Directory and SharePoint Online. C. configures SharePoint for hybrid search. D. configures on-premises SharePoint Server for federated authentication to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You have a SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. You implement hybrid search.You discover that some search results are not hybrid search results. You discover that only the Domain Users security group is granted permissions to the content. You need to resolve the issue. What should you do? A. Configure all crawlers to use continuous crawls. B. Create a new user account. Grant the new user account permissions to the content. Modify the Default content access account to use the new user account. C. Add all users to a new domain group. Grant the new domain group permissions to the content. Perform a full crawl. D. Add all users as Search Service Application administrators. Perform a full crawl. Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/hybrid/plan-cloud-hybrid-search-for-sharepoint#why-cant-usersget-hybrid-results-with-cloud-hybrid-search-when-theyre-members-of-the-domain-users-security-group
QUESTION 3 You have a SharePoint team site. You open the Site Settings and discover that the Navigation settings are missing. You need to configure site navigation to use a term set. Which two features should you activate? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 You have a SharePoint Server farm and a SharePoint Online subscription. You plan to configure a SharePoint hybrid environment. You need to identify which groups and roles must be assigned to your user account to implement the deployment. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which three roles and groups should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. the Farm Administrators group in SharePoint B. the Service administrator role in Microsoft Office 365 C. the Domain Admins group in Active Directory D. the ADSyncAdmins group in Active Directory E. the Global administrator role in Microsoft Office 365 Correct Answer: ACE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/hybrid/accounts-needed-for-hybrid-configuration-and-testing
QUESTION 5 You need to resolve the issue for the Distributed Cache service. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 6 You have a SharePoint Server farm that has one web application. The web application contains one site collection. The site collection contains one site. You need to enable managed navigation. What should you do? A. From Site Features, activate SharePoint Server Enterprise Site features. B. From Site Collection Features, activate SharePoint Server Enterprise Site Collection features. C. From Site Features, activate SharePoint Server Publishing. D. From Site Collection Features, activate SharePoint Server Publishing Infrastructure. Correct Answer: C References: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/enable-managed-navigation-for-a-site-insharepoint-49a067dc-77d2-455d-9e77-250ec7cc0a6d
QUESTION 7 You have a SharePoint Server farm. You are troubleshooting Kerberos authentication for the farm. You need to view the Kerberos tickets issued to the server. What should you run? A. the klist.exe command B. the stsadm.exe command C. the Get-SPAuthenticationRealm cmdlet D. the Get-SPAppAcquisitionConfiguration cmdlet Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 You have a SharePoint Server farm. You need to implement hybrid search. Which two service applications are required for hybrid search? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a Managed Metadata Service application B. Business Data Connectivity Service C. Work Management Service Application D. Cloud Search Service Application E. a User Profile service application Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9 Which feature should you activate for the sales department? A. SharePoint Server Standard Site Collection features B. Site Policy feature C. SharePoint Server Enterprise Site Collection features D. SharePoint Server Publishing Infrastructure Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 You are planning the implementation of a SharePoint hybrid environment that will contain the following workloads: Workload1: An external list exposing data from a public OData service endpoint. Workload2: An external list exposing data from a Microsoft Azure SQL database. Workload3: A site that contains a sandbox solution. Workload4: A Microsoft Flow workload. Which workload can run only in the SharePoint Server farm and which workload can run only in SharePoint Online? To answer, drag the appropriate workloads to the correct environments. Each workload may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 You have a SharePoint Server farm. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can apply style sheets and override list behaviors. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which permission best achieves the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Edit B. Full Control C. Design D. Limited Access Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a SharePoint Server farm. You create an external content type named ECT1 for a Microsoft SQL Server database. You implement cloud hybrid search. You create a Line of Business Data content source and run a full crawl. Users in SharePoint Online report that the search results do not contain any data from ECT1. You need to ensure that searches can return data from ECT1. Solution: From a Business Data Connectivity Service application, you grant the Default content access account Manage permissions to ECT1. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Your company has a SharePoint Server farm. The human resources (HR) department at the company has a site that has a URL of http://contoso.com/hr. You need to back up the HR department site every eight hours by using PowerShell. The backup must complete as quickly as possible. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
This exam can be taken as a precursor to cloud computing and technologies exams, such as Office 365, Microsoft Intune, Azure Information Protection (AIP), and Windows 10.
QUESTION 1 A company is a Microsoft 365 reseller. The company does not provide managed services or direct customer support. You need to provide licenses for customers and earn commissions for each license sold. What should you do? A. Buy licenses for customers by using the Microsoft admin portal B. Sign up as a Cloud Solution Provider direct reseller. C. Sign up as a Cloud Solution Provider indirect reseller. D. Buy licenses for customers from a Microsoft authorized distributor. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. A user experiences an issue with SharePoint Online. You need to resolve the issue. Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Go to the SharePoint admin center and create a support request. B. Contact Microsoft technical support by telephone. C. Create a new service request from the Microsoft 365 admin center. D. Create a service request from the SharePoint portal. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You install Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus on five devices. You deactivate one device. Which task can you perform on the deactivated device? A. Print a document. B. Leave a comment in a document. C. Start a new document from a template. D. Set properties on a document. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 You have a hybrid environment that includes Microsoft Azure AD. On-premises applications use Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) for authentication. You need to determine which authentication methods to use. Match each feature to its authentication source. To answer, drag the appropriate authentication sources from the column on the left to the client features on the right. Each authentication source may be used once, more than once, or not at al. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 A company plans to deploy collaboration tools for employees. The company does not plan to deploy a hybrid environment. You need to identify the features that are available in Teams and Skype for Business Server. Match each environment to its feature. To answer, drag the appropriate environment form the column on the left to the features on the right. Each environment may be used once, more than once, or not at all.NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 An organization plans to deploy Microsoft Intune. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to implement security policies to ensure that sensitive data is protected. Which tools should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct scenarios. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer
QUESTION 9 A company plans to deploy Microsoft Intune. Which scenarios can you implement by using Intune? To answer, select the appropriate answer for the given scenarios. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 You are a Microsoft 365 administrator. You need to implement the appropriate features for each scenario. What should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate options at the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 You are a member of a Microsoft Office 36S group named Sates. You create a proposal for a customer by using Word Online. All team members must be able to review and make changes to the proposal at the same. After the proposal is completed, you must share the foal document with the customer in read only format. You need to ensure that the customer sees the most recent version of the document. Which three actions should you perform m sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the Iist of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. A user experiences an issue with SharePoint Online. You need to reserve the issue. What two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution NOTE: Each correct selection b worth one point. A. Go to the SharePoint admin center and create a support request. B. Contact Microsoft technical support by telephone. C. Create a new service request from the Microsoft 365 center. D. Create a service request from the SharePoint portal. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 You use Microsoft 365 Usage Analytics. You need to know the number of users who are active today and were also active last month. Winch metric should you use? A. MoMReturningUsers B. EnabledUsers C. ActiveUsers D. CumulativeActiveUsers Correct Answer: A
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